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+Project Gutenberg (https://www.gutenberg.org) public repository for
+eBook #50141 (https://www.gutenberg.org/ebooks/50141)
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-The Project Gutenberg EBook of Philosophical Studies, by George Edward Moore
-
-This eBook is for the use of anyone anywhere in the United States and most
-other parts of the world at no cost and with almost no restrictions
-whatsoever. You may copy it, give it away or re-use it under the terms of
-the Project Gutenberg License included with this eBook or online at
-www.gutenberg.org. If you are not located in the United States, you'll have
-to check the laws of the country where you are located before using this ebook.
-
-Title: Philosophical Studies
-
-Author: George Edward Moore
-
-Release Date: October 6, 2015 [EBook #50141]
-
-Language: English
-
-Character set encoding: UTF-8
-
-*** START OF THIS PROJECT GUTENBERG EBOOK PHILOSOPHICAL STUDIES ***
-
-
-
-
-Produced by Marc D'Hooghe at http://www.freeliterature.org
-(Images generously made available by the Hathi Trust.)
-
-
-
-
-
-PHILOSOPHICAL STUDIES
-
-By
-
-G. E. MOORE, Litt.D.
-
-_Hon. LL.D. (St. Andrews), F.B.A._
-
-_Lecturer in Moral Science in the University of Cambridge
-Author of "Principia Ethica"_
-
-LONDON
-
-ROUTLEDGE & KEGAN PAUL LTD
-
-BROADWAY HOUSE: 68-74 CARTER LANE, E.C.4
-
-1922
-
-
-
-CONTENTS
-
- I. THE REFUTATION OF IDEALISM
- II. THE NATURE AND REALITY OF OBJECTS OF PERCEPTION
- III. WILLIAM JAMES' "PRAGMATISM"
- IV. HUME'S PHILOSOPHY
- V. THE STATUS OF SENSE-DATA
- VI. THE CONCEPTION OF REALITY
- VII. SOME JUDGMENTS OF PERCEPTION
- VIII. THE CONCEPTION OF INTRINSIC VALUE
- IX. EXTERNAL AND INTERNAL RELATIONS
- X. THE NATURE OF MORAL PHILOSOPHY
-
-
-_Those of the papers in this volume, which have been previously
-published, originally appeared as follows_:--
-
-I. "The Refutation of Idealism" in _Mind,_ N.S. Vol. xii, 1903.
-
-II. "The Nature and Reality of Objects of Perception" in _Proceedings
-of the Aristotelian Society,_ 1905-6.
-
-III. "Professor James' 'Pragmatism'" in _Proceedings of the
-Aristotelian Society,_ 1907-8.
-
-IV. "Hume's Philosophy" in _The New Quarterly,_ November, 1909.
-
-V. "The Status of Sense-Data" in _Proceedings of the Aristotelian
-Society,_ 1913-14.
-
-VI. "The Conception of Reality" in _Proceedings of the Aristotelian
-Society,_ 1917-18.
-
-VII. "Some Judgments of Perception" in _Proceedings of the Aristotelian
-Society,_ 1918-19.
-
-IX. "External and Internal Relations" in _Proceedings of the
-Aristotelian Society,_ 1919-20.
-
-
-
-
-PREFACE
-
-
-All the papers contained in this volume, except the two ethical ones
-(VIII and X), have been previously published; and of those which have
-been previously published all, except that on "External and Internal
-Relations" (IX), are here re-printed without change. They were written
-at various dates between 1903 and 1921, and all are here printed in the
-order in which they were written, except that VIII on "The Conception
-of Intrinsic Value," which was written earlier than VI and VII, has
-been moved out of its proper place in order to bring it nearer to IX
-and X, to both of which it is closely related in subject.
-
-All, except IV and X, were primarily intended for an audience
-familiar with the writings of philosophers; but I hope that they may
-nevertheless prove intelligible even to those who have read little or
-no philosophy, since I make little use of technical terms, and, where I
-have done so, have done my best to explain in ordinary language exactly
-what I mean by them. The tone of X is somewhat different from that
-of the rest, because it was written as a lecture for the _Leicester
-Philosophical Society_, with regard to which I was informed that I must
-not assume any previous acquaintance with philosophy in most of the
-audience. It accordingly bears marks throughout of the kind of audience
-for which it was intended.
-
-An attentive reader will easily discover that some of the views
-expressed in some of the papers are inconsistent with views expressed
-in others. The fact is that some of the views expressed in some of the
-earlier ones are views with which I no longer agree; and I feel that
-some apology is needed for nevertheless republishing them exactly as
-they stood. In all cases, except one, my excuse is that the mistaken
-views in question are so embedded in the form and substance of the
-papers in which they occur, that it would have been impossible to
-correct them without practically substituting new papers for the old
-ones; and that, in spite of these mistakes, the old papers, as they
-stand, still seem to me, on the whole, to say things which are worth
-saying in a form which, however defective it may be, I doubt my
-own ability to improve upon. The only case in which I doubt whether
-this excuse applies is that of the first paper--"The Refutation of
-Idealism." This paper now appears to me to be very confused, as well
-as to embody a good many down-right mistakes; so I am doubtful whether
-I ought to have included it. But in this case I have another excuse:
-namely that it is a paper to which a good many allusions have been made
-by contemporary writers on philosophy; and I was told that, for some
-readers at all events, it would be a convenience that it should be
-re-printed along with the rest, if only for the sake of reference.
-
-I said above that the only one of the previously published papers,
-in which changes have been made, is IX on "External and Internal
-Relations." In this case the changes are not due to any change in my
-views, but to the fact that, in that part of the paper in which symbols
-are used, I tried, when it was first published in the _Proceedings of
-the Aristotelian Society,_ to use the symbols adopted by Whitehead and
-Russell in _Principia Mathematica,_ and used them also without giving
-an explanation of their meaning which would be sufficient for readers
-not acquainted with that work. The symbols in question are symbols
-which it is difficult for printers to reproduce; and I have, therefore,
-thought it better, on this occasion, to use another set of symbols,
-which seem to me to be adequate for the limited purpose I had in view.
-I have tried to give an explanation of their meaning, which will
-enable anyone to understand them; and I have taken the opportunity of
-rewriting some of the parts of the paper in which they occur in a way
-which will, I hope, make some points clearer than they originally were.
-
-I have to thank the Committee of the Aristotelian Society for
-permission to reprint the large number of papers (viz., II, III, V,
-VI, VII and IX), which originally appeared in the _Proceedings_ of
-that Society; and the Editor of the _New Quarterly_ for permission to
-reprint the article on Hume's Philosophy (IV), which appeared in that
-Journal in November, 1909.
-
-G. E. MOORE.
-
-CAMBRIDGE,
-
-_January_, 1922.
-
-
-
-
-
-Philosophical Studies
-
-
-
-
-THE REFUTATION OF IDEALISM
-
-
-Modern Idealism, if it asserts any general conclusion about the
-universe at all, asserts that it is _spiritual._ There are two points
-about this assertion to which I wish to call attention. These points
-are that, whatever be its exact meaning, it is certainly meant to
-assert (1) that the universe is very different indeed from what it
-seems, and (2) that it has quite a large number of properties which it
-does not seem to have. Chairs and tables and mountains _seem_ to be
-very different from us; but, when the whole universe is declared to
-be spiritual, it is certainly meant to assert that they are far more
-like us than we think. The idealist means to assert that they are _in
-some sense_ neither lifeless nor unconscious, as they certainly seem
-to be; and I do not think his language is so grossly deceptive, but
-that we may assume him to believe that they really are very different
-indeed from what they seem. And secondly when he declares that they
-are _spiritual,_ he means to include in that term quite a large number
-of different properties. When the whole universe is declared to be
-spiritual, it is meant not only that it is in some sense _conscious,_
-but that it has what we recognise in ourselves as the _higher_ forms of
-consciousness. That it is intelligent; that it is purposeful; that it
-is not mechanical; all these different things are commonly asserted
-of it. In general, it may be said, this phrase 'reality is spiritual'
-excites and expresses the belief that the _whole_ universe possesses
-_all the qualities_ the possession of which is held to make us so
-superior to things which seem to be inanimate: at least, if it does not
-possess exactly those which we possess, it possesses not one only, but
-several others, which, by the same ethical standard, would be judged
-equal to or better than our own. When we say it is _spiritual_ we mean
-to say that it has quite a number of excellent qualities, different
-from any which we commonly attribute either to stars or planets or to
-cups and saucers.
-
-Now why I mention these two points is that when engaged in the
-intricacies of philosophic discussion, we are apt to overlook the
-vastness of the difference between this idealistic view and the
-ordinary view of the world, and to overlook the number of _different_
-propositions which the idealist must prove. It is, I think, owing to
-the vastness of this difference and owing to the number of different
-excellences which Idealists attribute to the universe, that it seems
-such an interesting and important question whether Idealism be true or
-not. But, when we begin to argue about it, I think we are apt to forget
-what a vast number of arguments this interesting question must involve:
-we are apt to assume, that if one or two points be made on either side,
-the whole case is won. I say this lest it should be thought that any of
-the arguments which will be advanced in this paper would be sufficient
-to disprove, or any refutation of them sufficient to prove, the truly
-interesting and important proposition that reality is spiritual. For my
-own part I wish it to be clearly understood that I do not suppose that
-anything I shall say has the smallest tendency to prove that reality
-is not spiritual: I do not believe it possible to refute a single one
-of the many important propositions contained in the assertion that it
-is so. Reality may be spiritual, for all I know; and I devoutly hope
-it is. But I take 'Idealism' to be a wide term and to include not
-only this interesting conclusion but a number of arguments which are
-supposed to be, if not sufficient, at least _necessary,_ to prove it.
-Indeed I take it that modern Idealists are chiefly distinguished by
-certain arguments which they have in common. That reality is spiritual
-has, I believe, been the tenet of many theologians; and yet, for
-believing that alone, they should hardly be called Idealists. There
-are besides, I believe, many persons, not improperly called Idealists,
-who hold certain characteristic propositions, without venturing to
-think them quite sufficient to prove so grand a conclusion. It is,
-therefore, only with Idealistic _arguments_ that I am concerned; and
-if any Idealist holds that _no_ argument is necessary to prove that
-reality is spiritual, I shall certainly not have refuted him. I shall,
-however, attack at least one argument, which, to the best of my belief,
-is considered necessary to their position by _all_ Idealists. And
-I wish to point out a certain advantage which this procedure gives
-me--an advantage which justifies the assertion that, if my arguments
-are sound, they will have refuted Idealism. If I can refute a single
-proposition which is a necessary and essential step in all Idealistic
-arguments, then, no matter how good the rest of these arguments may be,
-I shall have proved that Idealists have _no reason whatever_ for their
-conclusion.
-
-Suppose we have a chain of argument which takes the form: Since A is
-B, and B is C, and C is D, it follows A is D. In such an argument,
-though 'B is C' and 'C is D' may both be perfectly true, yet if 'A
-is B' be false, we have no more reason for asserting A is D than if
-all three were false. It does not, indeed, follow that A is D is
-false; nor does it follow that no other arguments would prove it to
-be true. But it does follow that, so far as this argument goes, it is
-the barest supposition, without the least bit of evidence. I propose
-to attack a proposition which seems to me to stand in this relation
-to the conclusion 'Reality is spiritual.' I do not propose to dispute
-that 'Reality is spiritual;' I do not deny that there may be reasons
-for thinking that it is: but I do propose to show that one reason upon
-which, to the best of my judgment, all other arguments ever used by
-Idealists depend is _false._ These other arguments may, for all I shall
-say, be eminently ingenious and true; they are very many and various,
-and different Idealists use the most different arguments to prove the
-same most important conclusions. Some of these _may_ be sufficient to
-prove that B is C and C is D; but if, as I shall try to show, their 'A
-is B' is false the conclusion A is D remains a pleasant supposition.
-I do not deny that to suggest pleasant and plausible suppositions may
-be the proper function of philosophy: but I am assuming that the name
-Idealism can only be properly applied where there is a certain amount
-of argument, intended to be cogent.
-
-The subject of this paper is, therefore, quite uninteresting. Even
-if I prove my point, I shall have proved nothing about the Universe
-in general. Upon the important question whether Reality is or is not
-spiritual my argument will not have the remotest bearing. I shall only
-attempt to arrive at the truth about a matter, which is in itself quite
-trivial and insignificant, and from which, so far as I can see and
-certainly so far as I shall say, no conclusions can be drawn about any
-of the subjects about which we most want to know. The only importance
-I can claim for the subject I shall investigate is that it seems to me
-to be a matter upon which not Idealists only, but all philosophers and
-psychologists also, have been in error, and from their erroneous view
-of which they have inferred (validly or invalidly) their most striking
-and interesting conclusions. And that it has even this importance I
-cannot hope to prove. If it has this importance, it will indeed follow
-that all the most striking results of philosophy--Sensationalism.
-Agnosticism and Idealism alike--have, for all that has hitherto been
-urged in their favour, no more foundation than the supposition that
-a chimera lives in the moon. It will follow that, unless new reasons
-never urged hitherto can be found, all the most important philosophic
-doctrines have as little claim to assent as the most superstitious
-beliefs of the lowest savages. Upon the question what we have _reason_
-to believe in the most interesting matters, I do therefore think that
-my results will have an important bearing; but I cannot too clearly
-insist that upon the question whether these beliefs are true they will
-have none whatever.
-
-The trivial proposition which I propose to dispute is this: that _esse_
-is _percipi._ This is a very ambiguous proposition, but, in some sense
-or other, it has been very widely held. That it is, in some sense,
-essential to Idealism, I must for the present merely assume. What I
-propose to show is that, in all the senses ever given to it, it is
-false.
-
-But, first of all, it may be useful to point out briefly in what
-relation I conceive it to stand to Idealistic arguments. That wherever
-you can truly predicate _esse_ you can truly predicate _percipi_, in
-some sense or other, is, I take it, a necessary step In all arguments,
-properly to be called Idealistic, and, what is more, in all arguments
-hitherto offered for the Idealistic conclusion. If _esse_ is
-_percipi,_ this is at once equivalent to saying that whatever is, is
-experienced; and this, again, is equivalent, in a sense, to saying that
-whatever is, is something mental. But this is not the sense in which
-the Idealist _conclusion_ must maintain that Reality is _mental._ The
-Idealist _conclusion_ is that _esse_ is _percipere_; and hence, whether
-_esse_ be _percipi_ or not, a further and different discussion is
-needed to show whether or not it is also _percipere._ And again, even
-if _esse_ be _percipere_, we need a vast quantity of further argument
-to show that what has _esse_ has also those higher mental qualities
-which are denoted by spiritual. This is why I said that the question
-I should discuss, namely, whether or not _esse is percipi_, must be
-utterly insufficient either to prove or to disprove that reality is
-spiritual. But, on the other hand, I believe that every argument ever
-used to show that reality is spiritual has inferred this (validly or
-invalidly) from '_esse_ is _percipere'_ as one of its premisses; and
-that this again has never been pretended to be proved except by use of
-the premiss that _esse_ is _percipi._ The type of argument used for the
-latter purpose is familiar enough. It is said that since whatever is,
-is experienced, and since some things are which are not experienced by
-the individual, these must at least form part of some experience. Or
-again that, since an object necessarily implies a subject, and since
-the whole world must be an object, we must conceive it to belong to
-some subject or subjects, in the same sense in which whatever is the
-object of our experience belongs to us. Or again, that, since thought
-enters into the essence of all reality, we must conceive behind it, in
-it, or as its essence, a spirit akin to ours, who think: that 'spirit
-greets spirit' in its object. Into the validity of these inferences
-I do not propose to enter: they obviously require a great deal of
-discussion. I only desire to point out that, however correct they may
-be, yet if _esse_ is not _percipi,_ they leave us as far from a proof
-that reality is spiritual, as if they were all false too.
-
-But now: Is _esse percipi?_ There are three very ambiguous terms in
-this proposition, and I must begin by distinguishing the different
-things that may be meant by some of them.
-
-And first with regard to _percipi._ This term need not trouble us
-long at present. It was, perhaps, originally used to mean 'sensation'
-only; but I am not going to be so unfair to modern Idealists--the
-only Idealists to whom the term should now be applied without
-qualification--as to hold that, if they say _esse_ is _percipi_, they
-mean by _percipi_ sensation only. On the contrary I quite agree with
-them that, if _esse_ be _percipi_ at all, _percipi_ must be understood
-to include not sensation only, but that other type of mental fact,
-which is called 'thought '; and, whether _esse_ be _percipi_ or not, I
-consider it to be the main service of the philosophic school, to which
-modern Idealists belong, that they have insisted on distinguishing
-'sensation' and 'thought' and on emphasising the importance of the
-latter. Against Sensationalism and Empiricism they have maintained the
-true view. But the distinction between sensation and thought need not
-detain us here. For, in whatever respects they differ, they have at
-least this in common, that they are both forms of consciousness or, to
-use a term that seems to be more in fashion just now, they are both
-ways of experiencing. Accordingly, whatever _esse_ is _percipi_ may
-mean, it does _at least_ assert that whatever is, is _experienced._
-And since what I wish to maintain is, that even this is untrue, the
-question whether it be experienced by way of sensation or thought or
-both is for my purpose quite irrelevant. If it be not experienced at
-all, it cannot be either an object of thought or an object of sense.
-It is only if being involves 'experience' that the question, whether
-it involves sensation or thought or both, becomes important. I beg,
-therefore, that _percipi_ may be understood, in what follows, to refer
-merely to what is _common_ to sensation and thought. A very recent
-article states the meaning of _esse_ is _percipi_ with all desirable
-clearness in so far as _percipi_ is concerned.
-
-'I will undertake to show,' says Mr. Taylor,[1] 'that what makes [any
-piece of fact] real can be nothing but its presence as an inseparable
-aspect of _a sentient experience_.' I am glad to think that Mr. Taylor
-has been in time to supply me with so definite a statement that this
-is the ultimate premiss of Idealism. My paper will at least refute
-Mr. Taylor's Idealism, if it refutes anything at all: for I _shall_
-undertake to show that what makes a thing real cannot possibly be its
-presence as an inseparable aspect of a senient experience.
-
-But Mr. Taylor's statement though clear, I think, with regard to
-the meaning of _percipi_ is highly ambiguous in other respects. I
-will leave it for the present to consider the next ambiguity in the
-statement: _Esse_ is _percipi._ What does the copula mean? What can be
-meant by saying that Esse _is_ percipi? There are just three meanings,
-one or other of which such a statement _must_ have, if it is to be
-true; and of these there is only one which it can have, if it is to
-be important. (1) The statement may be meant to assert that the word
-'esse' is used to signify nothing either more or less than the word
-'percipi': that the two words are precise synonyms: that they are
-merely different names for one and the same thing: that what is meant
-by _esse_ is absolutely identical with what is meant by _percipi._
-I think I need not prove that the principle _esse_ is _percipi_ is
-_not_ thus intended merely to define a word; nor yet that, if it were,
-it would be an extremely bad definition. But if it does _not_ mean
-this, only two alternatives remain. The second is (2) that what is
-meant by _esse,_ though not absolutely identical with what is meant by
-_percipi_, yet _includes_ the latter as a _part_ of its meaning. If
-this were the meaning of 'esse is percipi,' then to say that a thing
-was real would not be the same thing as to say that it was experienced.
-That it was _real_ would mean that it was experienced and _something
-else besides_: 'being experienced' would be _analytically essential_
-to reality, but would not be the whole meaning of the term. From the
-fact that a thing was real we should be able to infer, by the law of
-contradiction, that it was experienced; since the latter would be
-_part_ of what is meant by the former. But, on the other hand, from the
-fact a thing was experienced we should _not_ be able to infer that it
-was real; since it would not follow from the fact that it had one of
-the attributes essential to reality, that it _also_ had the other or
-others. Now, if we understand _esse_ is _percipi_ in this second sense,
-we must distinguish _three_ different things which it asserts. First of
-all, it gives a definition of the word 'reality,' asserting that word
-stands for a complex whole, of which what is meant by 'percipi' forms
-a part. And secondly it asserts that 'being experienced' forms a part
-of a certain whole. Both these propositions may be true, and at all
-events I do not wish to dispute them. I do not, indeed, think that the
-word 'reality' is commonly used to include 'percipi': but I do not wish
-to argue about the meaning of words. And that many things which are
-experienced are also something else--that to be experienced forms part
-of certain wholes, is, of course, indisputable. But what I wish to
-point out is, that neither of these propositions is of any importance,
-unless we add to them a _third._ That 'real' is a convenient name for a
-union of attributes which _sometimes_ occurs, it could not be worth any
-one's while to assert: no inferences of any importance could be drawn
-from such an assertion. Our principle could only mean that when a thing
-happens to have _percipi_ as well as the other qualities included under
-_esse,_ it has _percipi_: and we should never be able to _infer_ that
-it was experienced, except from a proposition which already asserted
-that it was both experienced and something else. Accordingly, if the
-assertion that _percipi_ forms part of the whole meant by reality is
-to have any importance, it must mean that the whole is organic, at
-least in this sense, that the other constituent or constituents of it
-_cannot_ occur without percipi, even if percipi can occur without them.
-Let us call these other constituents _x._ The proposition that _esse_
-includes _percipi,_ and that therefore from _esse percipi_ can be
-inferred, can only be important if it is meant to assert that _percipi_
-can be inferred from _x._ The only importance of the question whether
-the whole _esse_ includes the part _percipi_ rests therefore on the
-question whether the part _x_ is necessarily connected with the part
-_percipi._ And this is (3) the third possible meaning of the assertion
-_esse is percipi:_ and, as we now see, the only important one. _Esse_
-is _percipi_ asserts that wherever you have _x_ you also have _percipi_
-that whatever has the property _x_ also has the property that it is
-_experienced._ And this being so, it will be convenient if, for the
-future, I may be allowed to use the term '_esse_' to denote _x alone._
-I do not wish thereby to beg the question whether what we commonly mean
-by the word 'real' does or does not include _percipi_ as well as _x._ I
-am quite content that my definition of 'esse' to denote _x_, should be
-regarded merely as an arbitrary verbal definition. Whether it is so or
-not, the only question of interest is whether from _x percipi_ can be
-inferred, and I should prefer to be able to express this in the form:
-can _percipi_ be inferred from _esse?_ Only let it be understood that
-when I say _esse,_ that term will not for the future _include percipi_:
-it denotes only that _x,_ which Idealists, perhaps rightly, include
-_along with percipi_ under _their_ term _esse._ That there is such an
-_x_ they must admit on pain of making the proposition an _absolute_
-tautology; and that from this _x percipi_ can be inferred they must
-admit, on pain of making it a perfectly barren analytic proposition.
-Whether _x_ done should or should not be called _esse_ is not worth
-a dispute: what is worth dispute is whether _percipi_ is necessarily
-connected with _x._
-
-We have therefore discovered the ambiguity of the copula in _esse_ is
-_percipi,_ so far as to see that this principle asserts two distinct
-terms to be so related, that whatever has the _one,_ which I call
-_esse,_ has _also_ the property that it is experienced. It asserts a
-necessary connexion between _esse_ on the one hand and _percipi_ on
-the other; these two words denoting each a distinct term, and _esse_
-denoting a term in which that denoted by _percipi_ is not included. We
-have, then in _esse_ is _percipi,_ a _necessary synthetic_ proposition
-which I have undertaken to refute. And I may say at once that,
-understood as such, it cannot be refuted. If the Idealist chooses to
-assert that it is merely a self-evident truth, I have only to say that
-it does not appear to me to be so. But I believe that no Idealist ever
-has maintained it to be so. Although this--that two distinct terms are
-necessarily related--is the only sense which 'esse is percipi' can have
-if it is to be true and important, it _can_ have another sense, if it
-is to be an important falsehood. I believe that Idealists all hold this
-important falsehood. They do not perceive that _Esse_ is _percipi_
-must, if true, be _merely_ a self-evident synthetic truth: they either
-identify with it or give as a reason for it another proposition which
-must be false because it is self-contradictory. Unless they did so,
-they would have to admit that it was a perfectly unfounded assumption;
-and if they recognised that it was _unfounded,_ I do not think they
-would maintain its truth to be evident. _Esse_ is _percipi,_ in the
-sense I have found for it, _may_ indeed be true; I cannot, refute it:
-but if this sense were clearly apprehended, no one, I think, would
-_believe_ that it was true.
-
-Idealists, we have seen, must assert that whatever is experienced,
-is _necessarily_ so. And this doctrine they commonly express by
-saying that 'the object of experience is inconceivable apart from the
-subject.' I have hitherto been concerned with pointing out what meaning
-this assertion must have, if it is to be an important truth. I now
-propose to show that it may have an important meaning, which must be
-false, because it is self-contradictory.
-
-It is a well-known fact in the history of philosophy that _necessary_
-truths in general, but especially those of which it is said that
-the opposite is inconceivable, have been commonly supposed to be
-_analytic,_ in the sense that the proposition denying them was
-self-contradictory. It was in this way, commonly supposed, before Kant,
-that many truths could be proved by the law of contradiction alone.
-This is, therefore, a mistake which it is plainly easy for the best
-philosophers to make. Even since Kant many have continued to assert
-it; but I am aware that among those Idealists, who most properly
-deserve the name, it has become more fashionable to assert that truths
-are _both_ analytic and synthetic. Now with many of their reasons
-for asserting this I am not concerned: it is possible that in some
-connexions the assertion may bear a useful and true sense. But if we
-understand 'analytic' in the sense just defined, namely, what is proved
-by the law of contradiction _alone_, it is plain that, if 'synthetic'
-means what is _not_ proved by this alone, no truth can be both analytic
-and synthetic. Now it seems to me that those who do maintain truths to
-be both, do nevertheless maintain that they are so in this as well as
-in other senses. It is, indeed, extremely unlikely that so essential
-a part of the historical meaning of 'analytic' and 'synthetic' should
-have been entirely discarded, especially since we find no express
-recognition that it is discarded. In that case it is fair to suppose
-that modern Idealists have been influenced by the view that certain
-truths can be proved by the law of contradiction alone. I admit they
-also expressly declare that they can _not:_ but this is by no means
-sufficient to prove that they do not also think they are; since it is
-very easy to hold two mutually contradictory opinions. What I suggest
-then is that Idealists hold the particular doctrine in question,
-concerning the relation of subject and object in experience, because
-they think it is an analytic truth in this restricted sense that it is
-proved by the law of contradiction alone.
-
-I am suggesting that the Idealist maintains that object and subject are
-necessarily connected, mainly because he fails to see that they are
-_distinct_, that they are _two,_ at all. When he thinks of 'yellow'
-and when he thinks of the 'sensation of yellow,' he fails to see that
-there is anything whatever in the latter which is not in the former.
-This being so, to deny that yellow can ever _be_ apart from the
-sensation of yellow is merely to deny that yellow can ever be other
-than it is; since yellow and the sensation of yellow are absolutely
-identical. To assert that yellow is necessarily an object of experience
-is to assert that yellow is necessarily yellow--a purely identical
-proposition, and therefore proved by the law of contradiction alone.
-Of course, the proposition also implies that experience is, after all,
-something distinct from yellow--else there would be no reason for
-insisting that yellow is a sensation: and that the argument thus both
-affirms and denies that yellow and sensation of yellow are distinct,
-is what sufficiently refutes it. But this contradiction can easily
-be overlooked, because though we are convinced, in other connexions,
-that 'experience' does mean something and something most important,
-yet we are never distinctly aware _what_ it means, and thus in every
-particular case we do not notice its presence. The facts present
-themselves as a kind of antinomy:
-
-(1) Experience _is_ something unique and different from anything else;
-(2) Experience of green is entirely indistinguishable from green; two
-propositions which cannot both be true. Idealists, holding both, can
-only take refuge in arguing from the one in some connexions and from
-the other in others.
-
-But I am well aware that there are many Idealists who would repel it
-as an utterly unfounded charge that they fail to distinguish between
-a sensation or idea and what I will call its object. And there are, I
-admit, many who not only imply, as we all do, that green is distinct
-from the sensation of green, but expressly insist upon the distinction
-as an important part of their system. They would perhaps only assert
-that the two form an inseparable unity. But I wish to point out that
-many, who use this phrase, and who do admit the distinction, are not
-thereby absolved from the charge that they deny it. For there is a
-certain doctrine, very prevalent among philosophers nowadays, which by
-a very simple reduction may be seen to assert that two distinct things
-both are and are not distinct. A distinction is asserted; but it is
-_also_ asserted that the things distinguished form an 'organic unity,'
-But, forming such a unity, it is held, each would not be what it is
-_apart from its relation to the other._ Hence to consider either by
-itself is to make an _illegitimate abstraction._ The recognition that
-there are 'organic unities' and 'illegitimate abstractions' in this
-sense is regarded as one of the chief conquests of modern philosophy.
-But what is the sense attached to these terms? An abstraction is
-illegitimate, when and only when we attempt to assert of _a part_--of
-something abstracted--that which is true only of the _whole_ to which
-it belongs: and it may perhaps be useful to point out that this should
-not be done. But the application actually made of this principle,
-and what perhaps would be expressly acknowledged as its meaning, is
-something much the reverse of useful. The principle is used to assert
-that certain abstractions are _in all cases_ illegitimate; that
-whenever you try to assert _anything whatever_ of that which is _part_
-of an organic whole, what you assert can only be true of the whole.
-And this principle, so far from being a useful truth, is necessarily
-false. For if the whole can, nay _must,_ be substituted for the part
-in all propositions and for all purposes, this can only be because the
-whole is absolutely identical with the part. When, therefore, we are
-told that green and the sensation of green are certainly distinct but
-yet are not separable, or that it is an illegitimate abstraction to
-consider the one apart from the other, what these provisos are used
-to assert is, that though the two things are distinct yet you not
-only can but must treat them as if they were not. Many philosophers,
-therefore, when they admit a distinction, yet (following the lead
-of Hegel) boldly assert their right, in a slightly more obscure form
-of words, _also_ to deny it. The principle of organic unities, like
-that of combined analysis and synthesis, is mainly used to defend the
-practice of holding _both_ of two contradictory propositions, wherever
-this may seem convenient. In this, as in other matters, Hegel's main
-service to philosophy has consisted in giving a name to and erecting
-into a principle, a type of fallacy to which experience had shown
-philosophers, along with the rest of mankind, to be addicted. No wonder
-that he has followers and admirers.
-
-I have shown then, so far, that when the Idealist asserts the important
-principle 'Esse is _percipi'_ he must, if it is to be true, mean by
-this that: Whatever is experienced also _must_ be experienced. And
-I have also shown that he _may_ identify with, or give as a reason
-for, this proposition, one which must be false, because it is self
-contradictory. But at this point I propose to make a complete break
-in my argument. '_Esse_ is _percipi_,' we have seen, asserts of two
-terms, as distinct from one another as 'green' and 'sweet,' that
-whatever has the one has also the other: it asserts that 'being' and
-'being experienced' are necessarily connected: that whatever _is_ is
-_also_ experienced. And this, I admit, cannot be directly refuted.
-But I believe it to be false; and I have asserted that anybody who
-saw that '_esse_ and _percipi_' _were_ as distinct as 'green' and
-'sweet' would be no more ready to believe that whatever _is_ is _also_
-experienced, than to believe that whatever is green is also sweet. I
-have asserted that no one would believe that '_esse_ is _percipi_'
-if they saw how different _esse_ is from _percipi:_ but _this_ I
-shall not try to prove. I have asserted that all who do believe that
-'_esse_ is _percipi_' identify with it or take as a reason for it a
-self-contradictory proposition: but this I shall not try to prove. I
-shall only try to show that certain propositions which I assert to be
-believed, are false. That they are believed, and that without this
-belief '_esse_ is _percipi'_ would not be believed either, I must leave
-without a proof.
-
-I pass, then, from the uninteresting question 'Is _'esse percipi?'_ to
-the still more uninteresting and apparently irrelevant question 'What
-is a sensation or idea?'
-
-We all know that the sensation of blue differs from that of green. But
-it is plain that if both are _sensations_ they also have some point in
-common. What is it that they have in common? And how is this common
-element related to the points in which they differ?
-
-I will call the common element 'consciousness' without yet attempting
-to say what the thing I so call _is._ We have then in every sensation
-two distinct terms, (1) 'consciousness,' in respect of which all
-sensations are alike; and (2) something else, in respect of which one
-sensation differs from another. It will be convenient if I may be
-allowed to call this second term the 'object' of a sensation: this also
-without yet attempting to say what I mean by the word.
-
-We have then in every sensation two distinct elements, one which I call
-consciousness, and another which I call the object of consciousness.
-This must be so if the sensation of blue and the sensation of green,
-though different in one respect, are alike in another: blue is one
-object of sensation and green is another, and consciousness, which both
-sensations have in common, is different from either.
-
-But, further, sometimes the sensation of blue exists in my mind and
-sometimes it does not; and knowing, as we now do, that the sensation of
-blue includes two different elements, namely consciousness and blue,
-the question arises whether, when the sensation of blue exists, it is
-the consciousness which exists, or the blue which exists, or both.
-And one point at least is plain: namely that these three alternatives
-are all different from one another. So that, if any one tells us that
-to say 'Blue exists' is the _same_ thing as to say that 'Both blue
-and consciousness exist,' he makes a mistake and a self-contradictory
-mistake.
-
-But another point is also plain, namely, that when the sensation
-exists, the consciousness, at least, certainly does exist; for when I
-say that the sensations of blue and of green both exist, I certainly
-mean that what is common to both and in virtue of which both are
-called sensations, exists in each case. The only alternative left,
-then, is that _either_ both exist or the consciousness exists alone.
-If, therefore, any one tells us that the existence of blue is the same
-thing as the existence of the sensation of blue he makes a mistake and
-a self-contradictory mistake, for he asserts _either_ that blue is the
-same thing as blue together with consciousness, _or_ that it is the
-same thing as consciousness alone.
-
-Accordingly to identify either "blue" or any other of what I have
-called "_objects_" of sensation, with the corresponding sensation is
-in every case, a self-contradictory error. It is to identify a part
-either with the whole of which it is a part or else with the other part
-of the same whole. If we are told that the assertion "Blue exists" is
-_meaningless_ unless we mean by it that "The sensation of blue exists,"
-we are told what is certainly false and self-contradictory. If we
-are told that the existence of blue is inconceivable apart from the
-existence of the sensation, the speaker _probably_ means to convey to
-us, by this ambiguous expression, what is a self-contradictory error.
-For we can and must conceive the existence of blue as something quite
-distinct from the existence of the sensation. We can and must conceive
-that blue might exist and yet the sensation of blue not exist. For my
-own part I not only conceive this, but conceive it to be true. Either
-therefore this terrific assertion of inconceivability means what is
-false and self-contradictory or else it means only that _as a matter of
-fact_ blue never can exist unless the sensation of it exists also.
-
-And at this point I need not conceal my opinion that no philosopher
-has ever yet succeeded in avoiding this self-contradictory error: that
-the most striking results both of Idealism and of Agnosticism are only
-obtained by identifying blue with the sensation of blue: that _esse_
-is held to be _percipi,_ solely because _what is experienced_ is held
-to be identical with _the experience of it._ That Berkeley and Mill
-committed this error will, perhaps, be granted: that modern Idealists
-make it will, I hope, appear more probable later. But that my opinion
-is plausible, I will now offer two pieces of evidence. The first is
-that language offers us no means of referring to such objects as "blue"
-and "green" and "sweet," except by calling them sensations: it is an
-obvious violation of language to call them "things" or "objects" or
-"terms." And similarly we have no natural means of referring to such
-objects as "causality" or "likeness" or "identity," except by calling
-them "ideas" or "notions" or "conceptions." But it is hardly likely
-that if philosophers had clearly distinguished in the past between a
-sensation or idea and what I have called its object, there should have
-been no separate name for the latter. They have always used the same
-name for these two different "things" (if I may call them so): and
-hence there is some probability that they have supposed these "things"
-_not_ to be two and different, but one and the same. And, secondly,
-there is a very good reason why they should have supposed so, in the
-fact that when we refer to introspection and try to discover what the
-sensation of blue is, it is very easy to suppose that we have before
-us only a single term. The term "blue" is easy enough to distinguish,
-but the other element which I have called "consciousness"--that which
-sensation of blue has in common with sensation of green--is extremely
-difficult to fix. That many people fail to distinguish it at all is
-sufficiently shown by the fact that there are materialists. And, in
-general, that which makes the sensation of blue a mental fact seems to
-escape us: it seems, if I may use a metaphor, to be transparent--we
-look through it and see nothing but the blue; we may be convinced that
-there _is something_ but _what_ it is no philosopher, I think, has yet
-clearly recognised.
-
-But this was a digression. The point I had established so far was
-that in every sensation or idea we must distinguish two elements,
-(1) the "object," or that in which one differs from another; and (2)
-"consciousness," or that which all have in common--that which makes
-them sensations or mental facts. This being so, it followed that when
-a sensation or idea exists, we have to choose between the alternatives
-that either object alone, or consciousness alone, or both, exist;
-and I showed that of these alternatives one, namely that the object
-only exists, is excluded by the fact that what we mean to assert is
-certainly the existence of a mental fact. There remains the question:
-Do both exist? Or does the consciousness alone? And to this question
-one answer has hitherto been given universally: That both exist.
-
-This answer follows from the analysis hitherto accepted of the relation
-of what I have called "object" to "consciousness" in any sensation or
-idea. It is held that what I call the object is merely the "content" of
-a sensation or idea. It is held that in each case we can distinguish
-two elements and two only, (1) the fact that there is feeling or
-experience, and (2) _what_ is felt or experienced; the sensation or
-idea, it is said, forms a whole, in which we must distinguish two
-"inseparable aspects," "content" and "existence." I shall try to show
-that this analysis is false; and for that purpose I must ask what may
-seem an extraordinary question: namely what is meant by saying that one
-thing is "content" of another? It is not usual to ask this question;
-the term is used as if everybody must understand it. But since I am
-going to maintain that "blue" is _not_ the content of the sensation of
-blue, and what is more important, that, even if it were this analysis
-would leave out the most important element in the sensation of blue, it
-is necessary that I should try to explain precisely what it is that I
-shall deny.
-
-What then is meant by saying that one thing is the "content" of
-another? First of all I wish to point out that "blue" is rightly
-and properly said to be part of the content of a blue flower. If,
-therefore, we also assert that it is part of the content of the
-sensation of blue, we assert that it has to the other parts (if any)
-of this whole the same relation which it has to the other parts of
-a blue flower--and we assert only this: we cannot mean to assert
-that it has to the sensation of blue any relation which it does not
-have to the blue flower. And we have seen that the sensation of blue
-contains at least one other element beside blue--namely, what I call
-"consciousness," which makes it a sensation. So far then as we assert
-that blue is the content of the sensation, we assert that it has to
-this "consciousness" the same relation which it has to the other parts
-of a blue flower: we do assert this, and we assert no more than this.
-Into the question what exactly the relation is between blue and a blue
-flower in virtue of which we call the former part of its "content" I
-do not propose to enter. It is sufficient for my purpose to point out
-that it is the general relation most commonly meant when we talk of a
-thing and its qualities; and that this relation is such that to say the
-thing exists implies that the qualities also exist. The _content_ of
-the thing is _what_ we assert to exist, when we assert _that_ the thing
-exists.
-
-When, therefore, blue is said to be part of the content of the
-"sensation of blue," the latter is treated as if it were a whole
-constituted in exactly the same way as any other "thing." The
-"sensation of blue," on this view, differs from a blue bead or a blue
-beard, in exactly the same way in which the two latter differ from one
-another: the blue bead differs from the blue beard, in that while the
-former contains glass, the latter contains hair; and the "sensation
-of blue" differs from both in that, instead of glass or hair, it
-contains consciousness. The relation of the blue to the consciousness
-is conceived to be exactly the same as that of the blue to the glass or
-hair: it is in all three cases the _quality_ of a _thing._
-
-But I said just now that the sensation of blue was analysed into
-"content" and "existence," and that blue was said to be _the_ content
-of the idea of blue. There is an ambiguity in this and a possible
-error, which I must note in passing. The term "content" may be used
-in two senses. If we use "content" as equivalent to what Mr. Bradley
-calls the "_what_"--if we mean by it the _whole_ of what is said to
-exist, when the thing is said to exist, then blue is certainly not
-_the_ content of the sensation of blue: part of the _content_ of the
-sensation is, in this sense of the term, that other element which I
-have called consciousness. The analysis of this sensation into the
-"content" "blue," on the one hand, and mere existence on the other, is
-therefore certainly false; in it we have again the self-contradictory
-identification of "Blue exists" with "The sensation of blue exists,"
-But there is another sense in which "blue" might properly be said to be
-_the_ content of the sensation--namely, the sense in which "content,"
-like _εἴδος_ is opposed to "substance" or "matter." For the element
-"consciousness," being common to all sensations, may be and certainly
-is regarded as in some sense their "substance," and by the "content"
-of each is only meant that in respect of which one differs from
-another. In this sense then "blue" might be said to be _the_ content
-of the sensation; but, in that case, the analysis into "content" and
-"existence" is, at least, misleading, since under "existence" must be
-included "_what_ exists" in the sensation other than blue.
-
-We have it, then, as a universally received opinion that blue is
-related to the sensation or idea of blue, as its _content_, and
-that this view, if it is to be true, must mean that blue is part of
-_what_ is said to exist when we say that the sensation exists. To say
-that the sensation exists is to say both that blue exists and that
-"consciousness," whether we call it the substance of which blue is
-_the_ content or call it another part of the content, exists too. Any
-sensation or idea is a "_thing,_" and what I have called its object is
-the quality of this thing. Such a "thing" is what we think of when we
-think of a _mental image._ A mental image is conceived as if it were
-related to that of which it is the image (if there be any such thing)
-in exactly the same way as the image in a looking-glass is related to
-that of which it is the reflection; in both cases there is identity
-of content, and the image in the looking-glass differs from that
-in the mind solely in respect of the fact that in the one case the
-other constituent of the image is "glass" and in the other case it is
-consciousness. If the image is of blue, it is not conceived that this
-"content" has any relation to the consciousness but what it has to the
-glass: it Is conceived _merely_ to be its _content._ And owing to the
-fact that sensations and ideas are all considered to be _wholes_ of
-this description--things in the mind--the question: What do we know?
-is considered to be identical with the question: What reason have we
-for supposing that there are things outside the mind _corresponding_ to
-these that are inside it?
-
-What I wish to point out is (1) that we have no reason for supposing
-that there are such things as mental images at all--for supposing that
-blue _is_ part of the content of the sensation of blue, and (2) that
-even if there are mental images, no mental image and no sensation or
-idea is _merely_ a thing of this kind: that 'blue,' even if it is
-part of the content of the image or sensation or idea of blue, is
-always _also_ related to it in quite another way, and that this other
-relation, omitted in the traditional analysis, is the _only_ one which
-makes the sensation of blue a mental fact at all.
-
-The true analysis of a sensation or idea is as follows. The element
-that is common to them all, and which I have called "consciousness,"
-really _is_ consciousness. A sensation is, in reality, a case of
-'knowing' or 'being aware of' or 'experiencing' something. When we
-know that the sensation of blue exists, the fact we know is that
-there exists an awareness of blue. And this awareness is not merely,
-as we have hitherto seen it must be, itself something distinct and
-unique, utterly different from blue: it also has a perfectly distinct
-and unique relation to blue, a relation which is _not_ that of thing
-or substance to content, nor of one part of content to another part
-of content. This relation is just that which we mean in every case
-by 'knowing.' To have in your mind 'knowledge' of blue, is _not_ to
-have in your mind a 'thing' or 'image' of which blue is the content.
-To be aware of the sensation of blue is _not_ to be aware of a
-mental image--of a "thing," of which 'blue' and some other element
-are constituent parts in the same sense in which blue and glass are
-constituents of a blue bead. It is to be aware of an awareness of
-blue; awareness being used, in both cases, in exactly the same sense.
-This element, we have seen, is certainly neglected by the 'content'
-theory: that theory entirely fails to express the fact that there is,
-in the sensation of blue, this unique relation between blue and the
-other constituent. And what I contend is that this omission is _not_
-mere negligence of expression, but is due to the fact that though
-philosophers have recognised that _something_ distinct is meant by
-consciousness, they have never yet had a clear conception of _what_
-that something is. They have not been able to hold _it_ and _blue_
-before their minds and to compare them, in the same way in which they
-can compare _blue_ and _green._ And this for the reason I gave above:
-namely that the moment we try to fix our attention upon consciousness
-and to see _what_, distinctly, it is, it seems to vanish: it seems as
-if we had before us a mere emptiness. When we try to introspect the
-sensation of blue, all we can see is the blue: the other element is
-as if it were diaphanous. Yet it _can_ be distinguished if we look
-attentively enough, and if we know that there is something to look for.
-My main object in this paragraph has been to try to make the reader
-_see_ it; but I fear I shall have succeeded very ill.
-
-It being the case, then, that the sensation of blue includes in its
-analysis, beside blue, _both_ a unique element 'awareness' _and_ a
-unique relation of this element to blue, I can make plain what I meant
-by asserting, as two distinct propositions, (1) that blue is probably
-not part of the content of the sensation at all, and (2) that, even it
-were, the sensation would nevertheless not be the sensation _of_ blue,
-if blue had only this relation to it. The first hypothesis may now be
-expressed by saying that, if it were true, then, when the sensation of
-blue exists, there exists a _blue awareness_: offence may be taken at
-the expression, but yet it expresses just what should be and is meant
-by saying that blue is, in this case, a _content_ of consciousness
-or experience. Whether or not, when I have the sensation of blue, my
-consciousness or awareness is thus blue, my introspection does not
-enable me to decide with certainty: I only see no reason for thinking
-that it is. But whether it is or not, the point is unimportant, for
-introspection _does_ enable me to decide that something else is also
-true: namely that I am aware _of_ blue, and by this I mean, that my
-awareness has to blue a quite different and distinct relation. It is
-possible, I admit, that my awareness is blue _as well_ as being _of_
-blue: but what I am quite sure of is that it is _of_ blue; that it has
-to blue the simple and unique relation the existence of which alone
-justifies us in distinguishing knowledge of a thing from the thing
-known, indeed in distinguishing mind from matter. And this result I may
-express by saying that what is called the _content_ of a sensation is
-in very truth what I originally called it--the sensation's _object._
-
-But, if all this be true, what follows?
-
-Idealists admit that some things really exist of which they are not
-aware: there are some things, they hold, which are not inseparable
-aspects of _their_ experience, even if they be inseparable aspects of
-some experience. They further hold that some of the things of which
-they are sometimes aware do really exist, even when they are not aware
-of them: they hold for instance that they are sometimes aware of other
-minds, which continue to exist even when they are not aware of them.
-They are, therefore, sometimes aware of something which is _not_ an
-inseparable aspect of their own experience. They do _know some_ things
-which are _not_ a mere part or content of their experience. And what
-my analysis of sensation has been designed to show is, that whenever
-I have a mere sensation or idea, the fact is that I am then aware of
-something which is equally and in the same sense _not_ an inseparable
-aspect of my experience. The awareness which I have maintained to be
-included in sensation is the very same unique fact which constitutes
-every kind of knowledge: "blue" is as much an object, and as little
-a mere content, of my experience, when I experience it, as the most
-exalted and independent real thing of which I am ever aware. There is,
-therefore, no question of how we are to "get outside the circle of our
-own ideas and sensations." Merely to have a sensation is already to
-_be_ outside that circle. It is to know something which is as truly and
-really _not_ a part of _my_ experience, as anything which I can ever
-know.
-
-Now I think I am not mistaken in asserting that the reason why
-Idealists suppose that everything which _is_ must be an inseparable
-aspect of some experience, is that they suppose some things, at least,
-to be inseparable aspects of _their_ experience. And there is certainly
-nothing which they are so firmly convinced to be an inseparable aspect
-of their experience as what they call the _content_ of their ideas and
-sensations. If, therefore, _this_ turns out in every case, whether it
-be also the content or not, to be at least _not_ an inseparable aspect
-of the experience of it, it will be readily admitted that nothing else
-which _we_ experience ever is such an inseparable aspect. But if we
-never experience anything but what is _not_ an inseparable aspect of
-_that_ experience, how can we infer that anything whatever, let alone
-_everything,_ is an inseparable aspect of _any_ experience? How utterly
-unfounded is the assumption that "_esse_ is _percipi"_ appears in the
-clearest light.
-
-But further I think it may be seen that if the object of an Idealist's
-sensation were, as he supposes, _not_ the object but merely the content
-of that sensation, if, that is to say, it really were an inseparable
-aspect of his experience, each Idealist could never be aware either of
-himself or of any other real thing. For the relation of a sensation
-to its object is certainly the same as that of any other instance of
-experience to its object; and this, I think, is generally admitted even
-by Idealists: they state as readily that _what_ is judged or thought or
-perceived is the _content_ of that judgment or thought or perception,
-as that blue Is the content of the sensation of blue. But, if so, then
-when any Idealist thinks he is _aware_ of himself or of any one else,
-this cannot really be the case. The fact Is, on his own theory, that
-himself and that other person are in reality mere _contents_ of an
-awareness, which is aware _of_ nothing whatever. All that can be said
-is that there is an awareness in him, _with_ a certain content: it can
-never be true that there is in him a consciousness _of_ anything. And
-similarly he is never aware either of the fact that he exists or that
-reality is spiritual. The real fact, which he describes in those terms,
-is that his existence and the spirituality of reality are _contents_ of
-an awareness, which is aware of nothing--certainly not, then, of it own
-content.
-
-And further if everything, of which he thinks he is aware, is in
-reality merely a content of his own experience he has certainly no
-_reason_ for holding that anything does exist except himself: it will,
-of course, be possible that other persons do exist; solipsism will not
-be necessarily true; but he cannot possibly infer from anything he
-holds that it is not true. That he himself exists will of course follow
-from his premiss that many things are contents of _his_ experience.
-But since everything, of which he thinks himself aware, is in reality
-merely an inseparable aspect of that awareness; this premiss allows no
-inference that any of these contents, far less any other consciousness,
-exists at all except as an inseparable aspect of his awareness, that
-is, as part of himself.
-
-Such, and not those which he takes to follow from it, are the
-consequences which _do_ follow from the Idealist's supposition that the
-object of an experience is in reality merely a content or inseparable
-aspect of that experience. If, on the other hand, we clearly recognise
-the nature of that peculiar relation which I have called "awareness of
-anything"; if we see that _this_ is involved equally in the analysis
-of _every_ experience--from the merest sensation to the most developed
-perception or reflexion, and that _this_ is in fact the only essential
-element in an experience--the only thing that is both common and
-peculiar to all experiences--the only thing which gives us reason to
-call any fact mental; if, further, we recognise that this awareness is
-and must be in all cases of such a nature that its object, when we are
-aware of it, is precisely what it would be, if we were not aware: then
-it becomes plain that the existence of a table in space is related to
-my experience of _it_ in precisely the same way as the existence of
-my own experience is related to my experience of _that._ Of both we
-are merely aware: if we are aware that the one exists, we are aware
-in precisely the same sense that the other exists; and if it is true
-that my experience can exist, even when I do not happen to be aware of
-its existence, we have exactly the same reason for supposing that the
-table can do so also. When, therefore, Berkeley, supposed that the only
-thing of which I am directly aware is my own sensations and ideas, he
-supposed what was false; and when Kant supposed that the objectivity of
-things in space _consisted_ in the fact that they were "Vorstellungen"
-having to one another different relations from those which the
-same "Vorstellungen" have to one another in subjective experience,
-he supposed what was equally false. I am as directly aware of the
-existence of material things in space as of my own sensations; and
-_what_ I am aware of with regard to each is exactly the same--namely
-that in one case the material thing, and in the other case my sensation
-does really exist. The question requiring to be asked about material
-things is thus not: What reason have we for supposing that anything
-exists _corresponding_ to our sensations? but: What reason have we for
-supposing that material things do _not_ exist, since _their_ existence
-has precisely the same evidence as that of our sensations? That either
-exist _may_ be false; but if it is a reason for doubting the existence
-of matter, that it is an inseparable aspect of our experience, the same
-reasoning will prove conclusively that our experience does not exist
-either, since that must also be an inseparable aspect of our experience
-of _it._ The only _reasonable_ alternative to the admission that matter
-exists _as well as_ spirit, is absolute Scepticism--that, as likely as
-not _nothing_ exists at all. All other suppositions--the Agnostic's,
-that something, at all events, does exist, as much as the Idealist's,
-that spirit does--are, if we have no reason for believing in matter, as
-baseless as the grossest superstitions.
-
-
-[1] _International Journal of Ethics,_ October, 1902.
-
-
-
-
-THE NATURE AND REALITY OF OBJECTS OF PERCEPTION
-
-
-There are two beliefs in which almost all philosophers, and almost all
-ordinary people are agreed. Almost everyone believes that he himself
-and what he directly perceives do not constitute the whole of reality:
-he believes that _something_ other than himself and what he directly
-perceives _exists_ or is _real._ I do not mean to say that almost
-everyone believes that what he directly perceives is real: I only mean
-that he does believe that, whether what he directly perceives is real
-or not, something other than it and other than himself certainly is so.
-And not only does each of us thus agree in believing that _something_
-other than himself and what he directly perceives is real: almost
-everyone also believes that _among_ the real things, other than himself
-and what he directly perceives, are other persons who have thoughts
-and perceptions in some respects similar to his own. That most people
-believe this I think I need scarcely try to show. But since a good many
-philosophers may appear to have held views contradictory of this one, I
-will briefly point out my reason for asserting that most philosophers,
-even among those (if any) who have believed the contradictory of this,
-have yet held this as well. Almost all philosophers tell us something
-about the nature of _human_ knowledge and _human_ perception. They tell
-us that _we_ perceive so and so; that the nature or origin of _our_
-perceptions is such and such; or (as I have just been telling you) that
-men in general have such and such beliefs. It might, indeed, be said
-that we are not to interpret such language too strictly: that, though
-a philosopher talks about _human_ knowledge and _our_ perceptions,
-he only means to talk about his own. But in many cases a philosopher
-will leave no doubt upon this point, by expressly assuming that there
-are other perceptions, which differ in some respects from his own:
-such, for instance, is the case when (as is so common nowadays) a
-philosopher introduces psycho-genetic considerations into his arguments
---considerations concerning the nature of the perceptions of men who
-existed before and at a much lower stage of culture than himself.
-Any philosopher, who uses such arguments, obviously assumes that
-perceptions other than his own have existed or been real. And even
-those philosophers who think themselves justified in the conclusion
-that neither their own perceptions nor any perceptions like theirs are
-_ultimately_ real, would, I think admit, that _phenomenally_, at least,
-they _are_ real, and are certainly _more_ real than some other things.
-
-Almost everyone, then, does believe that some perceptions other than
-his own, and which he himself does not directly perceive, are real; and
-believing this, he believes that something other than himself and what
-he directly perceives is real. But how do we know that anything exists
-except our own perceptions, and what we directly perceive? How do we
-know that there are any other people, who have perceptions in some
-respects similar to our own?
-
-I believe that these two questions express very exactly the nature of
-the problem which it is my chief object, in this paper, to discuss.
-When I say these words to you, they will at once suggest to your minds
-the very question, to which I desire to find an answer; they will
-convey to you the very same meaning which I have before my mind, when I
-use the words. You will understand at once what question it is that I
-mean to ask. But, for all that, the words which I have used are highly
-ambiguous. If you begin to ask yourselves what I do mean by them, you
-will find that there are several quite different things which I might
-mean. And there is, I think, great danger of confusing these different
-meanings with one another. I think that philosophers, when they have
-asked this question in one sense, have often answered it in quite a
-different sense; and yet have supposed that the answer which they have
-given is an answer to the very same question which they originally
-asked. It is precisely because there is this ambiguity--this danger of
-confusion, in the words which I have used, that I have chosen to use
-them. I wish to point out as clearly as I can, not only what I do mean
-by them, but also some things which I do _not_ mean; and I wish to make
-it clear that the questions which I do _not_ mean to ask, are different
-questions from that which I do mean to ask.
-
-I will take the second of my two questions, since there is in the other
-an additional ambiguity to which I do not now wish to call attention.
-My second question was: How do we know that there exist any other
-people who have perceptions in some respects similar to our own? What
-does this question mean?
-
-Now I think you may have noticed that when you make a statement to
-another person, and he answers "How do you know that that is so?" he
-very often means to suggest that you do _not_ know it. And yet, though
-he means to suggest that you do not _know_ it, he may not for a moment
-wish to suggest that you do not _believe_ it, nor even that you have
-not that degree or kind of conviction, which goes beyond mere belief,
-and which may be taken to be essential to anything which can properly
-be called knowledge. He does not mean to suggest for a moment that you
-are saying something which you do not believe to be true, or even that
-you are not thoroughly convinced of its truth. What he does mean to
-suggest is that what you asserted was not _true_, even though you may
-not only have believed it but felt sure that it was true. He suggests
-that you don't _know_ it, in the sense that what you believe or feel
-sure of is not true.
-
-Now I point this out, not because I myself mean to suggest that we
-don't know the existence of other persons, but merely in order to show
-that the word "know" is sometimes used in a sense in which it is not
-merely equivalent to "believe" or "feel sure of." When the question
-"How do you _know_ that?" is asked, the questioner does not merely
-mean to ask "how do you come to believe that, or to be convinced of
-it?" He sometimes, and I think generally, means to ask a question with
-regard to the _truth_, and not with regard to the _existence_ of your
-belief. And similarly when I ask the question "How do we know that
-other people exist?" I do _not_ mean to ask "How do we come to believe
-in or be convinced of their existence?" I do not intend to discuss this
-question _at all._ I shall not ask what _suggests_ to us our belief in
-the existence of other persons or of an external world; I shall not
-ask whether we arrive at it by inference or by "instinct" or in any
-other manner, which ever has been or may be suggested: I shall discuss
-no question of any kind whatever with regard to its origin, or cause,
-or the way in which it arises. These psychological questions are _not_
-what I propose to discuss. When I ask the question "How do we know that
-other people exist?" I do _not_ mean:
-
-"How does our belief in their existence arise?"
-
-But if I do not mean this what do I mean P I have said that I mean
-to ask a question with regard to the _truth_ of that belief; and the
-particular question which I mean to ask might be expressed in the
-words: _What reason have_ we for our belief in the existence of other
-persons? But these are words which themselves need some explanation,
-and I will try to give it.
-
-In the first place, then, when I talk of "a reason," I mean _only_
-a good reason and _not_ a bad one. A bad reason is, no doubt, a
-reason, in one sense of the word; but I mean to use the word "reason"
-exclusively in the sense in which it is equivalent to "good reason."
-But what, then, is meant by a good reason for a belief? I think I can
-express sufficiently accurately what I mean by it in this connection,
-as follows:--A good reason for a belief is a proposition which is
-true, and which would not be true unless the belief were also true. We
-should, I think, commonly say that when a man knows such a proposition,
-he has a good reason for his belief; and, when he knows no such
-proposition, we should say that he has no reason for it. When he knows
-such a proposition, we should say he knows something which is a reason
-for thinking his belief to be true--something from which it _could_ be
-validly inferred. And if, in answer to the question "How do you know
-so and so?" he were to state such a proposition, we should, I think,
-feel that he had answered the question which we meant to ask. Suppose,
-for instance, in answer to the question "How do you know that?" he were
-to say "I saw it in the _Times."_ Then, if we believed that he had
-seen it in the _Times_, and also believed that it would not have been
-in the _Times_, unless it had been true, we should admit that he had
-answered our question. We should no longer doubt that he did _know_
-what he asserted, we should no longer doubt that his belief was true.
-But if, on the other hand, we believed that he had not seen it in the
-_Times_--if, for instance, we had reason to believe that what he saw
-was not the statement which he made, but some other statement which
-he mistook for it; or if we believed that the kind of statement in
-question was one with regard to which there was no presumption that,
-being in the _Times_, it would be true: in _either_ of these cases
-we should, I think, feel that he had _not_ answered our question. We
-should still doubt whether what he had said was true. We should still
-doubt whether he _knew_ what he asserted; and since a man cannot tell
-you how he _knows_ a thing unless he does know that thing, we should
-think that, though he might have told us truly how he _came to believe
-it,_ he had certainly not told us how he _knew_ it. But though we
-should thus hold that he had _not_ told us _how he knew_ what he had
-asserted, and that he had given us no reason for believing it to be
-true; we must yet admit that he had given us a reason in a sense--a
-_bad_ reason, a reason which was no reason because it had no tendency
-to show that what he believed was true; and we might also be perfectly
-convinced that he had given us _the reason_ why he believed it--the
-proposition by believing which he was induced also to believe his
-original assertion.
-
-I mean, then, by my question, "How do we know that other people
-exist?" what, I believe, is ordinarily meant, namely, "What reason
-have we for believing that they exist?" and by this again I mean, what
-I also believe is ordinarily meant, namely, "What proposition do we
-believe, which is both true itself and is also such that it would not
-be true, unless other people existed?" And I hope it is plain that
-this question, thus explained, is quite a different question from the
-psychological question, which I said I did _not_ mean to ask--from the
-question, "How does our belief in the existence of other people arise?"
-My illustration, I hope, has made this plain. For I have pointed out
-that we may quite well hold that a man has told us how a belief of
-his arises, and even what was the reason which made him adopt that
-belief, and yet may have failed to give us any _good reason_ for his
-belief--any proposition which is both true itself, and also such that
-the truth of his belief follows from it. And, indeed, it is plain that
-if any one ever believes what is false, he is believing something for
-which there _is_ no good reason, in the sense which I have explained,
-and for which, therefore, he cannot possibly have a good reason; and
-yet it plainly does not follow that his belief did not arise in anyway
-whatever, nor even that he had no reason for it--no bad reason. It
-is plain that false beliefs do arise in some way or other--they have
-origins and causes: and many people who hold them _have_ bad reasons
-for holding them--their belief does arise (by inference or otherwise)
-from their belief in some other proposition, which is not itself true,
-or else is not a _good_ reason for holding that, which they infer
-from it, or which, in some other way, it induces them to believe. I
-submit, therefore, that the question, "What good reason have we for
-believing in the existence of other people?" is different from the
-question, "How does that belief arise?" But when I say this, I must
-not be misunderstood; I must not be understood to affirm that the
-answer to both questions _may_ not, in a sense, be the same. I fully
-admit that the very same fact, which suggests to us the belief in the
-existence of other people, _may_ also be a good reason for believing
-that they do exist. All that I maintain is that the question whether
-it is a good reason for that belief is a different question from the
-question whether it suggests that belief: if we assert that a certain
-fact _both_ suggests our belief in the existence of other persons and
-is _also_ a good reason for holding that belief, we are asserting two
-different things and not one only. And hence, when I assert, as I shall
-assert, that we _have_ a good reason for our belief in the existence
-of other persons, I must not be understood also to assert either that
-we infer the existence of other persons from this good reason, or that
-our belief in that good reason suggests our belief in the existence
-of other persons in any other way. It is plain, I think, that a man
-may believe two true propositions, of which the one would not be true,
-unless the other were true too, without, in any sense whatever, having
-arrived at his belief in the one _from_ his belief in the other; and it
-is plain, at all events, that the question whether his belief in the
-one _did_ arise from his belief in the other, is a different question
-from the question whether the truth of the one belief follows from the
-truth of the other.
-
-I hope, then, that I have made it a little clearer what I mean by the
-question: "What reason have we for believing in the existence of other
-people?" and that what I mean by it is at all events different from
-what is meant by the question: "How does our belief in the existence of
-other people arise?"
-
-But I am sorry to say that I have not yet reached the end of my
-explanations as to what my meaning is. I am afraid that the subject may
-seem very tedious. I can assure you that I have found it excessively
-tedious to try to make my meaning clear to myself. I have constantly
-found that I was confusing one question with another, and that, where
-I had thought I had a good reason for some assertion, I had in reality
-no good reason. But I may perhaps remind you that this question, "How
-do we know so and so?" "What reason have we for believing it?" is one
-of which philosophy is full; and one to which the most various answers
-have been given. Philosophy largely consists in giving reasons; and the
-question what are good reasons for a particular conclusion and what are
-bad, is one upon which philosophers have disagreed as much as on any
-other question. For one and the same conclusion different philosophers
-have given not only different, but incompatible, reasons; and
-conversely different philosophers have maintained that one and the same
-fact is a reason for incompatible conclusions. We are apt, I think,
-sometimes to pay too little attention to this fact. When we have taken,
-perhaps, no little pains to assure ourselves that our own reasoning
-is correct, and especially when we know that a great many other
-philosophers agree with us, we are apt to assume that the arguments
-of those philosophers, who have come to a contradictory conclusion,
-are scarcely worthy of serious consideration. And yet, I think, there
-is scarcely a single reasoned conclusion in philosophy, as to which
-we shall not find that some other philosopher, who has, so far as we
-know, bestowed equal pains on his reasoning, and with equal ability,
-has reached a conclusion incompatible with ours. We may be satisfied
-that we are right, and we may, in fact, be so; but it is certain that
-_both_ cannot be right: either our opponent or we must have mistaken
-bad reasons for good. And this being so, however satisfied we may be
-that it is not we who have done so, I think we should at least draw the
-conclusion that it is by no means easy to avoid mistaking bad reasons
-for good; and that no process, however laborious, which is in the least
-likely to help us in avoiding this should be evaded. But it is at least
-possible that one source of error lies in mistaking one kind of reason
-for another--in supposing that, because there is, in one sense, a
-reason for a given conclusion, there is also a reason in another, or
-that because there is, in one sense, no reason for a given conclusion,
-there is, therefore, no reason at all. I believe myself that this _is_
-a very frequent source of error: but it is at least a possible one.
-And where, as disagreements show, there certainly is error on one
-side or the other, and reason, too, to suppose that the error is not
-easy to detect, I think we should spare no pains in investigating any
-source, from which it is even possible that the error may arise. For
-these reasons I think I am perhaps doing right in trying to explain as
-clearly as possible not only what reasons we have for believing in an
-external world, but also in what sense I take them to be reasons.
-
-I proceed, then with my explanation. And there is one thing, which, I
-think my illustration has shown that I do _not_ mean. I have defined
-a reason for a belief as a true proposition, which would not be true
-unless the belief itself--what is believed--were also true; and I
-have used, as synonymous with this form of words, the expressions: A
-reason for a belief is a true proposition from which the truth of the
-belief _follows_ from which it _could_ be _validly inferred._ Now these
-expressions might suggest the idea that I mean to restrict the word
-"reason," to what, in the strictest sense, might be called a _logical_
-reason--to propositions from which the belief in question _follows,_
-according to the rules of inference accepted by Formal Logic. But I
-am _not_ using the words "follow," "validly inferred," in this narrow
-sense; I do _not_ mean to restrict the words "reason for a belief"
-to propositions from which the laws of Formal Logic state that the
-belief could be deduced. The illustration which I gave is inconsistent
-with this restricted meaning. I said that the fact that a statement
-appeared in the _Times_ might be a good reason for believing that
-that statement was true. And I am using the word "reason" in the wide
-and popular sense, in which it really might be. If, for instance,
-the _Times_ stated that the King was dead, we should think that was
-a good reason for believing that the King was dead; we should think
-that the _Times_ would not have made such a statement as that unless
-the King really were dead. We should, indeed, not think that the
-statement in the _Times_ rendered it absolutely _certain_ that the
-King was dead. But it _is_ extremely unlikely that the _Times_ would
-make a statement of this kind unless it were true; and, in that sense,
-the fact of the statement appearing in the _Times_ would render it
-_highly probable_--much more likely than not--that the King was dead.
-And I wish it to be understood that I am using the words "reason for
-a belief" in this extremely wide sense. When I look for a good reason
-for our belief in the existence of other people, I shall not reject any
-proposition merely on the ground that it only renders their existence
-probable--only shows it to be more likely than not that they exist.
-Provided that the proposition in question does render it _positively
-probable_ that they exist, then, if it also conforms to the conditions
-which I am about to mention, I shall call it a "good reason."
-
-But it is not every proposition which renders it probable that
-other people exist, which I shall consider to be a good answer to
-my question. I have just explained that my meaning is wide in one
-direction--in admitting _some_ propositions which render a belief
-merely probable; but I have now to explain that it is restricted in
-two other directions. I do mean to exclude certain propositions which
-do render that belief probable. When I ask: What reason have _we_ for
-believing in the existence of other people? a certain ambiguity is
-introduced by the use of the plural "we." If each of several different
-persons has a reason for believing that he himself exists, then it is
-not merely probable, but certain, according to the rules of Formal
-Logic, that, in a sense, _they_ "have a reason for believing" that
-several people exist; each has a reason for believing that he himself
-exists; and, therefore, all of them, taken together, have reasons for
-supposing that several persons exist. If, therefore, I were asking
-the question: What reason have _we_ for believing in the existence
-of other persons? in this sense, it would follow that if each of us
-has a reason for believing in his own existence, these reasons, taken
-together, would be a reason for believing in the existence of all of
-us. But I am not asking the question in this sense: it is plain that
-this is not its natural sense. What I do mean to ask is: Does _each
-single one_ of us know any proposition, which is a reason for believing
-that _others_ exist? I am using "we," that is to say, in the sense
-of "each of us." But again I do mean _each_ of us: I am not merely
-asking whether some _one_ man knows a proposition which is a reason
-for believing that other men exist. It would be possible that some
-one man, or some few men, should know such a proposition, and yet the
-rest know no such proposition. But I am not asking whether this is the
-case. I am asking whether among propositions of the kind which (as we
-commonly suppose) all or almost all men know, there is any which is a
-reason for supposing that other men exist. And in asking this question
-I am not begging the question by supposing that all men do exist. My
-question might, I think, be put quite accurately as follows. There are
-certain kinds of belief which, as we commonly suppose, all or almost
-all men share. I describe this kind of belief as "our" beliefs, simply
-as an easy way of pointing out which kind of belief I mean, but without
-assuming that all men do share them. And I then ask: Supposing a
-single man to have beliefs of this kind, which among them would be a
-good reason for supposing that other men existed having like beliefs?
-
-This, then, is the first restriction which I put upon the meaning
-of my question. And it is, I think, a restriction which, in their
-natural meaning, the words suggest. When we ask: What reason have
-we for believing that other people exist? we naturally understand
-that question to be equivalent to: What reason has _each_ of us for
-that belief? And this question again is naturally equivalent to the
-question: Which among the propositions that a single man believes, but
-which are of the kind which (rightly or wrongly) we assume all men to
-believe, are such that they would not be true unless some other person
-than that man existed? But there is another restriction which, I think,
-the words of my question also naturally suggest. If we were to ask
-anyone the question: How do you know that you did see that statement
-in the _Times_? and he were to answer "Because I did see it in the
-_Times_ and in the _Standard_ too," we should not think that he had
-given us a _reason_ for the belief that he saw it in the _Times._ We
-should not think his answer a _reason_, because it asserts the very
-thing for which we require a reason. And similarly when I ask: How
-do we know that any thing or person exists, other than ourselves and
-what we directly perceive? What reason have we for believing this? I
-must naturally be understood to mean: What proposition, _other_ than
-one which itself asserts or presupposes the existence of something
-beyond ourselves and our own perceptions, is a reason for supposing
-that such a thing exists? And this restriction obviously excludes an
-immense number of propositions of a kind which all of us do believe. We
-all of us believe an immense number of different propositions about
-the existence of things which we do not directly perceive, and many
-of these propositions are, in my sense, good reasons for believing in
-the existence of still other things. The belief in the existence of a
-statement in the _Times,_ when we have not seen that statement, may,
-as I implied, be a good reason for believing that someone is dead. But
-no such proposition can be a good answer to my question, because it
-asserts the very kind of thing for which I require a reason: it asserts
-the existence of something other than myself and what I directly
-perceive. When I am asking: What reason have I for believing in the
-existence of anything but myself, my own perceptions, and what I do
-directly perceive? you would naturally understand me to mean: What
-reason, _other than_ the existence of such a thing, have I for this
-belief?
-
-Each of us, then, we commonly assume, believes some true propositions,
-which do not themselves assert the existence of anything other than
-himself, his own perceptions, or what he directly perceives. Each of
-us, for instance, believes that he himself has and has had certain
-particular perceptions: and these propositions are propositions of
-the kind I mean--propositions which do not themselves assert the
-existence of anything _other than_ himself, his own perceptions,
-and what he directly perceives: they are, I think, by no means the
-only propositions of this kind, which most of us believe: but they
-_are_ propositions of this kind. But, as I say, I am not assuming
-that each of us--each of several different people--does believe
-propositions of this kind. All that I assume is that at least one man
-does believe some such propositions. And then I ask: Which among those
-true propositions, which one man believes, are such that they would
-probably not be true, unless some other man existed and had certain
-particular perceptions? Which among them are such that it _follows_
-(in the wide sense, which I have explained) from their truth, that it
-is more likely than not that some other man has perceptions? This is
-the meaning of my question, so far as I have hitherto explained it:
-and I hope this meaning is quite clear. It is in this sense that I am
-asking: What reason have we for believing that other people exist? How
-do we know that they exist? This, indeed, is not _all_ that I mean by
-that question: there is one other point--the most important one--which
-remains to be explained. But this is _part_ of what I mean to ask; and
-before I go on to explain what else I mean, I wish first to stop and
-enquire what is the answer to this part of my question. What is the
-answer to the question: Which among the true propositions, of a kind
-which (as we commonly assume) each of us believes, and which do not
-themselves assert the existence of anything other than that person
-himself, his own perceptions, or what he directly perceives, are such
-that they would probably not be true unless some other person existed,
-who had perceptions in some respects similar to his own?
-
-Now to this question the answer is very obvious. It is very obvious
-that in this sense we have reasons for believing in the existence of
-other persons, and also what some of those reasons are. But I wish
-to make it quite plain that this is so: that in this sense one man
-_has_ a reason for believing that another has certain perceptions. All
-that I am asking you to grant, is, you see, that some of you would
-not be having just those perceptions which you now have, unless I,
-as I read this paper, were perceiving more or less black marks on a
-more or less white ground; or that I on the other hand, should not
-be having just those perceptions which I now have, unless some other
-persons than myself were hearing the sounds of my voice. And I am
-not asking you even to grant that this is certain--only that it is
-positively probable--more likely than not. Surely it is very obvious
-that this proposition is true. But I wish to make it quite clear
-what would be the consequences of denying that any such propositions
-are true--propositions which assert that the existence of certain
-perceptions in one man are a reason for believing in the existence of
-certain perceptions in another man--which assert that one man would
-probably not have had just those perceptions which he did have, unless
-some other man had had certain particular perceptions. It is plain, I
-think, that, unless some such propositions are true, we have no more
-reason for supposing that Alexander the Great ever saw an elephant,
-than for supposing that Sindbad the Sailor saw a Roc; we have no more
-reason for supposing that anybody saw Julius Caesar murdered in the
-Senate House at Rome, than for supposing that somebody saw him carried
-up to Heaven in a fiery chariot. It is plain, I think, that if we have
-any reason at all for supposing that in all probability Alexander the
-Great did see an elephant, and that in all probability no such person
-as Sindbad the Sailor ever saw a Roc, part of that reason consists
-in the assumption that some other person would probably not have had
-just those perceptions which he did have, unless Alexander the Great
-had seen an elephant, and unless Sindbad the Sailor had not seen a
-Roc. And most philosophers, I think, are willing to admit that we have
-some reason, in some sense or other, for such propositions as these.
-They are willing to admit not only that some persons probably did see
-Julius Caesar murdered in the Senate House; but also that some persons,
-other than those who saw it, had and have _some reason_ for supposing
-that some one else probably saw it. Some sceptical philosophers might,
-indeed, deny both propositions; and to refute their views, I admit,
-other arguments are needed than any which I shall bring forward in this
-paper. But most philosophers will, I think, admit not only that facts,
-for which there is, as we say, good historical evidence, are probably
-true; but also that what we call good historical evidence really is
-in some sense a good reason for thinking them true. Accordingly I am
-going to assume that many propositions of the following kind are true.
-Propositions, namely, which assert that one man would probably not
-have certain perceptions which he does have, unless some other man had
-certain particular perceptions. That some of you, for instance, would
-probably not be having precisely the perceptions which you are having,
-unless I were having the perception of more or less black marks on a
-more or less white ground. And, in this sense, I say, we certainly have
-reasons for supposing that other people have perceptions similar, in
-some respects, to those which we sometimes have.
-
-But when I said I was going to ask the question: What reason have we
-for supposing that other people exist? you will certainly not have
-thought that I merely meant to ask the question which I have just
-answered. My words will have suggested to you something much more
-important than merely this. When, for instance, I said that to the
-question "How do you know that?" the answer "I saw it in the _Times"_
-would be a satisfactory answer, you may have felt, as I felt, that it
-would not in all circumstances be regarded as such. The person who
-asked the question might, in some cases, fairly reply: "That is no
-answer: how do you know that, because you saw a thing in the _Times_,
-it is therefore true?" In other words he might ask fora _reason_ for
-supposing that the occurrence of a particular statement in the _Times_
-was a reason for supposing that statement true. And this is a question
-to which we all believe that there may be an answer. We believe that,
-with some kinds of statements which the _Times_ makes--some kinds of
-statements with regard to Fiscal Policy for example--the fact that
-the _Times_ makes them is no reason for supposing them to be true:
-whereas with regard to other kinds of statements, which it makes, such
-a statement, for instance, as that the King was dead, the fact that it
-makes them _is_ a reason for supposing them true. We believe that there
-are some kinds of statements, which it is very unlikely the _Times_
-would make, unless they were true; and others which it is not at all
-unlikely that the _Times_ might make, although they were not true. And
-we believe that a reason might be given for distinguishing, in this
-way, between the two different kinds of statement: for thinking that,
-in some cases (on points, for instance, which, as we should say, are
-not simple questions of fact) the _Times_ is fallible, whereas in other
-cases, it is, though not absolutely infallible, very unlikely to state
-what is not true.
-
-Now it is precisely in this further sense that I wish to consider: what
-reason have we for believing that certain particular things, other
-than ourselves, our own perceptions, and what we directly perceive,
-are real? I have asserted that I do have certain perceptions, which it
-is very unlikely I should have, unless some other person had certain
-particular perceptions; that, for instance, it is very unlikely I
-should be having precisely those perceptions which I am now having
-unless someone else were hearing the sound of my voice. And I now
-wish to ask: What reason have I for supposing that this is unlikely?
-What reason has any of us for supposing that any such proposition is
-true? And I mean by "having a reason" precisely what I formerly meant.
-I mean: What other proposition do I know, which would not be true,
-unless my perception were connected with someone else's perception, in
-the manner in which I asserted them to be connected? Here again I am
-asking for _a good reason_; and am not asking a psychological question
-with regard to origin. Here again I am not asking for a reason, in the
-strict sense of Formal Logic; I am merely asking for a proposition
-which would probably not be true, unless what I asserted were true.
-Here again I am asking for some proposition of a kind which _each_ of
-us believes; I am asking: What reason has _each_ of us for believing
-that some of his perceptions are connected with particular perceptions
-of other people in the manner I asserted?--for believing that he would
-not have certain perceptions that he does have, unless some other
-person had certain particular perceptions? And here again I am asking
-for a _reason_--I am asking for some proposition _other_ than one
-which itself asserts: When one man has a perception of such and such a
-particular kind, it _is_ probable that another man has a perception or
-thought of this or that other kind.
-
-But what kind of reason can be given for believing a proposition of
-this sort? For believing a proposition which asserts that, since one
-particular thing exists, it is probable that another particular thing
-also exists? One thing I think is plain, namely that we can have no
-good reason for believing such a proposition, unless we have good
-reason for believing some _generalisation._ It is commonly believed,
-for instance, that certain so-called flint arrow-heads, which have been
-discovered, were probably made by prehistoric men; and I think it is
-plain that we have no reason for believing this unless we have reason
-to suppose that objects which resemble these in certain particular
-respects are _generally_ made by men--are _more often_ made by men
-than by any other agency. Unless certain particular characteristics
-which those arrow-heads have were characteristics which belonged at
-least more frequently to articles of human manufacture than to any
-articles not made by men, it would surely be just as likely as not
-that these arrowheads were _not_ made by men--that they were, in fact
-not arrow-heads. That is to say, unless we have reason to assert a
-_generalisation_--the generalisation that objects of a certain kind
-are _generally_ made by men, we have no reason to suppose that these
-particular objects, which are of the kind in question, _were_ made
-by men. And the same, so far as I can see, is true universally. If
-we ever have any reason for asserting that, since one particular
-thing exists, another probably exists or existed or will exist also
-part of our reason, at least, must consist in reasons for asserting
-some generalisation--for asserting that the existence of things of
-a particular kind is, more often than not, accompanied or preceded
-or followed by the existence of things of another particular kind.
-It is, I think, sometimes assumed that an alternative to this theory
-may be found in the theory that the existence of one kind of thing
-"intrinsically points to," or is "intrinsically a sign or symbol of"
-the existence of another thing. It is suggested that when a thing
-which thus points to the existence of another thing exists, then it is
-at least probable that the thing "pointed to" exists also. But this
-theory, I think, offers no real alternative. For, in the first place,
-when we say that the existence of one thing A is a "sign of" or "points
-to" the existence of another thing B, we very commonly actually mean to
-say that when a thing like A exists, a thing like B _generally_ exists
-too. We may, no doubt, mean something else _too_; but this we do mean.
-We say, for instance, that certain particular words, which we hear or
-read, are a "sign" that somebody has thought of the particular things
-which we call the meaning of those words. But we should certainly
-hesitate to admit that the hearing or reading of certain words could be
-called a "sign" of the existence of certain thoughts, unless it were
-true that when those words are heard or read, the thoughts in question
-_generally_ have existed. If when those words were heard or read, the
-thoughts had generally _not_ existed, we should say that, in one sense
-of the word at all events, the hearing of the words was _not_ a sign of
-the existence of the thoughts. In this sense, therefore, to say that
-the existence of A "points to" or "is a sign of" the existence of B is
-actually to say that when A exists, B _generally_ exists also. But,
-no doubt, the words "points to" "is a sign of" may be used in some
-other sense: they may, for instance, mean only that the existence of A
-_suggests_ in some way the belief that B exists. And in such a case we
-certainly might know that the existence of A pointed to the existence
-of B, without knowing that when A existed B generally existed also.
-Let us suppose, then, that in some such sense A does "point to" the
-existence of B; can this fact give us a reason for supposing it even
-probable that B existed. Certainly it can, _provided_ it is true that
-when A _does_ point to the existence of B, B _generally_ exists. But
-surely it can do so, only on this condition. If when A _points_ to
-the existence of B, B, nevertheless, does _not_ generally exist, then
-surely the fact that A points to the existence of B can constitute no
-probability that B does not exist: on the contrary it will then be
-probable that, even though A "points to" the existence of B, B does
-_not_ exist. We have, in fact, only substituted the generalisation that
-A's _pointing to_ B is generally accompanied by the existence of B, for
-the generalisation that A's _existence_ is generally accompanied by the
-existence of B. If we are to have any reason for asserting that, when
-A _points to_ or is a sign of the existence of B, B probably exists, we
-must still have a reason for some generalisation--for a generalisation
-which asserts that when one thing points to the existence of another,
-that other _generally_ exists.
-
-It is plain, then, I think, that if we are to find a reason for the
-assertion that some particular perception of mine would probably not
-exist, unless someone else were having or had had a perception of a
-kind which I can name, we must find a reason for _some_ generalisation.
-And it is also plain, I think, that in many cases of this kind the
-generalisation must consist in an assertion that when one man has a
-certain kind of perception, some other man generally has had some
-other perception or belief. We assume, for instance, that when we hear
-or read certain words, somebody besides ourselves has thought the
-thoughts, which constitute the meaning of those words; and it is plain,
-I think, that we have no reason for this assumption except one which
-is also a reason for the assumption that when certain words are heard
-or read, somebody generally has had certain thoughts. And my enquiry,
-therefore, at least includes the enquiry: What reasons have we for such
-generalisations as these? for generalisations which assert a connection
-between the existence of a certain kind of perception in one man, and
-that of a certain kind of perception or belief in another man?
-
-And to this question, I think, but one answer can be given. If we
-have any reason for such generalisations at all, some reason must
-be given, in one way or another, by observation--by observation,
-understood in the wide sense in which it includes "experiment." No
-philosopher, I think, has ever failed to assume that observation does
-give a reason for _some_ generalisations--for some propositions
-which assert that when one kind of thing exists, another generally
-exists or has existed in a certain relation to it. Even those who,
-like Hume, imply that observation cannot give a _reason_ for anything,
-yet constantly appeal to observation in support of generalisations of
-their own. And even those who hold that observation can give no reason
-for any generalisation about the relation of one man's perceptions to
-another's, yet hold that it _can_ give a reason for generalisations
-about the relation of some to others among a man's own perceptions.
-It is, indeed, by no means agreed _how_ observation can give a reason
-for any generalisation. Nobody knows what reason we have, if we have
-any, for supposing that it can. But _that_ it can, everyone, I think,
-assumes. I think, therefore, most philosophers will agree, that if we
-can find any reason at all for generalisations of the kind in which
-I am interested, a reason for _some_ of them at all events must be
-found in observation. And what I propose to ask is: What reason can be
-found in observation for even a single proposition of the kind I have
-described? for a proposition which asserts that when one man has one
-kind of perception, another man generally has or has had another.
-
-But, when it is said that observation gives us a reason for
-generalisations, two things may be meant neither of which I mean. In
-the first place, we popularly use "observation" in a sense in which
-we can be said to _observe_ the perceptions, feelings and thoughts
-of other people: in which, therefore, we can be said to observe the
-very things with regard to which I am asking what reason we have for
-believing in their existence. But it is universally[1] agreed that
-there is a sense in which no man can observe the perceptions, feelings
-or thoughts of any other man. And it is to this strict sense that
-I propose to confine the word. I shall use it in a sense, in which
-we can certainly be said to observe nothing but ourselves, our own
-perceptions, thoughts and feelings, and what we directly perceive. And
-in the second place, it may be said that observations made by another
-person may give _me_ a reason for believing some generalisation. And
-it is certainly the case that for many of the generalisations in which
-we all believe, if we have a reason in observation at all, it is not
-in _our own_ observation that we have it: part of our reason, at all
-events, lies in things which _other_ people have observed but which we
-ourselves have not observed. But in asking this particular question,
-I am not asking for reasons of this sort. The very question that I am
-asking is: What reason has any one of us for supposing that any other
-person whatever has ever made any observations? And just as, in the
-first meaning which I gave to this question, it meant: What thing,
-that any single man observes is such that it would probably not have
-existed, unless some other man had made a particular observation?
-So now I am asking: Which among the things, which _one single man
-observes_, are such that they would probably not have existed, unless
-it were true that some of them generally stood in certain relations to
-observations of some other person? I am asking: Which among _my own_
-observations give me a reason for supposing that some of them are of
-a kind which are generally preceded or accompanied by observations
-of other people? Which, for instance, among my own observations give
-a good reason for the generalisation that when I hear certain words,
-somebody else has generally had certain particular thoughts, or that
-whenever anyone hears certain words, somebody else has generally had
-the thoughts which constitute what we call the meaning of those words?
-I am asking: Which among the vast series of observations, which any
-one individual makes during his lifetime, give a good reason for
-any generalisation _whatever_ of this kind--a generalisation which
-asserts that some of them are generally preceded by certain thoughts,
-perceptions or feelings in other persons? I quite admit that there
-are some generalisations of this kind for which the observations of
-_some_ particular men will _not_ give a reason. All that I ask is:
-Is there even _one_ generalisation of this kind, for which the kind
-of observations, which (as we commonly assume) each man, or nearly
-every man does make, do give a reason? Among observations of the kind
-which (as we commonly assume) are common to you and to me, do yours,
-by themselves, give any reason for even _one_ such generalisation?
-And do mine, by themselves, give any reason for even _one_ such
-generalisation? And if they do, which, among these observations, is it
-which do so?
-
-My question is, then: What reason do my own observations give me, for
-supposing that any perception whatever, which I have, would probably
-not occur, unless some other person had a certain kind of perception?
-What reason do my own observations give me for supposing, for instance,
-that I should not be perceiving what I do now perceive, unless
-someone were hearing the sound of my voice? What reason do your own
-observations give you for supposing that you would not be perceiving
-just what you are perceiving, unless I were perceiving more or less
-black marks on a more or less white ground? The question does, I
-think, appear to be a reasonable one; and most philosophers, I think,
-have assumed that there is an answer to it. Yet it may be said that
-there is no answer to it: that my own observations give me no reason
-whatever for any single proposition of this kind. There are certain
-philosophers (even apart from thorough sceptics, with whom, as I have
-said, I am not now arguing) who have denied that they do. There are
-certain philosophers who hold that nothing which any single one of
-us observes or can observe, gives the slightest reason for supposing
-that any of his own perceptions are generally connected with certain
-perceptions in other people. There are philosophers who hold that the
-only generalisations for which our own observations do give any warrant
-are generalisations concerning the manner in which our own perceptions,
-thoughts and feelings do and probably will succeed one another; and who
-conclude that, this being so, we have no reason whatever for believing
-in the existence of any other people. And these philosophers are, I
-think, right in drawing this conclusion from this premiss. It does
-not, indeed, follow from their premiss that we have not a reason in
-the sense which I first explained, and in which, I insisted, it must
-be admitted that we have a reason. It does not follow that some of our
-perceptions _are_ not such as would probably not exist, unless some
-other person had certain perceptions. But, as I have urged, when we
-say that we have a reason for asserting the existence of something not
-perceived, we commonly mean something more than this. We mean not only
-that, since what we perceive does exist, the unperceived thing probably
-exists too; we mean also that we have some reason for asserting this
-connection between the perceived and the unperceived. And holding, as
-we do, that no reason can be given for asserting such a connection,
-except observation, we should say that, if observation gives no reason
-for asserting it, we have _no_ reason for asserting it; and having no
-reason for asserting this connection between the perceived and the
-unperceived, we should say that we have none either for asserting the
-even probable existence of the unperceived. This, I think, is what
-we commonly mean by saying that we have no reason to believe in the
-existence of a particular thing which we do not perceive. And hence,
-I think, those philosophers who hold that our own observations give
-us no reason whatever for any generalisation whatever concerning
-the connection of any of them with those of other people, are quite
-right in concluding that we have no reason to assert that any other
-person ever did have any particular thought or perception whatever. I
-think that the words of this conclusion, understood in their natural
-meaning, express precisely what the premiss asserts. We need not,
-indeed, conclude, as many of these philosophers are inclined to do,
-that, because we have no reason for believing in the existence of other
-people, it is therefore highly doubtful whether they do exist. The
-philosophers who advocate this opinion commonly refute themselves by
-assigning the existence of other people as part of their reason for
-believing that it is very doubtful whether any other people exist. That
-for which we have no reason may, nevertheless, be certainly true. And,
-indeed, one of the philosophers who hold most clearly and expressly
-that we do know not only the existence of other people but also that
-of material objects, is also one of those who deny most emphatically
-that our own observations can give any reason for believing either
-in the one or in the other. I refer to Thomas Reid. Reid, indeed,
-allows himself to use not only the word "observe," but even the word
-"perceive," in that wide sense in which it might be said that we
-observe or perceive the thoughts and feelings of others: and I think
-that the fact that he uses the words in this sense, has misled him into
-thinking that his view is more plausible and more in accordance with
-Common Sense than it really is: by using the words in this sense he is
-able to plead that "observation" really does give a reason for some of
-those generalisations, for which Common Sense holds that "observation"
-(in a narrower sense) does give a reason. But with regard to what we
-observe or perceive, in the strict sense to which 1 am confining those
-words, he asserts quite explicitly that it gives us no reason either
-for believing in the existence of material objects or for believing
-in the existence of other minds. Berkeley, he says, has proved
-incontrovertibly that it gives us no reason for the one, and Hume that
-it gives us no reason for the other.
-
-Now these philosophers may be right in holding this. It may, perhaps,
-be true that, in this sense, my own observations give me no reason
-whatever for believing that any other person ever has or will perceive
-anything like or unlike what I perceive. But I think it is desirable
-we should realise how paradoxical are the consequences which must be
-admitted, if this is true. It must then be admitted that the very
-large part of our knowledge, which we suppose to have some basis in
-experience, is by no means based upon experience, in the sense, and
-to the extent, which we suppose. We do for instance, commonly suppose
-that there is some basis in experience for the assertion that some
-people, whom we call Germans, use one set of words to express much the
-same meaning which we express by using a different set of words. But,
-if this view be correct, we must admit that no person's experience
-gives him any reason whatever for supposing that, when he hears certain
-words, any one else has ever heard or thought of the same words, or
-meant anything by them. The view admits, indeed, that I do know that
-when I hear certain words, somebody else has generally had thoughts
-more or less similar to those which I suppose him to have had: but it
-denies that my own observations could ever give me the least reason
-for supposing that this is so. It admits that my own observations may
-give me reason for supposing that _if_ anyone has ever had perceptions
-like mine in some respects, he will also have had other perceptions
-like others of mine: but it denies that they give me any reason for
-supposing that any one else has had a perception like one of mine. It
-admits that my own observations may give me reason for supposing that
-certain perceptions and thoughts in _one_ person (_if_ they exist) will
-be followed or preceded by certain other perceptions and thoughts in
-that person: but it denies that they give me any reason whatever for
-_any_ similar generalisation concerning the connection of a certain
-kind of perception in one person with a certain kind of perception in
-another. It admits that I should not have certain perceptions, which
-I do have, unless someone else had had certain other perceptions; but
-it denies that my own observations can give me any reason for saying
-so--for saying that I should not have had this perception, unless
-someone else had had that. No observations of mine, it holds, can ever
-render it probable that such a generalisation is true; no observation
-of mine can ever confirm or verify such a generalisation. If we are to
-say that any such generalisation whatever is based upon observation,
-we can only mean, what Reid means, that it is based on a series of
-assumptions. When I observe this particular thing, I assume that _that_
-particular thing, which I do not observe, exists; when I observe
-another particular thing, I again assume that a second particular
-thing, which I do not observe, exists; when I observe a third
-particular thing, I again assume that a third particular thing, which I
-do not observe, exists. These assumed facts--the assumed fact that one
-observation of mine is accompanied by the existence of one particular
-kind of thing, and that another observation of mine is accompanied by
-the existence of a different particular kind of thing, will then give
-me a reason for different generalisations concerning the connection of
-different perceptions of mine with different external objects--objects
-which I do not perceive. But (it is maintained) nothing but a mass of
-such assumptions will give me a reason for any such generalisation.
-
-Now I think it must be admitted that there is something paradoxical
-in such a view. I think it may be admitted that, in holding it, the
-philosopher of Common Sense departs from Common Sense at least as far
-in one direction as his opponents had done in another. But I think
-that there is some excuse for those who hold it: I think that, in one
-respect, they are more in the right than those who do not hold it--than
-those who hold that my own observations do give me a reason for
-believing in the existence of other people. For those who hold that my
-observations do give me a reason, have, I believe, universally supposed
-that the reason lies in a part of my observations, in which no such
-reason is to be found. This is why I have chosen to ask the question:
-_What_ reason do my observations give me for believing that any other
-person has any particular perceptions or beliefs? I wish to consider
-_which_ among the things which I observe will give such a reason. For
-this is a question to which no answer, that I have ever seen, appears
-to me to be correct. Those who have asked it have, so far as I know,
-answered it _either_ by denying that my observations give me any reason
-_or_ by pointing to a part of my observations, which, as it seems to
-me, really do give none. Those who deny are, it seems to me, right in
-holding that the reason given by those who affirm is no reason. And
-their correct opinion on this point will, I think, partly serve to
-explain their denial. They have supposed that if our observations give
-us any reason at all for asserting the existence of other people, that
-reason must lie where it has been supposed to lie by those who hold
-that they do give a reason. And then, finding that this assigned reason
-is no reason, they have assumed that there is no other.
-
-I am proposing then to ask: Which among the observations, which I make,
-and which (as we commonly suppose) are similar in kind to those which
-all or almost all men make, will give a reason for supposing that the
-existence of any of them is generally connected with the existence of
-certain kinds of perception or belief in other people? And in order to
-answer this question, it is obvious we must first consider two others.
-We must consider, in the first place: Of what nature must observations
-be, if they are to give a reason for any generalisation asserting that
-the existence of one kind of thing is generally connected with that of
-another? And we must consider in the second place: What kinds of things
-do we observe?
-
-Now to the first of these questions I am not going to attempt to give
-a complete answer. The question concerning the rules of Inductive
-Logic, which is the question at issue, is an immensely difficult and
-intricate question. And I am not going to attempt to say, what kind of
-observations are _sufficient_ to justify a generalisation. But it is
-comparatively easy to point out that a certain kind of observations are
-_necessary_ to justify a generalisation: and this is all that I propose
-to do. I wish to point out certain conditions which observations must
-satisfy, if they are to justify a generalisation; without in any way
-implying that all observations which do satisfy these conditions,
-_will_ justify a generalisation. The conditions, I shall mention, are
-ones which are certainly _not_ sufficient to justify a generalisation;
-but they are, I think, conditions, without which no generalisation can
-be justified. If a particular kind of observations do _not_ satisfy
-these conditions, we can say with certainty that those observations
-give us _no_ reason for believing in the existence of other people;
-though, with regard to observations which _do_ satisfy them, we shall
-only be able to say that they _may_ give a reason.
-
-What conditions, then, must observations satisfy, if they are to
-justify a generalisation? Let us suppose that the generalisation to
-be justified is one which asserts that the existence of a kind of
-object, which we will call A, is generally preceded, accompanied, or
-followed by the existence of a kind of object, which we call B. A, for
-instance, might be the hearing of a certain word by one person, and B
-the thought of that which we call the meaning of the word, in another
-person; and the generalisation to be justified might be that when one
-person hears a word, not spoken by himself, someone else has generally
-thought of the meaning of that word. What must I have observed, if the
-generalisation that the existence of A is generally preceded by the
-existence of B, is to be justified by my observations? One first point,
-I think, is plain. I must have observed both some object, which is in
-some respects like A, and which I will call _α_, and also some object
-in some respects like B which I will call _β_: I must have observed
-both _α_ and _β_, and also I must have observed _β_ preceding _α._
-This, at least, I must have observed. But I do not pretend to say _how_
-like _α_ and _β_ must be to A and B; nor do I pretend to say how often
-I must have observed _β_ preceding _α_, although it is generally held
-that I must have observed this more than once. These are questions,
-which would have to be discussed if we were trying to discover what
-observations were _sufficient_ to justify the generalisation that the
-existence of A is generally preceded by that of B. But I am only
-trying to lay down the minimum which is _necessary_ to justify this
-generalisation; and therefore I am content to say that we must have
-observed something more or less like B preceding something more or less
-like A, at least once.
-
-But there is yet another minimum condition. If my observation of _β_
-preceding _α_ is to justify the generalisation that the _existence_ of
-A is generally preceded by the _existence_ of B, it is plain, I think,
-that both the _β_ and the _α,_ which I observed, must have _existed_
-or been _real_; and that also the existence of _β_ must _really_ have
-preceded that of _α_. It is plain that if, when I observed _α_ and
-_β_, _α_ existed but _β_ did not, this observation could give me no
-reason to suppose that on another occasion when A existed, _β_ _would_
-exist. Or again, if, when I observed _β_ preceding _α_, both _β_ and
-_α_ existed, but the existence of _β_ did not _really_ precede that of
-α, but, on the contrary, followed it, this observation could certainly
-give me no reason to suppose that, in general, the existence of A was
-_preceded_ by the existence of B. Indeed this condition that what is
-observed must have been _real_ might be said to be included in the very
-meaning of the word "observation." We should, in this connection, say
-that we had _not_ observed _β_ preceding _α,_ unless _β_ and _α_ were
-both real, and _β_ had really preceded _α._ If I say "I have _observed_
-that, on one occasion, my hearing of the word 'moon' was followed by
-my imagining a luminous silvery disc," I commonly mean to include in
-my statement the assertion that I did, on that occasion, really hear
-the word "moon," and really did have a visual image of a luminous
-disc, and that my perception was really followed by my imagination.
-If it were proved to me that this had not really happened, I should
-admit that I had not really observed it. But though this condition
-that, if observation is to give reason for a generalisation, what is
-observed must be real, may thus be said to be implied in the very
-word "observation," it was necessary for me to mention the condition
-explicitly. It was necessary, because, as I shall presently show,
-we do and must also use the word "observation" in a sense in which
-the assertion "I observe A" by no means includes the assertion "A
-exists"--in a sense in which it _may_ be true that though I did observe
-A, yet A did _not_ exist.
-
-But there is also, I think, a third necessary condition which is very
-apt to be overlooked. It may, perhaps, be allowed that observation
-gives some reason for the proposition that hens' eggs are generally
-laid by hens. I do not mean to say that any one man's observation can
-give a reason for this proposition: I do not assume either that it can
-or that it cannot. Nor do I mean to make any assumption as to what
-must be meant by the words "hens" and "eggs," if this proposition is
-to be true. I am quite willing to allow for the moment that if it is
-true at all, we must understand by "hens" and "eggs," objects very
-unlike that which we directly observe, when we see a hen in a yard, or
-an egg on the breakfast-table. I am willing to allow the possibility
-that, as some Idealists would say, the proposition "Hens lay eggs" is
-false, unless we mean by it: A certain kind of collection of spirits or
-monads sometimes has a certain intelligible relation to another kind of
-collection of spirits or monads. I am willing to allow the possibility
-that, as Reid and some scientists would say, the proposition "Hens
-lay eggs" is false, if we mean by it anything more than that: Certain
-configurations of invisible material particles sometimes have a certain
-spatio-temporal relation to another kind of configuration of invisible
-material particles. Or again I am willing to allow, with certain
-other philosophers, that we must, if it is to be true, interpret
-this proposition as meaning that certain kinds of sensations have to
-certain other kinds a relation which may be expressed by saying that
-the one kind of sensations "lay" the other kind. Or again, as other
-philosophers say, the proposition "Hens lay eggs" may possibly mean:
-Certain sensations of mine _would_, under certain conditions, have to
-certain other sensations of mine a relation which may be expressed by
-saying that the one set would "lay" the other set. But whatever the
-proposition "Hens' eggs are generally laid by hens" may _mean_, most
-philosophers would, I think, allow that, in some sense or other, this
-proposition was true. And they would also I think allow that we have
-_some_ reason for it; and that _part_ of this reason at all events lies
-in observation: they would allow that we should have no reason for it
-unless certain things had been observed, which have been observed.
-Few, I think, would say that the existence of an egg "intrinsically
-points" to that of a hen, in such a sense that, even if we had had no
-experience of any kind concerning the manner in which objects like eggs
-are connected with animals like hens, the mere inspection of an egg
-would justify the assertion: A hen has probably existed.
-
-I assume, then, that objects having all the characteristics which
-hens' eggs have (whatever these may be) are generally laid by hens
-(whatever hens may be); and I assume that, if we have any reason
-for this generalisation at all, observation gives us some reason
-for it. But now, let us suppose that the only observations we had
-made were those which we should commonly describe by saying that we
-had seen a hen laying an egg. I do not say that any number of such
-observations, by themselves, would be _sufficient_ to justify our
-generalisation: I think it is plain that they would not. But let us
-suppose, for the moment, that we had observed nothing else which bore
-upon the connection between hens and eggs; and that, if therefore
-our generalisation was justified by any observations at all, it was
-justified by these. We are supposing, then, that the observations
-which we describe as "seeing hens lay eggs" give some reason for the
-generalisation that eggs of that kind are generally laid by hens. And
-if these observations give reason for this, obviously _in a sense_
-they give reason for the generalisation that the existence of such an
-egg is generally preceded by that of a hen; and hence also, they give
-us reason to suppose that if such an egg exists, a hen has probably
-existed also--that unless a hen had existed, the egg would not have
-existed. But the point to which I wish to call attention is that it
-is _only_ in a limited sense that they do give reason for this. They
-only give us reason to suppose that, for each egg, there has existed a
-hen, which was at some time _near_ the place where the egg in question
-then was, and which existed at a time _near_ to that at which the egg
-began to exist. The only kind of hens, whose existence they do give us
-reason to suppose, are hens, of which each was at some time in spatial
-and temporal proximity (or, if Idealists prefer, in the relations which
-are the "intelligible counterparts" of these) to an egg. They give us
-no information at all about the existence of hens (if there are any)
-which never came within a thousand miles of an egg, or which were dead
-a thousand years before any egg existed. That is to say, they _do_
-give us reason to suppose that, if a particular egg exists, there has
-probably existed a hen which was at some time _near_ that egg; but
-they give us no reason to suppose that, if a particular egg exists,
-there must have existed a hen which never came near that egg. They
-_do_ give us reason to suppose that, for each egg, there has probably
-existed a hen which at some time stood to the egg in question in that
-relation which we have observed to hold between an egg and a hen, when
-we observed the hen laying an egg. But they give us no reason to infer
-from the existence of an egg any other kind of hen: any hen which
-_never_ stood to the egg in the relation in which we have observed that
-some hens do stand to eggs.
-
-What I wish to suggest is that this condition is a universal condition
-for sound inductions. If the observation of β preceding _α_ can ever
-give us any reason at all for supposing that the existence of A is
-generally preceded by that of B, it can at most only give us reason
-to suppose that the existence of an A is generally preceded by that
-of a B _which stands to our A in the same relation in which β_ has
-been observed to stand to _α._ It cannot give the least reason for
-supposing that the existence of an A must have been preceded by that
-of a B, which did _not_ stand to A in the observed relation, but in
-some quite different one. If we are to have any reason to infer from
-the existence of an A the existence of such a B, the reason must lie in
-some different observations. That this is so, in the case of hens' eggs
-and hens, is, I think, obvious: and, if the rule is _not_ universal,
-some reason should at least be given for supposing that it does apply
-in one case and not in another.
-
-Having thus attempted to point out some conditions which seem to be
-necessary, though not _sufficient_, where observation is to give any
-reason for a generalisation, I may now proceed to my second preliminary
-question. What kinds of things do we observe?
-
-In order to illustrate how much and how little I mean by "observation"
-or "direct perception," I will take as an instance a very common
-visual perception. Most of us are familiar with the experience which
-we should describe by saying that we had seen a red book and a blue
-book side by side upon a shelf. What exactly can we be said to observe
-or directly perceive when we have such an experience? We certainly
-observe one colour, which we call blue, and a different colour, which
-we call red; each of these we observe as having a particular size and
-shape; and we observe also these two coloured patches as having to one
-another the spatial relation which we express by saying they are side
-by side. All this we certainly see or directly perceive _now,_ whatever
-may have been the process by which we have come to perceive so much.
-But when we say, as in ordinary talk we should, that the objects we
-perceive are _books,_ we certainly mean to ascribe to them properties,
-which, in a sense which we all understand, are not actually seen by
-us, at the moment when we are merely looking at two books on a shelf
-two yards off. And all such properties I mean to exclude as not being
-then _observed_ or _directly perceived_ by us. When I speak of what
-we _observe,_ when we see two books on a shelf, I mean to limit the
-expression to that which is _actually seen._ And, thus understood, the
-expression does include colours, and the size and shape of colours, and
-spatial relations in three dimensions between these patches of colour,
-but it includes nothing else.
-
-But I am also using observation in a sense in which we can be said
-actually to observe a movement. We commonly say that we can sometimes
-_see_ a red billiard ball moving towards a white one on a green table.
-And, here again, I do not mean to include in what is directly perceived
-or observed, all that we mean by saying that the two objects perceived
-are billiard-balls. But I do mean to include what (we should say) we
-_actually see._ We actually see a more or less round red patch moving
-towards a more or less round white patch; we _see_ the stretch of green
-between them diminishing in size. And this perception is not merely the
-same as a series of perceptions--first a perception of a red patch with
-a green stretch of one size between it and the white; then a perception
-of a red patch with a green stretch of a different size between it and
-the white; and so on. In order to perceive a movement we must have a
-different perception from any one of these or from the sum of them. We
-must _actually see_ the green stretch diminishing in size.
-
-Now it is undoubtedly difficult, in some instances, to decide precisely
-what is perceived in this sense and what is not. But I hope I have
-said enough to show that I am using "perceive" and "observe" in a
-sense in which, on a given occasion, it is easy to decide that _some_
-things certainly are perceived, and other things, as certainly, are
-not perceived. I am using it in a sense in which we do perceive such
-a complex object as a white patch moving towards a red one on a green
-field; but I am not using it in any sense in which we could be said to
-"perceive" or "observe" that what we saw moving was a billiard-ball.
-And in the same way I think we can distinguish roughly between what,
-on any given occasion, we perceive, as we say, "by any one of the
-other senses," and what we do not perceive by it. We can say with
-certainty that, on any given occasion, there are certain kinds of
-"content" which we are actually hearing, and others which we are _not_
-actually hearing; though with regard to some again it is difficult to
-say whether we are actually hearing them or not. And similarly we can
-distinguish with certainty in some instances, between what we are on
-a given occasion, actually smelling or feeling, and what we are not
-actually smelling or feeling.
-
-But now, besides these kinds of "things," "objects," or "contents,"
-which we perceive, as we say, "by the senses," there is also another
-kind which we can be said to observe. Not only can I observe a red and
-blue book side by side; I can also observe myself observing them. I can
-perceive a red patch moving towards a white, and I can also perceive my
-perception of this movement. And what I wish to make as plain as I can
-is that my perception of the movement of a coloured patch can at least
-be distinguished from that movement itself. I wish to make it plain
-that to observe a coloured patch moving is to observe one thing; and
-to observe myself observing a coloured patch moving is another. When
-I observe my own perception of a movement, I observe something _more_
-than when I merely observe the movement, and something very different
-from the movement. I may perceive a red and a blue book side by side on
-a shelf; and at another time I may perceive a red ball moving towards a
-white. The red and blue patch, of one shape, at rest side by side, are
-different from the red, of another shape, moving towards the white; and
-yet, when I say that both are "perceived," I mean by "perceived" one
-and the same thing. And since, thus, two different things may both be
-perceived, there must also be some difference between each of them and
-what is meant by saying that it is perceived. Indeed, in precisely the
-same way In which I may observe a spatial relation between a red patch
-and a blue (when I observe them "side by side") I do, when I observe my
-own perception of them, observe a spatial relation between it and them.
-I observe a distance between my perception and the red and blue books
-which I perceive, comparable in magnitude with the breadth or height
-of the blue book, just as these are comparable in magnitude with one
-another. And when I say I observe a distance between my perception
-of a red book and that red book itself, I do not mean that I observe
-a distance between my eyes, or any other part of what I call my body,
-and the red patch in question. I am talking not of my eyes, but of my
-actual perception. I observe my perception of a book to be near the
-book and further from the table, in exactly the same sense in which I
-observe the book to be near the shelf on which it stands, and further
-from the table. And just as, if the distance between a red patch and
-a white is to be perceived, the red patch must be different from the
-white, so, if I perceive a certain distance between my perception and
-the red patch, my perception must be different from the red patch which
-I perceive.
-
-I assume, then, that we observe, on the one hand, coloured patches of
-certain shapes and sizes, and their spatial relations to one another,
-together with all the other kinds of "contents," which we should
-usually be said to perceive "through the senses." And, on the other
-hand, we also sometimes observe our own perceptions of such "contents"
-and our thoughts. And these two kinds of "content" are different from
-one another: my perception of a red patch with gold letters on it,
-is not itself a red patch with gold letters on it; and hence, when I
-observe my perception of this patch, I observe something different from
-that which I observe when I merely perceive the patch. Either of these
-two kinds of "content"--either colours, moving or at rest, sounds,
-smells, and all the rest--or, on the other hand, my perceptions of
-these--either of these two kinds, or both, might conceivably, since
-both are observed, give grounds for a generalisation concerning what
-exists. But, as I have said, if observations are to give any ground
-for such a generalisation, it must be assumed that what Is observed
-_exists_ or is _real._ And since, as I have insisted, when I observe
-my _perception_ of a red patch with gold letters on it, I observe
-something different from what I observed when I merely observed a red
-patch with gold letters on it, it follows that to assume the existence
-of my perception of this red and gold is _not_ the same thing as to
-assume the existence of the red and gold itself.
-
-But what, it may be asked, do I mean by this property of "existence" or
-"reality," which may, it would seem, belong to every content, which I
-observe, or may again belong to none, or which may belong to some and
-not to others? What is this property which may belong to my perception
-of a movement, and yet not belong to the movement perceived, or which
-may again belong to the movement perceived and not to my perception of
-it, or which may again belong to both or to neither?
-
-It is necessary, I think, to ask this question at this point, because
-there are some philosophers who hold that, in the case of some kinds
-of "content," at all events, to say that they "exist" is to say that
-they are "perceived." Some hold that to say "A exists" is to say
-neither more nor less than "A is perceived"--that the two expressions
-are perfect synonyms; and others again would say that by "A exists
-or is real" we may mean _more_ than that "A is perceived," but that
-we must at least mean this. Now, I have hitherto used the word
-"existence" pretty freely, and I think that, when I used it, I used
-it in its ordinary sense. I think it will generally have suggested to
-you precisely what I meant to convey, and I think that, in some cases
-at all events, it will not even have occurred to you to doubt whether
-you did understand what I meant by it. But, if these philosophers are
-right, then, if you _have_ understood what I meant by it, I have all
-along been using it in a sense, which renders the end of my last
-paragraph perfect nonsense. If these philosophers are right, then, when
-I assert that what _is_ perceived may yet _not_ exist, I am really
-asserting that what _is_ perceived may yet _not_ be perceived--I am
-contradicting myself. I am, of course, quite unaware that I am doing
-so. But these philosophers would say _either_ you are contradicting
-yourself, _or_ you are not using the word "exists" in its ordinary
-sense. And either of these alternatives would be fatal to my purpose.
-If I am not using the word in its ordinary sense, then I shall not be
-understood by anyone; and, if I am contradicting myself, then what I
-say will not be worth understanding.
-
-Now, with one class of these philosophers--the class to which, I
-think, Berkeley belongs--I think I can put myself right comparatively
-easily. The philosophers I mean are those who say that it is only in
-the case of one particular class of "contents" (the kind of "content"
-which Berkeley calls "ideas") that to say "the 'content' A exists"
-is to say "A is perceived," and who admit that in the case of other
-contents--myself and my perceptions and thoughts, for example--to say
-that _these_ exist or are real, is to say of them something different
-from this. These philosophers admit, that is to say, that the word
-"exists" has two different senses: and that in only one of these senses
-is it synonymous with the words "is perceived." When (they hold) I
-say of such a content as a red patch with gold letters on it that
-it "exists" I _do_ mean that it is perceived; but when I say of my
-_perception_ of such a patch that _it_ exists, I do _not_ mean that
-my perception is perceived but something different from this. Now, it
-would be nothing strange that one and the same word should be used in
-two different senses; many words are used in many different senses.
-But it would, I think, be something very strange indeed, if in the
-case of a word which we constantly apply to all sorts of different
-objects, we should uniformly apply it to one large class of object in
-the one sense and the one sense only and the other large class in the
-other sense and the other sense only. Usually, in the case of such
-ambiguous words, it happens that, in different contexts, we apply it
-to one and the same object in _both_ senses. We sometimes wish to
-say of a given object that it has the one property, and sometimes we
-wish to say of the same object that it has the other property; and
-hence we apply the same word to the same object, at one time in one
-sense, and at another in the other. I think, therefore, that, even
-if there were these two different senses of the word "existence," it
-would be very unlikely that we should not commonly, in some contexts,
-apply it in the sense, in which (as is alleged) it does apply to
-perceptions, to "contents" which are not perceptions. Indeed, I think,
-it is quite plain that we constantly do ask, with regard to what is
-not a perception, whether _it_ exists, in precisely the same sense,
-in which we ask, with regard to a perception, whether _it_ exists. We
-ask in precisely the same sense: Was the Roc a real bird, or merely an
-imaginary one? and, did Sindbad's perception of the Roc really exist,
-or is it a fiction that he perceived a Roc? I think, therefore, that
-the sense in which these philosophers admit that we do apply the word
-"existence" to perceptions, is one in which we also commonly apply it
-to "contents" other than perceptions. But, even if this is not the
-case, I can set myself right with them by a simple explanation. I
-need merely explain that the sense in which I am proposing to enquire
-whether a red patch exists, is precisely the sense in which they admit
-that my perception of a red patch does exist. And in this sense, it is
-plain that to suppose that a thing may exist, which is not perceived,
-or that it may _not_ exist, although it is perceived, is at least not
-self-contradictory.
-
-But there may be other philosophers who will say that, in the case of
-a perception also, to say that it exists or is real is to say that
-it is perceived--either that alone or something more as well. And to
-these philosophers I would first point out that they are admitting
-that the proposition "This perception is real" is significant. There
-is some sense or other in which we may say: "Alexander's perception of
-an elephant was real or did exist, but Sindbad's perception of a Roc
-was _not_ real--never did exist": the latter proposition is, in some
-sense or other, not self-contradictory. And then I would ask of them:
-When they say, that to call a perception "real" is to assert that it
-is perceived, do they mean by this that to call it real is to assert
-that it is _really_ perceived, or not? If they say "No," then they are
-asserting that to call a perception "real" is merely to say that it was
-perceived in the sense in which Sindbad _did_ perceive a Roc: they are
-asserting that to call it "real" is not to say, in any sense, that it
-was _really_ perceived: they are asserting that to call a perception
-"real" is to say that it was perceived, in some sense quite other than
-that in which we ordinarily use the word: for we certainly commonly
-mean, when we say "A was perceived," that a perception of A was "real":
-we should commonly say that Sindbad did _not_ perceive a Roc--meaning
-that no such perception ever did exist. I do not think they do mean
-this; and, in any case, if they do, I think it is plain that they
-are wrong. When we say that a perception is "real," we certainly do
-not mean merely that it is the object of another perception, which
-may itself be quite unreal--purely Imaginary. I assume, therefore,
-that when they say: To call a perception "real" is to say that it is
-perceived; they mean, what we should naturally understand, namely,
-that: To call it "real" is to say that it is _really_ perceived--to say
-that it is the object of another perception, which is also _real_ in
-the same sense. And, if they mean this, then what they say is certainly
-untrue. Their definition of reality is circular. It cannot be the case
-that the _only_ sense in which a perception may be said to be real, is
-one in which to call it so is to assert that not it alone, but another
-perception is real also. It cannot be the case that the assertion "A is
-real" is _identical_ with the assertion "A and B are both real," where
-A and B are different, and "real" is used in the same sense as applied
-to both. If it is to be true that the assertion "A is real" _ever_, in
-any sense, includes the assertion "A is _really_ perceived," there must
-be another sense of the word "real," in which to assert "A is real" is
-to assert _less_ than "A is _really_ perceived"--the sense, namely, in
-which we here assert that the _perception_ of A is real.
-
-We find, therefore, that the other class of philosophers were at least
-right in this: they were right in allowing that the sense in which
-we commonly say that our perceptions exist is one in which "exist"
-does not include, even as a part of its meaning, "is perceived." We
-find that there is a common sense of the word "existence," in which
-to say "A exists" must mean _less_ than "A is _really_ perceived":
-since, otherwise, the only possible definition of the word "existence"
-would be a circular definition. And I may point out that two other
-definitions, which have been sometimes suggested by philosophers as
-giving what we commonly mean by "reality" or "existence" are vitiated
-by the same fault--they also are circular. Some philosophers have
-sometimes suggested that when we call a thing "real," we mean that it
-is "systematically connected" in some way with other things. But,
-when we look into their meaning, we find that what they mean is (what,
-indeed, is alone plausible)--systematically connected with other
-_real_ things. And it may possibly be the case that we sometimes use
-the word "real" in this sense: but, at least, it must be certainly
-the case, that, if we do, we _also_ use it in another and simpler
-sense--the sense in which it is employed in the proposed definition.
-And other philosophers have suggested that what we mean by "real"
-is--"connected in some way with a purpose--helping or hindering,
-or the object of a purpose." But if we look into their meaning, we
-find they mean--connected with a _real_ purpose. And hence, even if
-we do sometimes mean by "real," "connected with a _real_ purpose,"
-it is plain we also sometimes mean by "real" something simpler than
-this--that namely, which is meant by "real" in the proposed definition.
-
-It is certain, therefore, that we do commonly use the word "existence"
-in a sense, in which to say "A exists" is _not_ to say "A is
-perceived," or "A is systematically connected with other real things,"
-or "A is purposive." There is a simpler sense than any of these--the
-sense in which we say that our own perceptions do exist, and that
-Sindbad's perceptions did not exist. But when I say this, I am by no
-means denying that what exists, in this simple sense, may not always
-_also_ exist in all the others; and that what exists in any of them
-may not _also_ always exist in this. It is quite possible that what
-exists is always _also_ perceived, and that what is perceived always
-_also_ exists. All that I am saying is that, even if this is so, this
-proposition is significant--is not merely a proposition about the
-meaning of a word. It is not self-contradictory to suppose that some
-things which exist are not perceived, and that some things which are
-perceived do not exist.
-
-But, it may be asked: What is this common simple sense of the word
-"exists"? For my own part, it seems to me to be so simple that it
-cannot be expressed in other words, except those which are recognised
-as its synonyms. I think we are all perfectly familiar with its
-meaning: it is the meaning which you understood me to have throughout
-this paper, until I began this discussion. I think we can perceive at
-once what is meant by asserting that my perception of black marks on a
-white ground is "real," and that no such perception as Sindbad's of a
-Roc was ever "real": we are perfectly familiar with the property which
-the one perception is affirmed to possess, and the other to be without.
-And I think, as I have said, that this property is a simple one. But,
-whatever it is, this, which we ordinarily mean, is what I mean by
-"existence" or "reality." And this property, we have seen, is certainly
-neither identical with nor inclusive of that complex one which we mean
-by the words "is perceived."
-
-I may now, then, at last approach the main question of my paper.
-Which among the "contents" which I observe will give me reason to
-suppose that my observation of some of them is generally preceded
-or accompanied or followed by the existence of certain particular
-perceptions, thoughts or feelings in another person? I have explained
-that the "contents" which I actually observe may be divided into two
-classes: on the one hand, those which, as we commonly say, we perceive
-"through the senses"; and, on the other hand, my perceptions of these
-last, my thoughts, and my feelings. I have explained that if any
-of these observed contents are to give reason for a generalisation
-about what exists, _they_ must exist. And I have explained that with
-regard to both classes of "contents" I am using the word "exist" in
-precisely the same sense--a sense, in which it is certainly not
-self-contradictory to suppose that what _is_ perceived, does not exist,
-and that what is _not_ perceived, does exist; and, in which, therefore,
-the assumption that a red patch with gold letters on it exists, is a
-_different_ assumption from the assumption that my _perception_ of
-a red patch with gold letters on it exists; and the assumption that
-my _perception_ of a red patch with gold letters on it exists, is a
-_different_ assumption from the assumption that a red patch with gold
-letters on it exists.
-
-What, then, that we observe, can give us any reason for believing that
-anyone else has certain particular perceptions, thoughts or feelings?
-It has, I think, been very commonly assumed that the observation of
-my own perceptions, thoughts, and feelings, can, by itself, give me
-such a reason. And I propose, therefore, to examine this assumption.
-If, as I hope to show, it is false; it will then follow, that if our
-own observation gives us any reason whatever, for believing in the
-existence of other persons, we must assume the existence, not only
-of our own perceptions, thoughts and feelings, but also of some, at
-least, among that other class of data, which I may now, for the sake of
-brevity, call "sense-contents"; we must assume that some of them exist,
-in precisely the same sense in which we assume that our perceptions,
-thoughts, and feelings exist.
-
-The theory which I propose to examine is, then, the following. My
-observation of my own thoughts, feelings, and perceptions may, it
-asserts, give me some reason to suppose that another person has
-thoughts, feelings, and perceptions similar to some of mine. Let us
-assume, accordingly, that my own thoughts, feelings, and perceptions
-do exist; but that none of the "sense-contents," which I also observe,
-do so. Where among my perceptions am I to look for any which might
-conceivably give me a reason for supposing the existence of other
-perceptions similar to my own? It is obvious where I must look. I have
-perceptions which I call perceptions of other people's bodies; and
-these are certainly similar in many respects to other perceptions of
-my own body. But I also observe that certain kinds of perceptions of
-my own body are preceded by certain other perceptions, thoughts, or
-feelings of mine. I may, for instance, observe that when I perceive
-my hand suddenly catch hold of my foot in a particular way, this
-perception was preceded by a particular kind of feeling of pain. I
-may, perhaps, observe this often enough to justify the generalisation
-that the perception of that particular motion of my body is generally
-preceded by that particular feeling of pain. And in this way I may
-perhaps have reason for quite a number of generalisations which assert
-that particular kinds of perceptions of my own body are generally
-preceded by other particular kinds of perceptions, thoughts, or
-feelings of my own.
-
-But I may also, no doubt, have the perception, which I call the
-perception of another person's hand catching hold of his foot, in a
-manner similar to that in which I have perceived my own hand catch
-hold of my own foot. And my perception of another person's hand
-catching hold of his foot may undoubtedly be similar in many respects
-to my perception of my own hand catching hold of my own foot. But
-I shall not observe the same kind of feeling of pain preceding my
-perception of _his_ hand catching hold of his foot, which I have
-observed preceding my perception of _my_ hand catching hold of my
-foot. Will my generalisation, then, give me any reason to suppose
-that nevertheless my perception of his hand catching hold of his foot
-_is_ preceded by a similar feeling of pain, not in me but in him?
-We undoubtedly do assume that when I perceive another person's body
-making movements similar to those which I have observed my own body
-making, this perception has generally been preceded by some feeling or
-perception of his similar to that which I have observed to precede my
-perception of similar movements in my own body. We do assume this; and
-it is precisely the kind of generalisation, which, I have insisted,
-must be admitted to be true. But my present question is: Will such
-observations as I have described give any reason for thinking any
-such generalisation true? I think it is plain that they will not give
-the slightest reason for thinking so. In the first place, all the
-perceptions which I call perceptions of another person's body differ
-very considerably from any of those which I call perceptions of my
-own. But I am willing to waive this objection. I am not offering any
-theory as to what degree of likeness is _sufficient_ to justify a
-generalisation: and therefore I will allow that the degree of likeness
-_may_ be sufficient. But there remains an objection which is, I think,
-quite fatal to the proposed inference. This objection is that the
-inference in question plainly does not satisfy the third condition
-which I suggested above as _necessary_, wherever any generalisation
-is to be justified by observation. I am willing to allow that my
-observations of the fact that my perception of a certain movement in
-my own body is preceded by a certain feeling of pain, _will_ justify
-the generalisation that my perception of any such movement, whether in
-my own body _or_ in that of another person, is generally preceded by a
-similar feeling of pain. And I allow, therefore, that when I perceive a
-certain movement in another's body, it _is_ probable that the feeling
-of pain exists, though I do not perceive it. But, if it _is_ probable
-that such a feeling of pain exists, such a feeling must stand _in the
-same relation_ to my perception of the movement in another person's
-body, in which a similar feeling of pain has been observed by me to
-stand to my perception of such a movement in my own body. That is to
-say the only kind of feeling of pain, which my observations do justify
-me in inferring, if (as I admit they may) they justify me in inferring
-any at all, is a feeling of pain of _my own._ They cannot possibly
-justify the belief in the existence of any such feeling _except_ one
-which stands to my perception in the same relation in which my feelings
-do stand to _my_ perceptions--one, that is to say, which is my own. I
-have no more reason to believe that the feeling of pain which probably
-precedes my perception of a movement in another person's body can be
-the feeling _of another person_, than, in my former example, I had
-reason to suppose that the hen, whose existence probably preceded that
-of a given egg, could be a hen, which had never been near the egg in
-question. The two cases are exactly analogous. I observe a feeling of
-pain _of my own_ preceding a perception _of my own._ I observe the
-two, that is to say, as standing to one another, in those relations
-(whatever they may be) in which any perception of mine stands to any
-other thought, perception or feeling of mine, and which are, at all
-events, different from any relation in which a perception or feeling of
-another person can stand to one of mine. I never perceive the feeling
-and the perception as standing in any other relation. In any case,
-therefore, where I do observe something like the perception, but do
-not observe the feeling, I can only be justified (_if_ justified in
-inferring any feeling at all), in inferring an unperceived feeling _of
-my own._
-
-For this reason I think that no observations of my own perceptions,
-feelings or thoughts can give me the slightest reason for supposing a
-connection between any of them and any feeling, perception, or thought
-in another person. The argument is perfectly general, since _all_
-my perceptions, feelings and thoughts do have to one another those
-relations in virtue of which I call them mine; and which, when I talk
-of a perception, feeling or thought as being _another persons_, I mean
-to say that it has _not_ got to any of mine. I can, therefore, merely
-from observation of _this_ class of data never obtain the slightest
-reason for belief in the existence of a feeling, perception, or thought
-which does _not_ stand in these relations to one of mine--which _is,_
-that is to say, the feeling, perception or thought, of another person.
-But how different is the case, if we adopt the hypothesis, which I wish
-to recommend--if we assume the existence of that other class of data
-which I have called "sense-contents!" On this hypothesis, that which I
-perceive, when I perceive a movement of my own body, is _real_; that
-which I perceive when I perceive a movement of another's body is _real_
-also. I can now observe not merely the relation between my _perception_
-of a movement of my body and my own feelings, but also a relation
-between a _real_ movement of my body and my own feelings. And there
-is no reason why I should not be justified in inferring that another
-person's feelings stand _in the same relation_ to the real movements of
-his body, in which I observe my own feelings to stand to similar real
-movements of mine.
-
-But there is another argument which may still be urged by those who
-hold that my own perceptions, thoughts, and feelings, by themselves,
-may be sufficient to justify a belief in the existence of other
-persons. It may be said: "Our observation of our own perceptions may be
-sufficient to _verify_ or _confirm_ the hypothesis that other persons
-exist. This hypothesis is one which "works." The assumption that other
-persons have particular thoughts, feelings and perceptions enables us
-to predict that they will have others and that our own perceptions will
-be modified accordingly: it enables us to predict future perceptions of
-our own; and we find that these predictions are constantly verified.
-We observe that we do have the perceptions, which the hypothesis leads
-us to expect we should have. In short, our perceptions occur just as
-they would do, _if_ the hypothesis were true; our perceptions behave
-_as if_ other persons had the perceptions, thoughts and feelings which
-we suppose them to have. Surely, then, they confirm the truth of the
-hypothesis--they give some reason to think it probably true?"
-
-All this, which I have supposed an opponent to urge, I admit to be
-true. I admit that the fact that an hypothesis works may give some
-reason to suppose it true. I admit that my perceptions occur just as
-they would do, if other people had the perceptions which I suppose them
-to have. I admit that that assumption enables me to make predictions as
-to future perceptions of my own, and that I observe these predictions
-to come true. I admit all this. But I admit it only in a sense in
-which it in no way conflicts with the position which I am maintaining.
-The words, which I have put into the mouth of a supposed opponent,
-may, in fact, mean three different things, which it is worth while to
-distinguish. In two of those meanings, which I shall admit to be true
-and which are what make them seem plausible, they do not deny what I
-assert. Only in the third sense are they an objection to my position:
-and in that sense they are false.
-
-One of the meanings which I admit to be true is as follows:--I have not
-only admitted but insisted that some of my perceptions are just such
-as would occur if another person had certain particular feelings: I
-have insisted that I should not have just those perceptions which I do
-have, unless some other person had certain feelings and perceptions
-which I suppose him to have. And I admit further that the fact that I
-have one of the perceptions in question--for instance, that of another
-person's hand catching hold of his foot--this fact, _together with_
-the true assumption that I should not have this perception, unless
-some other person felt pain, will justify the assertion that another
-person has felt pain. In this sense, I admit, the fact that I perceive
-what I do perceive will give me reason to suppose that another person
-has felt pain. And, on the other hand, I also admit that the fact
-that I have this perception, _together with_ the true assumption that
-when I have it another person has felt pain, may help to justify the
-assumption that the perception in question is one which I should not
-have had unless another person had felt pain--it helps to justify the
-generalisation that certain of my perceptions are just what would
-occur, _if_ another person had felt pain. In general terms, that is to
-say, I admit that the occurrence of B, _together with_ the assumption
-that B is just the sort of thing which would occur if A existed, will
-justify the assertion that A exists in that particular instance. And
-I also admit that the occurrence of B, _together with_ the assumption
-that A exists in that particular instance, may help to justify the
-assumption that B is just the sort of thing which would exist, if A
-existed. In other words: When it is said that the observation of B's
-existence confirms or verifies the assumption that A exists, either of
-two things may be meant. It may be meant that, assuming B to be the
-sort of thing which would exist if A existed, the observation of B
-confirms the assumption that A exists _in this particular instance._
-Or, on the other hand, it may be meant that, assuming A to exist
-in this particular instance, the observation of B may confirm the
-generalisation, that B is just the sort of thing which would exist,
-if A existed. _Either_ the one _or_ the other of these two things is,
-I think, what is generally assumed, when it is assumed that what we
-do observe confirms or verifies the assumption that there exists some
-particular thing which we don't observe. And I am admitting that both
-these assumptions are true.
-
-But neither of them conflicts in any way with the position I am
-maintaining. What I am maintaining is that no observation of my own
-perceptions, _by itself,_ can confirm the generalisation that any one
-of them _is_ just what would occur if another person had a particular
-feeling. I admit this generalisation to be true; and I admit that my
-observation of my own perceptions and feelings may give me _reason_ to
-suppose that _if_ another person has certain perceptions or feelings
-_he_ will also have certain others. What I deny is that they give
-me the slightest reason to suppose that the existence of any such
-feeling or perception in another has any connection with the existence
-of any perception _of my own_--to suppose that any perception of my
-own is the sort of thing which would occur _if_ another person had a
-particular feeling. What therefore, my opponent must affirm is that the
-observation of a perception of my own _without_ the assumption (which
-Reid makes) that in that particular instance any feeling or perception
-of another person, of any kind whatever, has preceded it, may give me
-reason to suppose that that perception of my own is of a kind which is
-generally preceded by a particular kind of feeling in another person.
-And this, I think, is plainly false.
-
-But there is yet a third thing which may be meant, and which I
-am willing to admit may be true. It may be said: "I believe many
-generalisations of the following kind. I believe that when I have
-a perception A, some other person has generally had a feeling X; I
-believe that the existence of the feeling X is generally followed, in
-the same person, by that of the feeling Y; and I believe also that
-when another person has the feeling Y, I generally have the perception
-B. I believe all this." And it must, I think, be admitted that we do
-believe generalisations of this kind, and generalisations in which
-there are not merely two steps between A and B, but a great number of
-steps. "But then," it may be said, "my belief in this generalisation
-causes me, when I observe my perception A, to expect that I shall have
-the perception B; and such expectations, I observe, are constantly
-realised." And this also, I think, must be admitted to be true. "But,
-finally," it may be said, "beliefs which produce expectations which
-are constantly realised are generally true. And hence the fact that
-these beliefs of mine about the connection of feelings in other persons
-with perceptions of my own do lead to expectations which are realised,
-gives me reason to suppose that these generalisations are true and
-hence that other persons do have particular kinds of feelings."
-And I am willing to admit that this also is true. I am willing to
-admit that true predictions can, as a rule, only be produced by true
-beliefs. The generalisation that this is so, is, indeed, one which
-can only be justified by the observations of beliefs, which are, in
-some way, independently proved to be true; and hence, if it is to be
-justified, without assuming the existence of anything other than my
-own perceptions, thoughts, and feelings, it can only be justified by
-my observation that beliefs with regard to the manner in which _these_
-succeed one another generally lead to true predictions. Whether the
-observation of such beliefs _alone_ could give sufficient reason for
-it, is, I think, doubtful; but I am willing to admit that it may be
-so. One thing, however, is, I think, quite plain: namely, that this
-generalisation "Beliefs which lead to true predictions are generally
-true" cannot be true, _unless_ some other of the "contents" which I
-observe, beside my own perceptions, thoughts, and feelings, do exist.
-That is to say, in giving a reason for supposing the existence of
-other people, this generalisation also gives a reason for the very
-theory which I am advocating, namely, that some of those data which
-I have called "sense-contents" do exist. It does this, because it is
-quite certain that beliefs in generalisations about the existence of
-sense-contents _can_ (and do) constantly lead to true predictions. The
-belief that when I have observed a fire of a certain size in my grate,
-something similar to what I have observed will continue to exist for
-a certain time, can, and constantly does, lead to the true prediction
-that, when I come back to my room in half an hour's time, I shall
-observe a fire of a certain size still burning. We make predictions
-on such grounds, I think, every day and all day long. And hence
-unless such beliefs as that what I observe when I see a fire burning
-_does_ exist, _are_ true, we certainly have no reason to suppose that
-beliefs which lead to true predictions are generally true. And hence
-on this hypothesis also it remains true: that, unless some of the
-contents which I observe _other_ than my own perceptions, thoughts, and
-feelings, do exist, I cannot have the slightest reason for supposing
-that the existence of certain perceptions of my own is generally
-connected with that of certain perceptions, thoughts, or feelings in
-any other person.
-
-I conclude therefore that, unless some of the observed data which I
-have called sense-contents _do_ exist, my own observations cannot give
-me the slightest reason for believing that anybody else has ever had
-any particular perception, thought, or feeling. And, having arrived
-so far towards an answer to my first question: How do we know that
-any other persons exist? I may now point out that precisely the same
-answer must be given to my second question: How do we know that _any_
-particular kind of thing exists, other than ourselves, our perceptions,
-thoughts, and feelings, and what we directly perceive? There is a view
-concerning what exists, which deserves, I think, much more respect than
-it generally receives from philosophers nowadays. The view I mean is
-the view that material objects, such as they are conceived by physical
-science, do really exist. It is held by some persons (and Reid is among
-them) that we _do_ know of the existence, not only of other persons,
-but also of the movements of matter in space. It is held that we do
-know, with considerable precision, what kinds of movements of matter
-generally precede my perception, when I have a particular perception.
-It is held, for instance, that when I perceive a red and blue book side
-by side on a shelf, at a certain distance from me, there have existed,
-between two material objects, which may be called books, and another
-kind of material object, which may be called my eyes, certain wave-like
-motions of a material medium; that there have existed two different
-sets of waves, of which the one is connected with my perception of red
-and the other with my perception of blue; and that the relative heights
-and breadths of the two different sets of waves, and the relative
-velocity of their movements are very exactly known. It is held that
-some men have a vast amount of very precise information about the
-existence of objects of this kind; and I think the view that this is
-so deserves a great deal of respect. But what I wish now to point out
-is that no one's observation of his own perceptions, thoughts and
-feelings, can, by itself, give him the slightest reason for believing
-in the existence of any such material objects. All the arguments by
-which I have tried to show that this kind of observation alone can give
-me no reason to believe in the existence of any kind of perception
-or feeling in another person, apply, with at least equal force, to
-show that it can give me no reason to believe in the existence of any
-kind of material object. On the other hand, if we are to admit the
-principle that "Beliefs which lead to true predictions, are generally
-true," this principle will give us at least as much reason to believe
-in the existence of certain kinds of material objects as to believe
-in the existence of other persons; since one of the most remarkable
-facts about beliefs in the existence of such objects is that they do so
-often lead to true predictions. But it must be remembered that we can
-have no reason for believing this principle itself, _unless_ our own
-perceptions, thoughts and feelings are _not_ the only kind of observed
-"content" which really does exist: we can have no reason for it, unless
-some such things as what I perceive, when I see a red and blue book
-side by side, do really exist.
-
-It would seem, therefore, that if my own observations do give me any
-reason whatever for believing in the existence either of any perception
-in any other person or of any material object, it must be true that
-not only my own perceptions, thoughts and feelings, but also _some_ of
-the other kinds of things which I directly perceive--colours, sounds,
-smells, etc.--do really exist: it must be true that some objects of
-this kind _exist_ or are _real_ in precisely the same simple sense
-in which my perceptions of them exist or are real. Is there then any
-reason to think that this is not true? Is there any reason to think,
-for instance, that _none_ of the colours which I perceive as occupying
-areas of certain shapes and sizes really exist in the areas which
-they appear to occupy? This is a question which I wished to discuss
-at length, because I think that it is one in which there are real
-difficulties. But I have given so much space to other questions, that I
-can only deal with it very briefly here.
-
-Some philosophers are very fond of asserting that a colour cannot exist
-except when it is perceived; and it might possibly be thought that
-when I suggest that colours do really exist, I am suggesting that they
-do exist when they are not perceived. I wish, therefore, briefly to
-point out that the question whether anything does exist, when it is
-not perceived, is one which I have not argued and shall not attempt
-to argue in this paper. I have, indeed, tried to show that since
-"exists" does not _mean_ "is perceived," it is, at least, conceivable
-that things should exist, when they are not perceived. But I have
-admitted that it is quite possible none _do_ so: it _may_ be the case
-that whenever a thing exists, it is _also_ at the same time perceived,
-for anything that I have said or shall say to the contrary. I think,
-indeed, that, if such things as colours _do_ exist, my observation of
-their behaviour will justify me in concluding that they also exist when
-I myself am, at least, not aware of perceiving them: but since I have
-not attempted to determine what kinds of observation are sufficient to
-justify a generalisation, I do not pretend to say whether this is so
-or not: and still less do I pretend to say whether, _if_ they exist
-when _I_ do not perceive them, we are justified in supposing that
-someone else must be perceiving them. The question whether anything
-exists, when it is not perceived, and, if so, what things, seems to
-me to be one which can only be settled by observation; and thus, I
-conceive, observation might justify us in concluding that certain kinds
-of things--pains, for example, do _not_ exist, when they are not
-perceived and that other kinds of things--colours, for example, _do_
-exist, when they are not perceived. The only way, in which, so far as
-I am aware, the theory I am advocating does conflict with ordinary
-Idealistic conclusions, is that it does suggest that things, which are
-_not_ "spiritual," do _sometimes_ exist, as really and as truly, as
-things which are.
-
-The theory, therefore, that nothing exists, except when it is
-perceived, is no objection (even if it be true) to the supposition that
-colours do exist. What objections are there to this supposition? All
-serious objections to it are, I think, of one type. They all rest upon
-the assumption that, if a certain kind of thing exists at a certain
-time in a certain place, certain other kinds of things cannot exist at
-the same time in the same place. They are all, that is to say, of the
-same type as Berkeley's argument: that, though the same body of water
-may _appear_ to be simultaneously both hot and cold (if one of the
-hands we plunge into it is warm and the other cold), yet the heat and
-the cold cannot both _really_ be in the same body at the same time. And
-it is worth noticing that anyone who uses this argument must admit that
-he understands what is meant by "really existing in a given place," and
-that he means by it something _other_ than "being perceived as in a
-given place." For the argument itself admits that _both_ the heat _and_
-the cold _are_ really _perceived_ as being in the same place, and that
-there is no difficulty in supposing that they are so; whereas It urges
-that there _is_ a difficulty in supposing that they both _really exist_
-in it.
-
-Now there is one obvious defect in this type of argument, if designed
-to prove that _no_ sensible quality exists at any place where it
-is perceived as being--a defect, which Berkeley himself admits in
-his "Principles," though he omits to notice it where he repeats the
-argument in his "Hylas." Even if we assume that the heat and the
-cold cannot _both_ exist in the same place (and I admit that, in this
-case, the contrary assumption does seem repugnant to Common Sense),
-it does not follow that _neither_ exists there. That is to say this
-type of argument, even if we grant its initial assumption, will only
-entitle us to conclude that _some_ sensible qualities which we perceive
-as being in a certain place at a certain time, do not exist in that
-place at that time. And this conclusion, I am inclined to think, is
-true. In the case, for instance, of the so-called "images" which
-we perceive in a looking-glass, we may very readily admit that the
-colours and shapes which we perceive do _not_ exist at the places where
-they appear to be--namely at various distances behind the glass. But
-yet, so far as I can see, we have no reason whatever for supposing
-that they do not, _except_ the assumption that our observations give
-us reason to believe that _other_ sensible qualities _do_ exist in
-those positions behind the glass; and the assumption that _where_
-these _other_ sensible qualities do exist, those which we see in the
-glass do _not_ exist. I should, therefore, admit that _some_ sensible
-qualities which we perceive as being in certain places, do _not_ exist
-in those places, while still retaining my belief that others do. And
-_perhaps_ this explanation is the one which should also be adopted in
-the case of sensible qualities which appear to be at a great distance
-from us. When, for instance, (as we say), "we see the moon," _what_
-we perceive (if the moon be full) is a round bright silver disc, of
-a small size, at a place very distant from us. Does that silver disc
-exist at that place? With what suppositions does the assumption that
-it _does_ conflict? Only, so far as I can see, with the supposition
-that the place in question is _really_ occupied by a body such as
-science has taught us to suppose that the moon _really_ is--a spherical
-body immensely larger than objects, in comparison with which the
-silver disc which we perceive is small; _or else_ with the supposition
-that the place in question is really occupied by some part of our
-atmosphere, or some part of the medium which science supposes to exist
-between our atmosphere and the moon; _or else_ with the supposition
-that the place in question is really occupied by what we might see,
-if the moon were nearer to us by many thousands of miles. Unless we
-suppose that some other object _is_ in the place, in which the silver
-disc appears to be, and that this object is of a kind which cannot
-occupy the _same_ place which is occupied by a silver disc, we have
-no reason to suppose that the silver disc does _not_ really exist in
-the place where it appears to be. And, in this case, we _perhaps_ have
-reason for both suppositions and should therefore conclude that the
-silver disc, which we perceive, does not exist in any real place.
-
-Part, therefore, of these objections to our theory may, I think, be
-met by admitting that _some_ of the ... sensible qualities which we
-perceive do not exist at the places where they appear to exist, though
-ethers do. But there is, I think, another class of cases, in which we
-may be justified in denying that two things which (it is asserted)
-cannot occupy the same space, really cannot. I will take an instance
-which is, I think, typical. When we look at a drop of blood with the
-naked eye, we perceive a small red spot, uniformly red all over. But
-when (as we say) we look at the _same_ object under a microscope of
-a certain power, I am informed that we see a much larger spot, of
-similar shape, indeed, but _not_ uniformly red--having, in fact, small
-red spots at different positions in a yellowish field. And if we were
-again to look at the _same_ object through a microscope of much higher
-power still, we might perceive yet a third different arrangement of
-colours. Is there any fatal objection to supposing that all _three_
-appearances--the uniform red spot, the yellowish field with reddish
-spots in it, and the third, whatever that may be--do all really occupy
-the same real spatial area? I cannot see that there is. We are familiar
-with the idea that a given spatial area may contain parts which are
-invisible to us. And hence, I think it is quite conceivable that parts
-of a given area may be _really_ occupied by one colour, while the whole
-is _really_ occupied by another. And this, I think, is what we actually
-_do_ believe in many cases. At all events, we certainly believe that
-the area which appears to be occupied by one colour really is _the same
-area_ as that which appears to be occupied by another. And, unless
-we assume that the area, in both cases, really is the same, we can
-certainly have no reason to deny that each colour does really occupy
-the area which it appears to occupy.
-
-For these reasons I think that the difficulties in the way of supposing
-that _some_ of the sensible qualities which we perceive as being in
-certain places, really exist in the places in which we perceive them
-to be, are not insuperable. I have indeed not done justice to these
-difficulties; but then, neither have I done justice to what is to be
-said on the other side. At all events, I think it is plain that we have
-no reason to assert, in any case whatever, that a perceived colour
-does _not_ really exist in the place where it is perceived as being,
-_unless_ we assume that that very same place really is occupied by
-something else_--either_ by some different sensible qualities _or_ by
-material objects such as physical science supposes to exist. But what
-reason can we give for such an assumption? I have tried to show that
-our own observations can give us none, _unless_ we assume that some of
-the sensible qualities, which we observe as occupying certain places,
-do really exist in those places. And, if this is so, then we must
-admit that neither he who believes (with Reid) in the existence of
-other minds and of matter also, nor he who believes in the existence
-of other minds and denies that of matter, can have, in his own
-observations, the slightest reason either for his assertion or for his
-denial: we must admit that he can have no reason for either assertion
-or denial, except one which consists in the assumption of the existence
-or nonexistence of something which he does _not_ observe--something,
-therefore, of the very same kind as that for which he gives it as a
-reason. I am very unwilling to suppose that this is the case: I am
-very unwilling to suppose that he who believes that Sindbad the Sailor
-really saw what the "Arabian Nights" represent him as seeing, has just
-as good reason (so far as his own observation goes) for believing this
-as he who denies it has for denying it. Still this may be the case.
-We _must_, perhaps, be content to assume as certain that for which
-our observation gives no reason: to assume such propositions as that
-Sindbad did _not_ see a Roc, and that you _do_ hear my voice. But if it
-is said that these things are certain; then it also appears to me to
-be certain that the colours which I perceive do exist (_some_ of them)
-where I perceive them. The more I look at objects round me, the more I
-am unable to resist the conviction that what I see does exist, as truly
-and as really, as my perception of it The conviction is overwhelming.
-
-This being, then, the state of the case, I think I may at least plead
-that we have grounds for suspense of judgment as to whether what I
-see does _not_ really exist; grounds, too, for renewed enquiry, more
-careful than such enquiry has sometimes been in the past.
-
-
-[1] Not now in 1921.
-
-
-
-
-WILLIAM JAMES
-
-
-My object in this paper is to discuss some of the things which Prof.
-William James says about truth in the recent book, to which he has
-given the above name.[1] In Lecture VI he professes to give an account
-of a theory, which he calls "the pragmatist theory of truth;" and he
-professes to give a briefer preliminary account of the same theory in
-Lecture II. Moreover, in Lecture VII, he goes on to make some further
-remarks about truth. In all these Lectures he seems to me to make
-statements to which there are very obvious objections; and my main
-object is to point out, as clearly and simply as I can, what seem to me
-to be the principal objections to some of these statements.
-
-We may, I think, distinguish three different things which he seems
-particularly anxious to assert about truth.
-
-(I) In the first place, he is plainly anxious to assert some connection
-between truth and "verification" or "utility." Our true ideas, he seems
-to say, are those that "work," in the sense that they are or can be
-"verified," or are "useful."
-
-(II) In the second place, he seems to object to the view that truth is
-something "static" or "immutable." He is anxious to assert that truths
-are in some sense "mutable."
-
-(III) In the third place, he asserts that "to an unascertainable
-extent our truths are man-made products" (p. 242).
-
-To what he asserts under each of these three heads there are, I think,
-serious objections; and I now propose to point out what seem to me to
-be the principal ones, under each head separately.
-
-
-(I)
-
-Professor James is plainly anxious to assert _some_ connection between
-truth and "verification" or "utility." And that there is _some_
-connection between them everybody will admit. That _many_ of our true
-ideas are verified; that _many_ of them can be verified; and that
-_many_ of them are useful, is, I take it, quite indisputable. But
-Professor James seems plainly to wish to assert something more than
-this. And one more thing which he wishes to assert is, I think, pretty
-plain. He suggests, at the beginning of Lecture VI, that he is going to
-tell us in what sense it is that our true ideas "agree with reality."
-Truth, he says, certainly _means_ their agreement with reality;
-the only question is as to what we are to understand by the words
-"agreement" and "reality" in this proposition. And he first briefly
-considers the theory, that the sense in which our true ideas agree with
-reality, is that they "copy" some reality. And he affirms that some
-of our true ideas really do do this. But he rejects the theory, as a
-theory of what truth means, on the ground that they do not _all_ do so.
-Plainly, therefore, he implies that no theory of what truth _means_
-will be correct, unless it tells us of some property which belongs to
-_all_ our true ideas without exception. But his own theory is a theory
-of what truth means. Apparently, therefore, he wishes to assert that
-not only many but _all_ our true ideas are or can be verified; that
-_all_ of them are useful. And it is, I think, pretty plain that this is
-_one_ of the things which he wishes to assert.
-
-Apparently, therefore, Professor James wishes to assert that _all_
-our true ideas are or can be verified--that _all_ are useful. And
-certainly this is not a truism like the proposition that _many_ of
-them are so. Even if this were all that he meant, it would be worth
-discussing. But even this, I think, is not all. The very first
-proposition in which he expresses his theory is the following. "True
-ideas," he says (p. 201) "are those that we can assimilate, validate,
-corroborate and verify. False ideas are those that we cannot." And
-what does this mean? Let us, for brevity's sake, substitute the word
-"verify" alone for the four words which Professor James uses, as he
-himself subsequently seems to do. He asserts, then, that true ideas
-are _those which_ we can verify. And plainly he does not mean by this
-merely that _some_ of the ideas which we can verify are true, while
-plenty of others, which we can verify, are not true. The plain meaning
-of his words is that _all_ the ideas which we can verify are true.
-No one would use them who did not mean this. Apparently, therefore,
-Professor James means to assert not merely that we can verify all our
-true ideas; but also that all the ideas, which we can verify, are true.
-And so, too, with utility or usefulness. He seems to mean not merely
-that all our true ideas are useful; but that all those which are useful
-are true. This would follow, for one thing, from the fact that he seems
-to use the words "verification" or "verifiability" and "usefulness" as
-if they came to the same thing. But, in this case too, he asserts it
-in words that have but one plain meaning. "The true" he says (p. 222)
-"is only the expedient in the way of our thinking." "The true" is _the_
-expedient: that is, _all_ expedient thinking is true. Or again: "An
-idea is 'true' so long as to believe it is profitable to our lives" (p.
-75). That is to say, _every_ idea, which is profitable to our lives,
-is, while it is so, true. These words certainly have a plain enough
-meaning. Apparently, therefore, Professor James means to assert not
-merely that all true ideas are useful, but also that all useful ideas
-are true.
-
-Professor James' words, then, do at least suggest that he wishes to
-assert all four of the following propositions. He wishes to assert, it
-would seem--
-
-(1) That we can verify all those of our ideas, which are true.
-
-(2) That all those among our ideas, which we can verify, are true.
-
-(3) That all our true ideas are useful.
-
-(4) That all those of our ideas, which are useful, are true.
-
-These four propositions are what I propose first to consider. He
-does mean to assert them, at least. Very likely he wishes to assert
-something more even than these. He does, in fact, suggest that he means
-to assert, in addition, that these properties of "verifiability" and
-"utility" are the _only_ properties (beside that of being properly
-_called_ "true") which belong to all our true ideas and to none but
-true ideas. But this obviously cannot be true, unless all these four
-propositions are true. And therefore we may as well consider them first.
-
-First, then, can we verify all our true ideas?
-
-I wish only to point out the plainest and most obvious reasons why I
-think it is doubtful whether we can.
-
-We are very often in doubt as to whether we did or did not do a certain
-thing in the past. We may have the idea that we did, and also the idea
-that we did not; and we may wish to find out which idea is the true
-one. Very often, indeed, I may believe very strongly, that I did do a
-certain thing; and somebody else, who has equally good reason to know,
-may believe equally strongly that I did not. For instance, I may have
-written a letter, and may believe that I used certain words in it.
-But my correspondent may believe that I did not. Can we always verify
-either of these ideas? Certainly sometimes we can. The letter may be
-produced, and prove that I did use the words in question. And I shall
-then have verified my idea. Or it may prove that I did not use them.
-And then we shall have verified my correspondent's idea. But, suppose
-the letter has been destroyed; suppose there is no copy of it, nor any
-trustworthy record of what was said in it; suppose there is no other
-witness as to what I said in it, beside myself and my correspondent?
-Can we then always verify which of our ideas is the true one? I think
-it is very doubtful whether we can _nearly_ always. Certainly we may
-often try to discover any possible means of verification, and be quite
-unable, for a time at least, to discover any. Such cases, in which we
-are unable, for a time at least, to verify either of two contradictory
-ideas, occur very commonly indeed. Let us take an even more trivial
-instance than the last. Bad whist-players often do not notice at all
-carefully which cards they have among the lower cards in a suit. At
-the end of a hand they cannot be certain whether they had or had not
-the seven of diamonds, or the five of spades. And, after the cards
-have been shuffled, a dispute will sometimes arise as to whether a
-particular player had the seven of diamonds or not. His partner may
-think that he had, and he himself may think that he had not. Both may
-be uncertain, and the memory of both, on such a point, may be well
-known to be untrustworthy. And, moreover, neither of the other players
-may be able to remember any better. Is it always possible to verify
-which of these ideas is the true one? Either the player did or did not
-have the seven of diamonds. This much is certain. One person thinks
-that he did, and another thinks he did not; and both, so soon as the
-question is raised, have before their minds both of these ideas--the
-idea that he did, and the idea that he did not. This also is certain.
-And it is certain that one or other of these two ideas is true. But can
-they always verify either of them? Sometimes, no doubt, they can, even
-after the cards have been shuffled. There may have been a fifth person
-present, overlooking the play, whose memory is perfectly trustworthy,
-and whose word may be taken as settling the point. Or the players may
-themselves be able, by recalling other incidents of play, to arrive at
-such a certainty as may be said to verify the one hypothesis or the
-other. But very often neither of these two things will occur. And, in
-such a case, is it always possible to verify the true idea? Perhaps,
-theoretically, it may be still possible. Theoretically, I suppose, the
-fact that one player, and not any of the other three, had the card in
-his hand, may have made some difference to the card, which _might_
-be discovered by some possible method of scientific investigation.
-Perhaps some such difference may remain even after the same card has
-been repeatedly used in many subsequent games. But suppose the same
-question arises again, a week after the original game was played. Did
-you, or did you not, last week have the seven of diamonds in that
-particular hand? The question has not been settled in the meantime;
-and now, perhaps, the original pack of cards has been destroyed. Is it
-still possible to verify either idea? Theoretically, I suppose, it may
-be still possible. But even this, I think, is very doubtful. And surely
-it is plain that, humanly and practically speaking, it will often have
-become quite impossible to verify either idea. In all probability it
-never will be possible for any man to verify whether I had the card
-or not on this particular occasion. No doubt we are here speaking of
-an idea, which some man _could have_ verified at one time. But the
-hypothesis I am considering is the hypothesis that we never have a true
-idea, which we _can_ not verify; that is to say, which we cannot verify
-_after_ the idea has occurred. And with regard to this hypothesis, it
-seems to me quite plain that _very often indeed_ we have two ideas, one
-or other of which is certainly true; and yet that, in all probability,
-it is no longer possible and never will be possible for any man to
-verify either.
-
-It seems to me, then, that we very often have true ideas which we
-cannot verify; true ideas, which, in all probability, no man ever will
-be able to verify. And, so far, I have given only comparatively trivial
-instances. But it is plain that, in the same sense, historians are very
-frequently occupied with true ideas, which it is doubtful whether they
-can verify. One historian thinks that a certain event took place, and
-another that it did not; and both may admit that they cannot verify
-their idea. Subsequent historians may, no doubt, sometimes be able to
-verify one or the other. New evidence may be discovered or men may
-learn to make a better use of evidence already in existence. But is
-it certain that this will _always_ happen? Is it certain that _every_
-question, about which historians have doubted, will some day be able to
-be settled by verification of one or the other hypothesis? Surely the
-probability is that in the case of an immense number of events, with
-regard to which we should like to know whether they happened or not, it
-never will be possible for any man to verify either the one hypothesis
-or the other. Yet it may be certain that either the events in question
-did happen or did not. Here, therefore, again, we have a large number
-of ideas--cases where many men doubt whether a thing did happen or
-did not, and have therefore the idea both of its having happened and
-of its not having happened--with regard to which it is certain that
-half of them are true, but where it seems highly doubtful whether
-any single one of them will ever be able to be verified. No doubt it
-is just possible that men will some day be able to verify every one
-of them. But surely it is very doubtful whether they will. And the
-theory against which I am protesting is the positive assertion that
-we _can_ verify all our true ideas--that some one some day certainly
-will be able to verify every one of them. This theory, I urge, has all
-probability against it.
-
-And so far I have been dealing only with ideas with regard to what
-happened in the past. These seem to me to be the cases which offer
-the most numerous and most certain exceptions to the rule that we can
-verify our true ideas. With regard to particular past events, either
-in their own lives or in those of other people, men very frequently
-have ideas, which it seems highly improbable that any man will ever be
-able to verify. And yet it is certain that a great many of these ideas
-are true, because in a great many cases we have both the idea that the
-event did happen and also the idea that it did not, when it is certain
-that one or other of these ideas is true. And these ideas with regard
-to past events would by themselves be sufficient for my purpose. If, as
-seems certain, there are many true ideas with regard to the past, which
-it is highly improbable that anyone will ever be able to verify, then,
-obviously, there is nothing in a true idea which makes it certain that
-we can verify it. But it is, I think, certainly not only in the case
-of ideas, with regard to the past, that it is doubtful whether we can
-verify all the true ideas we have. In the case of many generalisations
-dealing not only with the past but with the future, it is, I think,
-obviously doubtful whether we shall ever be able to verify all those
-which are true; although here, perhaps, in most cases, the probability
-that we shall not is not so great. But is it quite certain, that in all
-cases where scientific men have considered hypotheses, one or other
-of which must be true, either will ever be verified? It seems to be
-obviously doubtful. Take, for instance, the question whether our actual
-space is Euclidean or not. This is a case where the alternative has
-been considered; and where it is certain that, whatever be meant by
-"our actual space," it either is Euclidean or is not. It has been held,
-too, that the hypothesis that it is not Euclidean might, conceivably,
-be verified by observations. But it is doubtful whether it ever will
-be. And though it would be rash to say that no man ever will be able
-to verify either hypothesis; it is also rash to assert positively that
-we shall--that we certainly can verify the true hypotheses. There are,
-I believe, ever so many similar cases, where alternative hypotheses,
-one or other of which must be true, have occurred to men of science,
-and where yet it is very doubtful whether either ever will be verified.
-Or take, again, such ideas as the idea that there is a God, or the
-idea that we are immortal. Many men have had not only contradictory
-ideas, but contradictory beliefs, about these matters. And here we
-have cases where it is disputed whether these ideas have not actually
-been verified. But it seems to me doubtful whether they have been. And
-there is a view, which seems to me to deserve respect, that, in these
-matters, we never shall be able to verify the true hypothesis. Is it
-perfectly certain that this view is a false one? I do not say that it
-is true. I think it is quite possible that we shall some day be able to
-verify either the belief that we are immortal or the belief that we are
-not. But it seems to me doubtful whether we shall. And for this reason
-alone I should refuse to assent to the positive assertion that we
-certainly can verify all our true ideas.
-
-When, therefore, Professor James tells us that "True ideas are those
-that we can assimilate, validate, corroborate and verify. False ideas
-are those that we cannot," there seems to be a serious objection to
-part of what these words imply. They imply that no idea of ours is
-true, unless we can verify it. They imply, therefore, that whenever a
-man wonders whether or not he had the seven of diamonds in the third
-hand at whist last night, neither of these ideas is true unless he can
-verify it. But it seems certain that in this, and an immense number of
-similar cases, one or other of the two ideas is true. Either, he did
-have the card in his hand or he did not. If anything is a fact, this
-is one. Either, therefore, Professor James' words imply the denial of
-this obvious fact, or else he implies that in _all_ such cases we _can_
-verify one or other of the two ideas. But to this the objection is
-that, in any obvious sense of the words, it seems very doubtful whether
-we can. On the contrary it seems extremely probable that in a _very
-large_ number of such cases no man ever will be able to verify either
-of the two ideas. There is, therefore, a serious objection to what
-Professor James' words imply. Whether he himself really means to assert
-these things which his words imply I do not know. Perhaps he would
-admit that, in this sense, we probably cannot verify nearly all our
-true ideas. All that I have wished to make plain is that there is, at
-least, an objection to what he says, whether to what he means or not.
-There is ample reason why we should refuse assent to the statement that
-none of our ideas are true, except those which we can verify.
-
-But to another part of what he implies by the words quoted above, there
-is, I think, no serious objection. There is reason to object to the
-statement that we can verify all our true ideas; but to the statement
-that all ideas, which we can "assimilate, validate, corroborate and
-verify," are true, I see no serious objection. Here, I think, we might
-say simply that all ideas which we can verify are true. To this, which
-is the second of the four propositions, which I distinguished above
-(p. 35) as what Professor James seems to wish to assert, there is, I
-think, no serious objection, if we understand the word "verify" in
-its proper and natural sense. We may, no doubt, sometimes say that we
-have verified an idea or an hypothesis, when we have only obtained
-evidence which proves it to be probable, and does not prove it to be
-certain. And, if we use the word in this loose sense for incomplete
-verification, it is obviously the case that we may verify an idea
-which is not true. But it seems scarcely necessary to point this out.
-And where we really can _completely_ verify an idea or an hypothesis,
-there, undoubtedly, the idea which we can verify is always true. The
-very meaning of the word "verify" is to find evidence which does really
-prove an idea to be true; and where an idea can be really proved to be
-true, it is of course, always true.
-
-This is all I wish to say about Professor James' first two
-propositions, namely:--
-
-(1) That no ideas of ours are true, except those which we can verify.
-
-(2) That all those ideas, which we can verify, are true.
-
-The first seems to me extremely doubtful--in fact, almost certainly
-untrue; the second on the other hand, certainly true, in its most
-obvious meaning. And I shall say no more about them. The fact is, I
-doubt whether either of them expresses anything which Professor James
-is really anxious to assert. I have mentioned them, only because his
-words do, in fact, imply them and because he gives those words a very
-prominent place. But I have already had occasion to notice that he
-seems to speak as if to say that we can verify an idea came to the same
-thing as saying it is useful to us. And it is the connection of truth
-with usefulness, not its connection with "verification," that he is, I
-think, really anxious to assert. He talks about "verification" only,
-I believe, because he thinks that what he says about it will support
-his main view that truth is what "works," is "useful," is "expedient,"
-"pays." It is this main view we have now to consider. We have to
-consider the two propositions:--
-
-(3) That all our true ideas are useful.
-
-(4) That all ideas, which are useful, are true.
-
-First, then: is it the case that all our true ideas are useful? Is it
-the case that none of our ideas are true, except those which are useful?
-
-I wish to introduce my discussion of this question by quoting a
-passage in which Professor James seems to me to say something which is
-indisputably true. Towards the end of Lecture VI, he attacks the view
-that truths "have an unconditional claim to be recognised." And in the
-course of his attack the following passage occurs:--
-
-"Must I," he says, "constantly be repeating the truth 'twice two are
-four' because of its eternal claim on recognition? or is it sometimes
-irrelevant? Must my thoughts dwell night and day on my personal sins
-and blemishes, because I truly have them?--or may I sink and ignore
-them in order to be a decent social unit, and not a mass of morbid
-melancholy and apology?"
-
-"It is quite evident," he goes on, "that our obligation to acknowledge
-truth, so far from being unconditional, is tremendously conditional.
-Truth with a big T, and in the singular, claims abstractly to be
-recognised, of course; but concrete truths in the plural need be
-recognised only when their recognition is expedient." (pp. 231-232).
-
-What Professor James says in this passage seems to me so indisputably
-true as fully to justify the vigour of his language. It is as clear
-as anything can be that it would not be useful for any man's mind to
-be _always_ occupied with the true idea that he had certain faults
-and blemishes; or to be _always_ occupied with the idea that twice
-two are four. It is clear, that is, that, if there are times at which
-a particular true idea is useful, there certainly are other times
-at which it would _not_ be useful, but positively in the way. This
-is plainly true of nearly all, if not quite all, our true ideas. It
-is plainly true with regard to nearly all of them that, even if the
-occasions on which their occurrence is useful are many, the occasions
-on which their occurrence would _not_ be useful are many more. With
-regard to most of them it is true that on most occasions they will, as
-Professor James says elsewhere, "be practically irrelevant, and had
-better remain latent."
-
-It is, then, quite clear that almost any particular true idea _would_
-not be useful at all times and that the times at which it would _not_
-be useful, are many more than the times at which it would. And what
-we have to consider is whether, in just this sense in which it is so
-clear that most true ideas would _not_ be useful at most times, it is
-nevertheless true that all our true ideas _are_ useful. Is this so? Are
-all our true ideas useful?
-
-Professor James, we see, has just told us that there are ever so many
-occasions upon which a particular true idea, such as that 2 + 2= 4,
-_would_ not be useful--when, on the contrary, it would be positively in
-the way. And this seems to be indisputably clear. But is not something
-else almost equally clear? Is it not almost equally clear that cases,
-such as he says _would_ not be useful, do sometimes actually happen? Is
-it not clear that we do actually sometimes have true ideas, at times
-when they are not useful, but are positively in the way? It seems
-to me to be perfectly clear that this does sometimes occur; and not
-sometimes only, but very commonly. The cases in which true ideas occur
-at times when they are useful, are, perhaps, far _more_ numerous; but,
-if we look at men in general, the cases in which true ideas occur, at
-times when they are not useful, do surely make up positively a very
-large number. Is it not the case that men do sometimes dwell on their
-faults and blemishes, when it is _not_ useful for them to do so? when
-they would much better be thinking of something else? Is it not the
-case that they are often unable to get their minds away from a true
-idea, when it is harmful for them to dwell on it? Still more commonly,
-does it not happen that they waste their time in acquiring pieces of
-information which are no use to them, though perhaps very useful to
-other people? All this seems to me to be undeniable--just as undeniable
-as what Professor James himself has said; and, if this is so, then, in
-one sense of the words, it is plainly not true that all, or nearly all,
-our true ideas are useful. _In one sense of the words._ For if I have
-the idea that 2+2=4 on one day, and then have it again the next, I may
-certainly, in a sense, call the idea I have on one day _one_ idea, and
-the idea I have on the next _another._ I have had two ideas that 2+2=4,
-and not one only. Or if two different persons both think that I have
-faults, there have been two ideas of this truth and not one only. And
-in asking whether _all_ our true ideas are useful, we might mean to ask
-whether _both_ of these ideas were useful and not merely whether one of
-them was. In this sense, then, it is plainly not true that _all_ our
-true ideas are useful. It is not true, that is, that every true idea is
-useful, _whenever it occurs._
-
-In one sense, then, it is plainly not true that all our true ideas
-are useful. But there still remains a perfectly legitimate sense in
-which it might be true. It might be meant, that is, not that every
-_occurrence_ of a true idea is useful, but that every true idea is
-useful on at least one of the occasions when it occurs. But is this,
-in fact, the case? It seems to me almost as plain that it is not, as
-that the other was not. We have seen that true ideas are not by any
-means always useful on every occasion when they occur; though most
-that do occur many times over and to many different people are, no
-doubt, useful on some of these occasions. But there seems to be an
-immense number of true ideas, which occur but once and to one person,
-and never again either to him or to anyone else. I may, for instance,
-idly count the number of dots on the back of a card, and arrive at a
-true idea of their number; and yet, perhaps, I may never think of their
-number again, nor anybody else ever know it. We are all, it seems to
-me, constantly noticing trivial details, and getting true ideas about
-them, of which we never think again, and which nobody else ever gets.
-And is it quite certain that all these true ideas are useful? It seems
-to me perfectly clear, on the contrary, that many of them are not. Just
-as it is clear that many men sometimes waste their time in acquiring
-information which is useful to others but not to them, surely it is
-clear that they sometimes waste their time in acquiring information,
-which is useful to nobody at all, because nobody else ever acquires
-it. I do not say that it is never useful idly to count the number
-of dots on the back of a card. Plainly it is sometimes useful to be
-idle, and one idle employment may often be as good as another. But
-surely it is true that men _sometimes_ do these things when their time
-would have been better employed otherwise? Surely they sometimes get
-into the habit of attending to trivial truths, which it is as great a
-disadvantage that they should attend to as that they should constantly
-be thinking of their own thoughts and blemishes? I cannot see my way
-to deny that this is so; and therefore I cannot see my way to assert
-positively that all our true ideas are useful, even so much as on _one
-occasion._ It seems to me that there are many true ideas which occur
-but once, and which are not useful when they do occur. And if this be
-so, then it is plainly not true that _all_ our true ideas are useful in
-any sense at all.
-
-These seem to me to be the most obvious objections to the assertion
-that all our true ideas are useful. It is clear, we saw to begin with,
-that true ideas, which are sometimes useful, _would_ not be useful at
-all times. And it seemed almost equally clear that they do sometimes
-occur at times when they are not useful. Our true ideas, therefore
-are not useful at every time when they actually occur. But in just
-this sense in which it is so clear that true ideas which are sometimes
-useful, nevertheless sometimes occur at times when they are not, it
-seems pretty plain that true ideas, which occur but once, are, some of
-them, not useful. If an idea, which is sometimes useful, does sometimes
-occur to a man at a time when it is irrelevant and in the way, why
-should not an idea, which occurs but once, occur at a time when it is
-irrelevant and in the way? It seems hardly possible to doubt that this
-does sometimes happen. But, if this be so, then it is not true that all
-our true ideas are useful, even so much as on one occasion. It is not
-true that none of our ideas are true, except those which are useful.
-
-But now, what are we to say of the converse proposition--the
-proposition that all those among our ideas, which are useful, are true?
-That we never have a useful idea, which is not true?
-
-I confess the matter seems to me equally clear here. The assertion
-should mean that every idea, which is at any time useful, is true;
-that no idea, which is not true, is ever useful. And it seems hardly
-possible to doubt that this assertion is false. It Is, in the first
-place, commonly held that it is sometimes right positively to deceive
-another person. In war, for instance it is held that one army is
-justified in trying to give the enemy a false idea as to where it
-will be at a given time. Such a false idea is sometimes given, and it
-seems to me quite clear that it is sometimes useful. In such a case,
-no doubt, it may be said that the false idea is useful to the party
-who have given it, but not useful to those who actually believe in it.
-And the question whether it is useful on the whole will depend upon
-the question which side it is desirable should win. But it seems to me
-unquestionable that the false idea is sometimes useful on the whole.
-Take, for instance, the case of a party of savages, who wish to make a
-night attack and massacre a party of Europeans but are deceived as to
-the position in which the Europeans are encamped. It is surely plain
-that such a false idea is sometimes useful on the whole. But quite
-apart from the question whether deception is ever justifiable, it is
-not very difficult to think of cases where a false idea, not produced
-by deception, is plainly useful--and useful, not merely on the whole,
-but to the person who has it as well. A man often thinks that his watch
-is right, when, in fact, it is slow, and his false idea may cause
-him to miss his train. And in such cases, no doubt, his false idea
-is _generally_ disadvantageous. But, in a particular case, the train
-which he would have caught but for his false idea may be destroyed
-in a railway accident, or something may suddenly occur at home, which
-renders it much more useful that he should be there, than it would
-have been for him to catch his train. Do such cases never occur? And
-is not the false idea sometimes useful in some of them? It seems to me
-perfectly clear that it is _sometimes_ useful for a man to think his
-watch is right when it is wrong. And such instances would be sufficient
-to show that it is not the case that every idea of ours, which is ever
-useful, is a true idea. But let us take cases, not, like these, of an
-idea, which occurs but a few times or to one man, but of ideas which
-have occurred to many men at many times. It seems to me very difficult
-to be sure that the belief in an eternal hell has not been often useful
-to many men, and yet it may be doubted whether this idea is true. And
-so, too, with the belief in a happy life after death, or the belief in
-the existence of a God; it is, I think, very difficult to be sure that
-these beliefs have not been, and are not still, often useful, and yet
-it may be doubted whether they are true. These beliefs, of course, are
-matters of controversy. Some men believe that they are both useful and
-true; and others, again, that they are neither. And I do not think we
-are justified in giving them as certain instances of beliefs, which
-are not true, but, nevertheless, have often been useful. But there is
-a view that these beliefs, though not true, have, nevertheless, been
-often useful; and this view seems to me to deserve respect, especially
-since, as we have seen, some beliefs, which are not true, certainly
-are sometimes useful. Are we justified in asserting positively that it
-is false? Is it perfectly certain that beliefs, which have often been
-useful to many men, may not, nevertheless, be untrue? Is it perfectly
-certain that beliefs, which are not true, have not often been useful
-to many men? The certainty may at least be doubted, and in any case it
-seems certain that some beliefs, which are not true, are, nevertheless,
-sometimes useful.
-
-For these reasons, it seems to me almost certain that _both_ the
-assertions which I have been considering are false. It is almost
-certainly false that all our true ideas are useful, and almost
-certainly false that all our useful ideas are true. But I have only
-urged what seem to me to be the most obvious objections to these two
-statements; I have not tried to sustain these objections by elaborate
-arguments, and I have omitted elaborate argument, partly because of a
-reason which I now wish to state. The fact is, I am not at all sure
-that Professor James would not himself admit that both these statements
-are false. I think it is quite possible he would admit that they are,
-and would say that he never meant either to assert or to imply the
-contrary. He complains that some of the critics of Pragmatism are
-unwilling to read any but the silliest of possible meanings into the
-statements of Pragmatism; and, perhaps, he would say that this is the
-case here. I certainly hope that he would. I certainly hope he would
-say that these statements, to which I have objected, are silly. For
-it does seem to me intensely silly to say that we can verify all our
-true ideas; intensely silly to say that every one of our true ideas
-is at some time useful; intensely silly to say that every idea which
-is ever useful is true. I hope Professor James would admit all these
-things to be silly, for if he and other Pragmatists would admit even
-as much as this, I think a good deal would be gained. But it by no
-means follows that because a philosopher would admit a view to be
-silly, when it is definitely put before him, he has not himself been
-constantly holding and implying that very view. He may quite sincerely
-protest that he never has either held or implied it, and yet he may
-all the time have been not only implying it but holding it--vaguely,
-perhaps, but really. A man may assure us, quite sincerely that he is
-not angry; he may really think that he is not, and yet we may be able
-to judge quite certainly from what he says that he really is angry.
-He may assure us quite sincerely that he never meant anything to our
-discredit by what he said--that he was not thinking of anything in the
-least discreditable to us, and yet it may be plain from his words that
-he was actually condemning us very severely. And so with a philosopher.
-He may protest, quite angrily, when a view is put before him in other
-words than his own, that he never either meant or implied any such
-thing, and yet it may be possible to judge, from what he says, that
-this very view, wrapped up in other words, was not only held by him but
-was precisely what made his thoughts seem to him to be interesting and
-important. Certainly he may quite often imply a given thing which, at
-another time, he denies. Unless it were possible for a philosopher to
-do this, there would be very little inconsistency in philosophy, and
-surely everyone will admit that _other_ philosophers are very often
-inconsistent. And so in this case, even if Professor James would say
-that he never meant to imply the things to which I have been objecting,
-yet in the case of two of these things, I cannot help thinking that
-he does actually imply them--nay more, that he is frequently actually
-vaguely thinking of them, and that his theory of truth owes its
-interest, in very great part, to the fact that he is implying them.
-In the case of the two views that all our true ideas are useful, and
-that all our useful ideas are true, I think this is so, and I do not
-mean merely that his _words_ imply them. A man's _words_ may often
-imply a thing, when he himself is in no way, however vaguely, thinking
-either of that thing or of anything which implies it; he may simply
-have expressed himself unfortunately. But in the case of the two views
-that all our true ideas are useful, and all our useful ideas true, I do
-not think this is so with Professor James. I think that his thoughts
-seem interesting to him and others, largely because he is thinking,
-not merely of words, but of things which imply these two views, in the
-very form in which I have objected to them. And I wish now to give some
-reasons for thinking this.
-
-Professor James certainly wishes to assert that there is _some_
-connection between truth and utility. And the connection which I have
-suggested that he has vaguely before his mind is this: that every true
-idea is, at some time or other, useful, and conversely that every idea,
-which is ever useful, is true. And I have urged that-there are obvious
-objections to both these views. But now, supposing Professor James does
-not mean to assert either of these two things, what else can he mean to
-assert? What else can he mean, that would account for the interest and
-importance he seems to attach to his assertion of connection between
-truth and utility? Let us consider the alternatives.
-
-And, first of all, he might mean that _most_ of our true ideas are
-useful, and _most_ of our useful ideas true. He might mean that most
-of our true ideas are useful at some time or other; and even that most
-of them are useful, whenever they actually occur. And he might mean,
-moreover, that if we consider the whole range of ideas, which are
-useful to us, we shall find that by far the greater number of them are
-true ones; that true ideas are far more often useful to us, than those
-which are not true. And all this, I think, may be readily admitted to
-be true. If this were all that he meant, I do not think that anyone
-would be very anxious to dispute it. But is it conceivable that this
-is _all_ that he means? Is it conceivable that he should have been so
-anxious to insist upon this admitted commonplace? Is it conceivable
-that he should have been offering us this, and nothing more, as a
-theory of what truth means, and a theory worth making a fuss about, and
-being proud of? It seems to me quite inconceivable that this should
-have been _all_ that he meant. He must have had something more than
-this in his mind. But, if so, what more?
-
-In the passage which I quoted at the beginning, as showing that he does
-mean to assert that _all_ useful ideas are true, he immediately goes on
-to assert a qualification, which must now be noticed. "The true," he
-says, "is only the expedient in the way of our thinking" (p. 222). But
-he immediately adds: "Expedient in the long run, and on the whole, of
-course; for what meets expediently all the experience in sight won't
-necessarily meet all further experiences equally satisfactorily."
-Here, therefore, we have something else that he might mean. What is
-expedient _in the long run_, he means to say, is true. And what exactly
-does this mean? It seems to mean that an idea, which is not true, may
-be expedient _for some time_. That is to say, it may occur _once,_
-and be expedient then; and again, and be expedient then; and so on,
-over a considerable period. But (Professor James seems to prophesy)
-if it is not true, there will come a time, when it will cease to be
-expedient. If it occurs again and again over a long _enough_ period,
-there will at last, if it is not true, come a time when it will (for
-once at least) fail to be useful, and will (perhaps he means) _never_
-be useful again. This is, 1 think, what Professor James means in this
-passage. He means, I think, that though an idea, which is not true,
-may for some time be repeatedly expedient, there will at last come a
-time when its occurrence will, perhaps, _never_ be expedient again,
-certainly will, for a time, not be _generally_ expedient. And this
-a view which, it seems to me, may possibly be true. It is certainly
-possible that a time may come, in the far future, when ideas, which
-are not true, will hardly ever, if ever, be expedient. And this is all
-that Professor James seems here positively to mean. He seems to mean
-that, if you take time _enough_, false ideas will some day cease to be
-expedient. And it is very difficult to be sure that this is not true;
-since it is very difficult to prophesy as to what may happen in the far
-future. I am sure I hope that this prophesy will come true. But in the
-meantime (Professor James seems to admit) ideas, which are not true,
-may, for an indefinitely long time, again and again be expedient. And
-is it conceivable that a theory, which admits this, is _all_ that he
-has meant to assert? Is it conceivable that what interests him, in his
-theory of truth, is merely the belief that, some day or other, false
-ideas will cease to be expedient? "In the long run, _of course_," he
-says, as if this were what he had meant all along. But I think it is
-quite plain that this is _not_ all that he has meant. This may be one
-thing which he is anxious to assert, but it certainly does not explain
-the whole of his interest in his theory of truth.
-
-And, in fact, there is quite a different theory which he seems plainly
-to have in his mind in other places. When Professor James says, "in
-the long run, _of course_," he implies that ideas which are expedient
-only for a _short_ run, are very often not true. But in what he says
-elsewhere he asserts the very opposite of this. He says elsewhere that
-a belief is true "_so long as_ to believe it is profitable to our
-lives" (p. 75). That is to say, a belief will be true, _so long as_
-it is useful, even if it is _not_ useful in the long run! This is
-certainly quite a different theory; and, strictly speaking, it implies
-that an idea, which is useful even _on one occasion,_ will be true. But
-perhaps this is only a verbal implication. I think very likely that
-here Professor James was only thinking of ideas, which can be said _to
-have a run,_ though only a comparatively short one--of ideas, that is,
-which are expedient, not merely on one occasion, but _for some time._
-That is to say, the theory which he now suggests, is that ideas, which
-occur again and again, perhaps to one man only, perhaps to several
-different people, over some space of time are, if they are expedient on
-most occasions within that space of time, true. This is a view which he
-is, I think, really anxious to assert; and if it were true, it would, I
-think, be important. And it is difficult to find instances which show,
-with certainty, that it is false. I believe that it is false; but it
-is difficult to prove it, because, in the case of some ideas it is so
-difficult to be certain that they ever were useful, and in the case of
-others so difficult to be certain that they are not true. A belief such
-as I spoke of before--the belief in eternal hell--is an instance. I
-think this belief has been, for a long time, useful, and that yet it is
-false. But it is, perhaps, arguable that it never has been useful; and
-many people on the other hand, would still assert that it is true. It
-cannot, therefore, perhaps, fairly be used as an instance of a belief,
-which is certainly not true, and yet has for some time been useful. But
-whether this view that all beliefs, which are expedient for some time,
-are true, be true or false; can it be all that Professor James means to
-assert? Can it constitute the whole of what interests him in his theory
-of truth?
-
-I do not think it can. I think it is plain that he has in his mind
-something more than _any_ of these alternatives, or than all
-of them taken together. And I think so partly for the following
-reason. He speaks from the outset as if he intended to tell us what
-_distinguishes_ true ideas from those which are not true; to tell us,
-that is to say, not merely of some property which belongs to all our
-true ideas; nor yet merely of some property, which belongs to none
-but true ideas; but of some property which satisfies _both_ these
-requirements at once--which both belongs to all our true ideas, and
-_also_ belongs to none but true ones. Truth, he says to begin with,
-means the agreement of our ideas with reality; and he adds "as falsity
-their disagreement." And he explains that he is going to tell us what
-property it is that is meant by these words "agreement with reality."
-So again in the next passage which I quoted: "True ideas," he says "are
-those that we can assimilate, validate, corroborate and verify." But,
-he also adds, "False ideas are those that we cannot." And no one, I
-think, could possibly speak in this way, who had not in his head the
-intention of telling us what property it is which _distinguishes_ true
-ideas from those which are not true, and which, therefore, not only
-belongs to all ideas which are true, but also to none that are not.
-And that he has this idea in his head and thinks that the property of
-being "useful" or "paying" is such a property, is again clearly shown
-by a later passage. "Our account of truth," he says (p. 218) "is an
-account of truths in the plural, of processes of leading, realised _in
-rebus_, and having only this quality in common, that they _pay." Only_
-this quality in common! If this be so, the quality must obviously be
-one, which is _not_ shared by any ideas which are _not_ true; for,
-if true ideas have any quality in common at all, they must have at
-least one such quality, which is _not_ shared by those which are _not_
-true. Plainly, therefore, Professor James is intending to tell us of
-a property which belongs both to _all_ true ideas and _only_ to true
-ideas. And this property, he says, is that of "paying." But now let us
-suppose that he means by "paying," not "paying _once_ at least," but,
-according to the alternative he suggests, "paying in the long run" or
-"paying for some time." Can he possibly have supposed that these were
-properties which belonged _both_ to all true ideas _and also_ to none
-but true ones? They may, perhaps, be properties which belong to _none
-but_ true ones. I doubt, as I have said, whether the latter does; but
-still it is difficult to prove the opposite. But even if we granted
-that they belong to _none but_ true ones, surely it is only too obvious
-that they do _not_ fulfil the other requirement--that they do _not_
-belong to nearly all true ones. Can anyone suppose that _all_ our true
-ideas pay "in the long run" or repeatedly for some time? Surely it is
-plain that an enormous number do not for the simple reason that an
-enormous number of them _have no run at all,_ either long or short,
-but occur but once, and never recur. I believe truly that a certain
-book is on a particular shelf about 10.15 p.m. on December 21st, 1907;
-and this true belief serves me well and helps me to find it But the
-belief that that book is there at that particular time occurs to no one
-else, and never again to me. Surely there are thousands of useful true
-beliefs which, like this, are useful but once, and never occur again;
-and it would, therefore, be preposterous to say that every true idea is
-useful "in the long run" or repeatedly for some time. If, therefore,
-we supposed Professor James to mean that "paying in the long run" or
-"paying repeatedly over a considerable period" were properties which
-belonged to all true ideas and to none but true ones, we should be
-supposing him to mean something still more monstrous than if we suppose
-him to mean that "paying at least once" was such a property.
-
-To sum up then:
-
-I think there is no doubt that Professor James' interest in "the
-pragmatist theory of truth" is largely due to the fact that he thinks
-it tells us what distinguishes true ideas from those which are not
-true. And he thinks the distinction is that true ideas "pay," and false
-ones don't. The most natural interpretation of this view is: That every
-true idea pays at least once; and that every idea, which pays at least
-once, is true. These were the propositions I considered first, and I
-gave reasons for thinking that _both_ are false. But Professor James
-suggested elsewhere that what he means by "paying" is "paying in the
-long run." And here it seems possibly true that all ideas which "pay
-in the long run" are true; but it is certainly false that all our true
-ideas "pay in the long run," if by this be meant anything more than
-"pay at least once." Again, he suggested that what he meant by paying
-was "paying for some time." And here, again, even if it is true (and it
-seems very doubtful) that all ideas which pay for some time are true,
-it is certainly false that all our true ideas pay for some time, if by
-this be meant anything more than that they pay "at least once."
-
-This, I think, is the simplest and most obvious objection to Professor
-James' "instrumental" view of truth--the view that truth is what
-"works," "pays," is "useful." He seems certainly to have in his mind
-the idea that this theory tells us what distinguishes true ideas from
-false ones, and to be interested in it mainly for this reason. He has
-vaguely in his mind that he has told us of some property which belongs
-to all true ideas and to none but true ones; and that this property is
-that of "paying." And the objection is, that, whatever we understand
-by "paying," whether "paying at least once," or "paying in the long
-run," or "paying for some time," it seems certain that none of these
-properties will satisfy _both_ requirements. As regards the first, that
-of "paying at least once," it seems almost certain that it satisfies
-_neither:_ it is neither true that all our true ideas "pay at least
-once," nor yet that every idea which pays at least once, is true.
-On the contrary, many true ideas never pay at all; and many ideas,
-which are not true, do pay on at least one occasion. And as regards
-the others, "paying in the long run" and "paying for some time,"
-even if these do belong to none but true ideas (and even this seems
-very doubtful), they certainly neither of them satisfy the _other_
-requirement--neither of them belong to _all_ our true ideas. For, in
-order that either of them may belong to an idea, that idea must pay at
-least once; and, as we have seen, many true ideas do not pay even once,
-and cannot, therefore, pay either in the long run or for some time.
-And, moreover, many true ideas, which do pay on one occasion, seem to
-pay on one occasion and one only.
-
-And, if Professor James does not mean to assert any of these things,
-what is there left for him to mean? There is left in the first place,
-the theory that _most_ of our true ideas do pay; and that _most_ of the
-ideas which pay are true. This seems to me to be true, and, indeed, to
-be all that is certainly true in what he says. But is it conceivable
-that this is all he has meant? Obviously, these assertions tell us
-of no property at all which belongs to all true ideas, and to none
-but true ones; and, moreover, it seems impossible that he should have
-been so anxious to assert this generally admitted commonplace. What a
-very different complexion his whole discussion would have worn, had he
-merely asserted this--this quite clearly, and nothing but this, while
-admitting openly that many true ideas do not pay, and that many, which
-do pay, are not true!
-
-And, besides this commonplace, there is only left for him to mean two
-one-sided and doubtful assertions to the effect that certain properties
-belong to none but true ideas. There is the assertion that all ideas
-which pay in the long run are true, and the assertion that all ideas
-which pay for some considerable time are true. And as to the first, it
-_may_ be true; but it may also be doubted, and Professor James gives us
-no reason at all for thinking that it is true. Assuming that religious
-ideas have been useful in the past, is it quite certain that they may
-not permanently continue to be useful, even though they are false?
-That, in short, even though they are not true, they nevertheless will
-be useful, not only for a time, but in the long run? And as for the
-assertion that all ideas, which pay for a considerable time, are true,
-this is obviously more doubtful still. Whether certain religious ideas
-will or will not be useful in the long run, it seems difficult to doubt
-that many of them have been useful for a considerable time. And why
-should we be told dogmatically that all of these are true? This, it
-seems to me, is by far the most interesting assertion, which is left
-for Professor James to make, when we have rejected the theory that the
-property of being useful belongs to _all_ true ideas, as well as to
-none but true ones. But he has given no reason for asserting it. He
-seems, in fact, to base it merely upon the general untenable theory,
-that utility belongs to _all_ true ideas, and to none but true ones;
-that this is what truth means.
-
-These, then, seem to me the plainest and most obvious objections to
-what Professor James says about the connection between truth and
-utility. And there are only two further points, in what he says under
-this head, that I wish to notice.
-
-In the first place, we have hitherto been considering only whether it
-is true, as a matter of empirical fact, that all our true ideas are
-useful, and those which are not true, never. Professor James seems,
-at least, to mean that, _as a matter of fact,_ this is so; and I have
-only urged hitherto that _as a matter of fact_, it is not so. But as we
-have seen, he also asserts something more than this--he also asserts
-that this property of utility is the _only_ one which belongs to all
-our true ideas. And this further assertion cannot possibly be true, if,
-as I have urged, there are many true ideas which do not possess this
-property; or if, as I have urged, many ideas, which do possess it, are
-nevertheless not true. The objections already considered are, then,
-sufficient to overthrow this further assertion also. If there are any
-true ideas, which are not useful, or if any, which are useful, are not
-true, it cannot be the case that utility is the _only_ property which
-true ideas have in common. There must be some property, other than
-utility, which is common to all true ideas; and a correct theory as to
-what property it is that does belong to all true ideas, and to none but
-true ones, is still to seek. The empirical objections, hitherto given,
-are then sufficient objections to this further assertion also; but they
-are not the only objections to it. There is another and still more
-serious objection to the assertion that utility is the _only_ property
-which all true ideas have in common. For this assertion does not
-_merely_ imply that, as a matter of fact, all our true ideas and none
-but true ideas are useful. It does, indeed, imply this; and therefore
-the fact that these empirical assertions are not true is sufficient
-to refute it. But it also implies something more. If utility were the
-_only_ property which all true ideas had in common, it would follow
-not merely that all true ideas are useful, but also that any idea,
-which was useful, _would_ be true _no matter what other properties
-it might have or might fail to have._ There can, I think, be no doubt
-that Professor James does frequently speak as if this were the case;
-and there is an independent and still more serious objection to this
-implication. Even if it were true (as it is not) that all our true
-ideas and none but true ideas are, as a matter of fact, useful, we
-should still have a strong reason to object to the statement that any
-idea, which was useful, _would_ be true. For it implies that if such an
-idea as mine, that Professor James exists, and has certain thoughts,
-_were_ useful, this idea would be true, _even if_ no such person as
-Professor James ever did exist. It implies that, if the idea that I had
-the seven of diamonds in my hand at cards last night, _were_ useful,
-this idea would be true, even if, in fact, I did not have that card
-in my hand. And we can, I think, see quite plainly that this is not
-the case. With regard to some kinds of ideas, at all events--ideas
-with regard to the existence of other people, or with regard to past
-experiences of our own--it seems quite plain that they would not be
-true, unless they "agreed with reality" in some other sense than that
-which Professor James declares to be the only one in which true ideas
-must agree with it. Even if my idea that Professor James exists were to
-"agree with reality," in the sense that, owing to it, I handled _other_
-realities better than I should have done without it, it would, I think,
-plainly not be true, unless Professor James really did exist--unless
-_he_ were a reality. And this, I think, is one of the two most serious
-objections to what he seems to hold about the connection of truth with
-utility. He seems to hold that any idea, which was useful, _would_ be
-true, _no matter what other properties it might fail to have._ And with
-regard to some ideas, at all events, it seems plain that they cannot be
-true, _unless_ they have the property that what they believe to exist,
-really does or did exist. Beliefs in the existence of other people
-might be useful to me, even if I alone existed; but, nevertheless, in
-such a case, they would not be true.
-
-And there is only one other point, in what Professor James says in
-connection with the "instrumental" view of truth, upon which I wish
-to remark. We have seen that he seems sometimes to hold that beliefs
-are true, _so long as_ they are "profitable to our lives." And this
-implies, as we have seen, the doubtful proposition than any belief
-which is useful for some length of time, is true. But this is not
-all that it implies. It also implies that beliefs are true _only_ so
-long as they are profitable. Nor does Professor James appear to mean
-by this that they _occur_, only so long as they are profitable. He
-seems to hold, on the contrary, that beliefs, which are profitable
-for some time, do sometimes finally occur at a time when they are not
-profitable. He implies, therefore, that a belief, which occurs at
-several different times, may be true at some of the times at which it
-occurs, and yet untrue at others. I think there is no doubt that this
-view is what he is sometimes thinking of. And this, we see, constitutes
-a quite new view as to the connection between truth and utility--a view
-quite different from any that we have hitherto considered. This view
-asserts not that every true idea is useful at some time, or in the long
-run, or for a considerable period; but that the truth of an idea may
-come and go, as its utility comes and goes. It admits that one and the
-same idea sometimes occurs at times when it is useful, and sometimes
-at times when it is not; but it maintains that this same idea is true,
-at those times when it is useful, and not true, at those when it is
-not. And the fact that Professor James seems to suggest this view,
-constitutes, I think, a second most serious objection to what he says
-about the connection of truth and utility. It seems so obvious that
-utility is a property which comes and goes--which belongs to a given
-idea at one time, and does not belong to it at another, that anyone who
-says that the true is the useful naturally seems not to be overlooking
-this obvious fact, but to be suggesting that truth is a property which
-comes and goes in the same way. It is, in this way I think, that the
-"instrumental" view of truth is connected with the view that truth is
-"mutable." Professor James does, I think, imply that truth is mutable
-in just this sense--namely, that one and the same idea may be true at
-some of the times at which it occurs, and not true at others, and this
-is the view which I have next to consider.
-
-
-(II)
-
-Professor James seems to hold, generally, that "truth" is mutable. And
-by this he seems sometimes to mean that an idea which, when it occurs
-at one time, is true, _may,_ when it occurs at another time, not be
-true. He seems to hold that one and the same idea _may_ be true at
-one time and false at another. That it _may_ be, for I do not suppose
-he means that all ideas do actually undergo this change from true to
-false. Many true ideas seem to occur but once, and, if so, they, at
-least, will not actually be true at one time and false at another,
-though, even with regard to these, perhaps Professor James means to
-maintain that they _might_ be false at another time, if they were to
-occur at it. But I am not sure that he even means to maintain this
-with regard to _all_ our true ideas. Perhaps he does not mean to say,
-with regard to _all_ of them, even that they _can_ change from true to
-false. He speaks, generally, indeed, as if truth were mutable; but,
-in one passage, he seems to insist that there is a certain class of
-true ideas, none of which are mutable in this respect. "_Relations
-among purely mental ideas,"_ he says (p. 209), "form another sphere
-where true and false beliefs obtain, and here the beliefs are absolute
-or unconditional. When they are true they bear the name either of
-definitions or of principles. It is either a principle or a definition
-that 1 and 1 make 2, that 2 and 1 make 3, and so on; that white differs
-less from grey than it does from black; that when the cause begins to
-act the effect also commences. Such propositions hold of all possible
-'ones,' of all conceivable 'whites,' 'greys,' and 'causes.' The objects
-here are mental objects. Their relations are perceptually obvious
-at a glance, and no sense-verification is necessary. Moreover, once
-true, always true, of those same mental objects. Truth here has an
-'eternal' character. If you can find a concrete thing anywhere that is
-'one' or 'white' or 'grey' or an 'effect,' then your principles will
-everlastingly apply to it." Professor James does seem here to hold
-that there are true ideas, which once true, are always true. Perhaps,
-then, he does not hold that _all_ true ideas are mutable. Perhaps he
-does not even hold that all true ideas, _except_ ideas of this kind,
-are so. But he does seem to hold at least that _many_ of our true ideas
-are mutable. And even this proposition seems to me to be disputable.
-It seems to me that there is a sense in which it is the case with
-_every_ true idea that, if once true, it is always true. That is to
-say, that every idea, which is true once, _would_ be true at any other
-time at which it were to occur; and that every idea which does occur
-more than once, if true once, _is_ true at every time at which it does
-occur. There seems to me, I say, to be _a sense_ in which this is so.
-And this seems to me to be the sense in which it is most commonly and
-most naturally maintained that all truths are "immutable." Professor
-James seems to mean to deny it, even in this sense. He seems to me
-constantly to speak as if there were _no_ sense in which _all_ truths
-are immutable. And I only wish to point out what seems to me to be the
-plainest and most obvious objection to such language.
-
-And, first of all, there is one doctrine, which he seems to connect
-with this of his that "truths are mutable," with regard to which I
-fully agree with him. He seems very anxious to insist that reality is
-mutable: that it does change, and that it is not irrational to hope
-that in the future it will be different from and much better than it
-is now. And this seems to me to be quite undeniable. It seems to me
-quite certain that I do have ideas at one time which I did not have
-at another; that change, therefore, does really occur. It seems to me
-quite certain that in the future many things will be different from
-what they are now; and I see no reason to think that they may not be
-much better. There is much misery in the world now; and I think it is
-quite possible that some day there will really be much less. This view
-that _reality_ is mutable, that _facts_ do change, that some things
-have properties at one time which they do not have at other times,
-seems to me certainly true. And so far, therefore, as Professor James
-merely means to assert this obvious fact, I have no objection to his
-view. Some philosophers, I think, have really implied the denial of
-this fact. All those who deny the reality of time do seem to me to
-imply that nothing really changes or can change--that, in fact, reality
-is wholly immutable. And so far as Professor James is merely protesting
-against this view, I should, therefore, agree with him.
-
-But I think it is quite plain that he does not mean _merely_ this,
-when he says that truth is mutable. No one would choose this way of
-expressing himself if he merely meant to say that _some_ things are
-mutable. Truth, Professor James has told us, is a property of certain
-of our ideas. And those of our ideas, which are true or false, are
-certainly only a part of the Universe. Other things in the Universe
-might, therefore, change, even if our ideas never changed in respect
-of this property. And our ideas themselves do undoubtedly change in
-some respects. A given idea exists in my mind at one moment and does
-not exist in it at another. At one moment it is in my mind and not in
-somebody else's, and at another in somebody else's and not in mine.
-I sometimes think of the truth that twice two are four when I am in
-one mood, and sometimes when I am in another. I sometimes think of it
-in connection with one set of ideas and sometimes in connection with
-another set. Ideas, then, are constantly changing in some respects.
-They come and go; and at one time they stand in a given relation to
-other things or ideas, to which at another time they do not stand in
-that relation. In this sense, any given idea may certainly have a
-property at one time which it has not got at another time. All this
-seems obvious; and all this cannot be admitted, without admitting that
-reality is mutable--that _some_ things change. But obviously it does
-not seem to follow from this that there is _no_ respect in which ideas
-are immutable. It does not seem to follow that because ideas, and other
-things, change some of their properties, they necessarily change that
-one which we are considering--namely, "truth." It does not follow that
-a given idea, which has the property of truth at one time, ever exists
-at any other time without having that property. And yet that this
-_does_ happen seems to be part of what is meant by saying that truth
-is mutable. Plainly, therefore, to say this is to say something quite
-different from saying that _some_ things are mutable. Even, therefore,
-if we admit that _some_ things are mutable, it is still open to
-consider whether truth is so. And this is what I want now to consider.
-Is it the case that an idea which exists at one time, and is true then,
-ever exists at any other time, without being true? Is it the case that
-any idea ever changes from true to false? That it has the property of
-being true on one of the occasions when it exists, and that it has
-_not_ this property, but that of being false instead, on some other
-occasion when it exists?
-
-In order to answer this question clearly, it is, I think, necessary to
-make still another distinction. It does certainly seem to be true, _in
-a sense_, that a given idea may be true on one occasion and false on
-another. We constantly speak as if there were cases in which a given
-thing was true on one occasion and false on another; and I think it
-cannot be denied that, when we so speak, we are often expressing in a
-perfectly proper and legitimate manner something which is undeniably
-true. It is true now, I might say, that I am in this room; but
-to-morrow this will not be true. It is true now that men are often
-very miserable; but perhaps in some future state of society this will
-not be true. These are perfectly natural forms of expression, and what
-they express is something which certainly may be true. And yet what
-they do apparently assert is that something or other, which is true
-at one time, will not, or _perhaps_ will not, be true at another. We
-constantly use such expressions, which imply that what is true at one
-time is not true at another; and it is certainly legitimate to use
-them. And hence, I think, we must admit that, _in a sense_, it is true
-that a thing may be true at one time which is not true at another; in
-that sense, namely, in which we use these expressions. And it is, I
-think, also plain that these things, which may be true at one time and
-false at another, may, _in a sense,_ be ideas. We might even say: The
-idea that I am in this room, is true now; but to-morrow it will not be
-true. We might say this without any strain on language. In any ordinary
-book--indeed, in any philosophical book, where the subject we are at
-present discussing was not being expressly discussed--such expressions
-do, I think, constantly occur. And we should pass them, without any
-objection. We should at once understand what they meant, and treat them
-as perfectly natural expressions of things undeniably true. We must,
-then, I think, admit that, _in a sense_, an idea may be true at one
-time, and false at another. The question is: In what sense? What is the
-truth for which these perfectly legitimate expressions stand?
-
-It seems to me that in all these cases, so far as we are not merely
-talking of _facts_, but of true _ideas_, that the "idea" which we truly
-say to be true at one time and false at another, is merely the idea
-of a _sentence_--that is, of certain _words._ And we do undoubtedly
-call _words_ "true." The words "I am at a meeting of the Aristotelian
-Society" are true, if I use them now; but if I use the same words
-to-morrow, they would not be true. The words "George III is king of
-England" were true in 1800, but they are not true now. That is to say,
-a given set of words may undoubtedly be true at one time, and false
-at another; and since we may have ideas of words as well as of other
-things, we may, in this sense, say the same of certain of our "ideas."
-We may say that some of our "ideas" (namely those of words) are true at
-one time and not true at another.
-
-But is it conceivable that Professor James _merely_ meant to assert
-that the same _words_ are sometimes true at one time and false at
-another? Can this be _all_ he means by saying that truth is mutable?
-I do not think it can possibly be so. No one, I think, in definitely
-discussing the mutability of truth, could say that true ideas were
-mutable, and yet mean (although he did not say so) that this
-proposition applied _solely_ to ideas of words. Professor James must, I
-think, have been sometimes thinking that _other_ ideas, and not merely
-ideas of words, do sometimes change from true to false. And this is the
-proposition which I am concerned to dispute. It seems to me that if we
-mean by an idea, not merely the idea of certain words, but the kind of
-idea which words express, it is very doubtful whether such an idea ever
-changes from true to false--whether any such idea is ever true at one
-time and false at another.
-
-And plainly, in the first place, the mere fact that the same set of
-words, as in the instances I have given, really are true at one time
-and false at another, does not afford any presumption that anything
-which they stand for is true at one time and false at another. For
-the same words may obviously be used in different senses at different
-times; and hence though the same words, which formerly expressed a
-truth, may cease to express one, that may be because they now express
-a _different_ idea, and not because the idea which they formerly
-expressed has ceased to be true. And that, in instances such as I have
-given, the words _do_ change their meaning according to the time at
-which they are uttered or thought of, is I think, evident. If I use now
-the words "I am in this room," these words certainly express (among
-other things) the idea that my being in this room is contemporary
-with my present use of the words; and if I were to use the same words
-to-morrow, they would express the idea that my being in this room
-to-morrow, was contemporary with the use of them _then._ And since my
-use of them then would not be the same fact as my use of them now,
-they would certainly then express a different idea from that which
-they express now. And in general, whenever we use the present tense
-in its primary sense, it seems to me plain that we do mean something
-different by it each time we use it. We always mean (among other
-things) to express the idea that a given event is contemporary with
-our actual use of it; and since our actual use of it on one occasion
-is always a different fact from our actual use of it on another, we
-express by it a different idea each time we use it. And similarly with
-the past and future tenses. If anybody had said in 1807 "Napoleon is
-dead," he would certainly have meant by these words something different
-from what I mean by them when I use them now. He would have meant that
-Napoleon's death occurred at a time previous to _his_ use of those
-words; and this would not have been true. But in this fact there is
-nothing to show that if he _had_ meant by them what I mean now, his
-idea would not have been as true then as mine is now. And so, if I say
-"It will rain to-morrow," these words have a different meaning to-day
-from what they would have if I used them to-morrow. What we mean by
-"to-morrow" is obviously a different day, when we use the word on one
-day, from what we mean by it when we use it on another. But in this
-there is nothing to show that if the idea, which I _now_ mean by "It
-will rain to-morrow," _were_ to occur again to-morrow, it would not be
-true then, if it is true now. All this is surely very obvious. But,
-if we take account of it, and if we concentrate our attention not on
-the words but on what is meant by them, is it so certain that what we
-mean by them on any one occasion ever changes from true to false? If
-there were to occur to me to-morrow the very same idea which I now
-express by the words "I am in this room," is it certain that this idea
-would not be as true then as it is now? It is perhaps true that the
-_whale_ of what I mean by such a phrase as this never does recur. But
-part of it does, and that a part which is true. Part of what I mean
-is Certainly identical with part of what I should mean to-morrow by
-saying "I _was_ in that room last night." And this part would be as
-true then, as it is now. And is there _any_ part, which, if it were to
-recur at any time, would _not_ then be true, though it Is true now? In
-the case of all ideas or parts of ideas, which ever do actually recur,
-can we find a single instance of one, which is plainly true at one of
-the times when it occurs, and yet not true at another? I cannot think
-of any such instance. And on the other hand this very proposition that
-any idea (other than mere words) which is true once, would be true at
-any time, seems to me to be one of those truths of which Professor
-James has spoken as having an "eternal," "absolute," "unconditional"
-character--as being "perceptually obvious at a glance" and needing
-"no sense-verification." Just as we know that, if a particular colour
-differs more from black than from grey at one time, the same colour
-would differ more from black than from grey at any time, so, it seems
-to me, we can see that, if a particular idea is true at one time, the
-same idea would be true at any time.
-
-It seems to me, then, that if we mean by an idea, not mere words, but
-the kind of idea which words express, any idea, which is true at one
-time when it occurs, _would_ be true at any time when it were to occur;
-and that this is so, even though it is an idea, which refers to facts
-which are mutable. My being in this room is a fact which is now, but
-which certainly has not been at every time and will not be at every
-time. And the words "I _am_ in this room," though they express a truth
-now, would not have expressed one if I had used them yesterday, and
-will not if I use them to-morrow. But if we consider the idea which
-these words _now_ express--namely, the idea of the connection of my
-being in this room with this particular time--it seems to me evident
-that anybody who had thought of that connection at any time in the
-past, would have been thinking truly, and that anybody who were to
-think of it at any time in the future would be thinking truly. This
-seems to me to be the sense in which truths are immutable--in which
-no idea can change from true to false. And I think Professor James
-means to deny of truths generally, if not of all truths, that they are
-immutable even in this sense. If he does not mean this there seems
-nothing left for him to mean, when he says that truths are mutable,
-except (1) that some _facts_ are mutable, and (2) that the same _words_
-may be true at one time and false at another. And it seems to me
-impossible that he could speak as he does, if he meant _nothing more_
-than these two things. I believe, therefore, that he is really thinking
-that ideas which have been once true (_ideas,_ and not merely words)
-do sometimes afterwards become false: that the very same idea is at
-one time true and at another false. But he certainly gives no instance
-which shows that this does ever occur. And how far does he mean his
-principle to carry him? Does he hold that this idea that Julius Caesar
-was murdered in the Senate-House, though true now, may, at some future
-time cease to be true, if it should be more profitable to the lives of
-future generations to believe that he died in his bed? Things like this
-are what his words seem to imply; and, even if he does hold that truths
-like this are _not_ mutable, he never tries to tell us to what kinds of
-truths he would limit mutability, nor how they differ from such as this.
-
-
-(III)
-
-Finally, there remains the view that "to an unascertainable extent our
-truths are man-made products." And the only point I want to make about
-this view may be put very briefly.
-
-It is noticeable that all the instances which Professor James gives
-of the ways in which, according to him, "our truths" are "made" are
-instances of ways in which our _beliefs_ come into existence. In
-many of these ways, it would seem, false beliefs sometimes come into
-existence as well as true ones; and I take it Professor James does
-not always wish to deny this. False beliefs, I think he would say,
-are just as much "man-made products" as true ones: it is sufficient
-for his purpose if true beliefs do come into existence in the ways he
-mentions. And the only point which seems to be illustrated by all these
-instances, is that in all of them the existence of a true belief does
-depend in some way or other upon the previous existence of something
-in some man's mind. They are all of them cases in which we may truly
-say: This man would not have had just that belief, had not some man
-previously had such and such experiences, or interests, or purposes.
-In some cases they are instances of ways in which the existence of a
-particular belief in a man depends upon _his own_ previous experiences
-or interests or volitions. But this does not seem to be the case
-in all. Professor James seems also anxious to illustrate the point
-that one man's beliefs often depend upon the previous experiences or
-interests or volitions of _other_ men. And, as I say, the only point
-which seems to be definitely illustrated in all cases is that the
-existence of a true belief does depend, _in some way or other,_ upon
-something which has previously existed in some man's mind. Almost
-any kind of dependence, it would seem, is sufficient to illustrate
-Professor James' point.
-
-And as regards this general thesis that almost all our beliefs, true as
-well as false, depend, in some way or other, upon what has previously
-been in some human mind, it will, I think, be readily admitted. It
-is a commonplace, which, so far as I know, hardly anyone would deny.
-If this is all that is to be meant by saying that our true beliefs
-are "man-made," it must, I think, be admitted that almost all, If not
-quite all, really are man-made. And this is all that Professor James'
-instances seem to me, in fact, to show.
-
-But is this all that Professor James means, when he says that _our
-truths_ are man-made? Is it conceivable that he only means to insist
-upon this undeniable, and generally admitted, commonplace? It seems to
-me quite plain that this is not all that he means. I think he certainly
-means to suggest that, from the fact that we "make" our true beliefs,
-something _else_ follows. And I think it is not hard to see one thing
-more which he does mean. I think he certainly means to suggest that we
-not only make our true beliefs, but also that we _make them true._ At
-least as much as this is certainly naturally suggested by his words.
-No one would persistently say that we make _our truths_, unless he
-meant, at least, not merely that we make our true beliefs, but also
-that we make them true--unless he meant not merely that the existence
-of our true beliefs, but also that their _truth_, depended upon human
-conditions. This, it seems to me, is one consequence which Professor
-James means us to draw from the commonplace that the _existence_ of our
-true beliefs depends upon human conditions. But does this consequence,
-in fact, follow from that commonplace? From the fact that we make our
-true beliefs, does it follow that we _make them true?_
-
-_In one sense,_ undoubtedly, even this does follow. If we say (as we
-may say) that no belief can be true, unless it exists, then it follows
-that, in a sense, the truth of a belief must always depend upon any
-conditions upon which its existence depends. If, therefore, the
-occurrence of a belief depends upon human conditions, so, too, must its
-truth. If the belief had never existed, it would never have been true;
-and therefore its truth must, in a sense, depend upon human conditions
-in exactly the same degree in which its existence depends upon them.
-This is obvious. But is this all that is meant? Is this all that would
-be suggested to us by telling us that we make our beliefs true?
-
-It is easy to see that it is not. I may have the belief that it will
-rain to-morrow. And I may have "made" myself have this belief. It may
-be the case that I should not have had it, but for peculiarities in my
-past experiences, in my interests and my volitions. It may be the case
-that I should not have had it, but for a deliberate attempt to consider
-the question whether it will rain or not. This may easily happen. And
-certainly this particular belief of mine would not have been true,
-unless it existed. Its truth, therefore, depends, in a sense, upon any
-conditions upon which its existence depends. And this belief may be
-true. It will be true, if It does rain to-morrow. But, in spite of all
-these reasons, would anyone think of saying that, in case it is true, I
-had _made_ it true? Would anyone say that I had had any hand _at all_
-in making it true? Plainly no one would. We should say that I had a
-hand in making it true, if and only If I had a hand in _making the rain
-fall._ In every case in which we believe in the existence of anything,
-past or future, we should say that we had helped to make the belief
-true, if and only if we had helped to cause the existence of the fact
-which, in that belief, we believed did exist or would exist. Surely
-this is plain. I may believe that the sun will rise to-morrow. And I
-may have had a hand in "making" this belief; certainly it often depends
-for its existence upon what has been previously in my mind. And if the
-sun does rise, my belief will have been true. I have, therefore, had
-a hand in making a true belief. But would anyone say that, therefore,
-I had a hand in _making this belief true_? Certainly no one would. No
-one would say that anything had contributed to make this belief true,
-except those conditions (whatever they may be) which contributed to
-making the sun actually rise.
-
-It is plain, then, that by "making a belief true," we mean something
-quite different from what Professor James means by "making" that
-belief. Conditions which have a hand in making a given true belief,
-may (it appears) have no hand at all in making it true; and conditions
-which have a hand in making it true may have no hand at all in making
-_it._ Certainly this is how we use the words. We should never say that
-we had made a belief true, merely because we had made the belief. But
-now, which of these two things does Professor James mean? Does he mean
-_merely_ the accepted commonplace that we make our true beliefs, in the
-sense that almost all of them depend for their existence on what has
-been previously in some human mind? Or does he mean also that we _make
-them true_--that their truth also depends on what has been previously
-in some human mind?
-
-I cannot help thinking that he has the latter, and not only the former
-in his mind. But, then, what does this involve? If his instances of
-"truth-making" are to be anything to the purpose, it should mean that,
-whenever I have a hand in causing one of my own beliefs, I always
-have to that extent a hand in making it true. That, therefore, I have
-a hand in actually making the sun rise, the wind blow, and the rain
-fall, whenever I cause my beliefs in these things. Nay, more, it
-should mean that, whenever I "make" a true belief about the past, I
-must have had a hand in making this true. And if so, then certainly I
-must have had a hand in causing the French Revolution, in causing my
-father's birth, in making Professor James write this book. Certainly
-he implies that some man or other must have helped in causing almost
-every event, in which any man ever truly believed. That it was we who
-made the planets revolve round the sun, who made the Alps rise, and
-the floor of the Pacific sink--all these things, and others like them,
-seem to be involved. And it is these consequences which seem to me to
-justify a doubt whether, in fact "our truths are to an unascertainable
-extent man-made." That some of our truths are man-made--indeed, a great
-many--I fully admit. We certainly do make some of our beliefs true.
-The Secretary probably had a belief that I should write this paper,
-and I have made his belief true by writing it. Men certainly have the
-power to alter the world to a certain extent; and, so far as they do
-this, they certainly "make true" any beliefs, which are beliefs in the
-occurrence of these alterations. But I can see no reason for supposing
-that they "make true" _nearly_ all those of their beliefs which are
-true. And certainly the only reason which Professor James seems to
-give for believing this--namely, that the _existence_ of almost all
-their beliefs depends on them--seems to be no reason for it at all. For
-unquestionably a man does not "make true" nearly every belief whose
-_existence_ depends on him; and if so, the question which of their
-beliefs and how many, men do "make true" must be settled by quite other
-considerations.
-
-In conclusion, I wish to sum up what seems to me to be the most
-important points about this "pragmatist theory of truth," as Professor
-James represents it. It seems to me that, in what he says about it, he
-has in his mind some things which are true and others which are false;
-and I wish to tabulate separately the principal ones which I take to be
-true, and the principal ones which I take to be false. The true ones
-seem to me to be these:--
-
-That _most_ of our true beliefs are useful to us; and that _most_ of
-the beliefs that are useful to us are true.
-
-That the world really does change in some respects; that facts exist at
-one time, which didn't and won't exist at others; and that hence the
-world may be better at some future time than it is now or has been in
-the past.
-
-
-That the very same words may be true at one time and false at
-another--that they may express a truth at one time and a falsehood at
-another.
-
-That the existence of most, if not all, of our beliefs, true as well as
-false, does depend upon previous events in our mental history; that we
-should never have had the particular beliefs we do have, had not our
-previous mental history been such as it was.
-
-That the truth, and not merely the existence, of _some_ of our beliefs,
-does depend upon us. That we really do make some alterations in the
-world, and that hence we do help to "make true" all those of our
-beliefs which are beliefs in the existence of these alterations.
-
-
-To all of these propositions I have no objection to offer. And they
-seem to me to be generally admitted commonplaces. A certain class of
-philosophers do, indeed, imply the denial of every one of them--namely,
-those philosophers who deny the reality of time. And I think that
-part of Professor James' object is to protest against the views of
-these philosophers. All of these propositions do constitute a protest
-against such views; and so far they might be all that Professor James
-meant to assert. But I do not think that anyone, fairly reading through
-what he says, could get the impression that these things, and nothing
-more, were what he had in his mind. What gives colour and interest to
-what he says, seems to be obviously something quite different. And, if
-we try to find out what exactly the chief things are which give his
-discussion its colour and interest, it seems to me we may distinguish
-that what he has in his mind, wrapped up in more or less ambiguous
-language, are the following propositions, to all of which I have tried
-to urge what seem to me the most obvious objections:--
-
-
-That utility is a property which distinguishes true beliefs from those
-which are not true; that, therefore, _all_ true beliefs are useful, and
-_all_ beliefs, which are useful, are true--by "utility" being sometimes
-meant "utility on at least one occasion," sometimes "utility in the
-long run," sometimes "utility for some length of time."
-
-That all beliefs which are useful for some length of time are true.
-
-That utility is the _only_ property which all true beliefs have in
-common: that, therefore, _if_ it were useful to me to believe in
-Professor James' existence, this belief _would_ be true, even if he
-didn't exist; and that, _if_ it were not useful to me to believe this,
-the belief _would_ be false, even if he did.
-
-That the beliefs, which we express by words, and not merely the words
-themselves, may be true at one time and _not_ true at another; and that
-this is a general rule, though perhaps there may be some exceptions.
-
-That whenever the _existence_ of a belief depends to some extent on
-us, then also the _truth_ of that belief depends to some extent on us;
-in the sense in which this implies, that, when the existence of my
-belief that a shower will fall depends upon me, then, if this belief
-is true, I must have had a hand in making the shower fall: that,
-therefore, men must have had a hand in making to exist almost every
-fact which they ever believe to exist.
-
-
-[1] _Pragmatism: A New Name for some Old Ways of Thinking: Popular
-Lectures on Philosophy._ By William James. Longmans, Green, and Co.,
-1907
-
-
-
-
-HUME'S PHILOSOPHY
-
-
-In both of his two books on the Human Understanding, Hume had, I think,
-one main general object. He tells us that it was his object to discover
-"the extent and force of human understanding," to give us "an exact
-analysis of its powers and capacity." And we may, I think, express
-what he meant by this in the following way. He plainly held (as we
-all do) that some men sometimes entertain opinions which they cannot
-know to be true. And he wished to point out what characteristics are
-possessed by those of our opinions which we _can_ know to be true, with
-a view of persuading us that any opinion which does _not_ possess any
-of these characteristics is of a kind which we _cannot_ know to be so.
-He thus tries to lay down certain rules to the effect that the _only_
-propositions which we can, any of us, know to be true are of certain
-definite kinds. It is in this sense, I think, that he tries to define
-the limits of human understanding.
-
-With this object he, first of all, divides all the propositions,
-which we can even so much as conceive, into two classes. They are
-all, he says, either propositions about "relations of ideas" or else
-about "matters of fact." By propositions about "relations of ideas"
-he means such propositions as that twice two are four, or that black
-differs from white; and it is, I think, easy enough to see, though
-by no means easy to define, what kind of propositions it is that
-he means to include in this division. They are, he says, the only
-kind of propositions with regard to which we can have "intuitive" or
-"demonstrative" certainty. But the vast majority of the propositions
-in which we believe and which interest us most, belong to the other
-division: they are propositions about "matters of fact." And these
-again he divides into two classes. So far as his words go, this latter
-division is between "matters of fact, beyond the present testimony of
-our senses, or the records of our memory," on the one hand, and matters
-of fact for which we _have_ the evidence of our memory or senses, on
-the other. But it is, I think, quite plain that these words do not
-represent quite accurately the division which he really means to make.
-He plainly intends to reckon along with facts for which we have the
-evidence of our _senses_ all facts for which we have the evidence
-of _direct observation_--such facts, for instance, as those which I
-observe when I observe that I am angry or afraid, and which cannot be
-strictly said to be apprehended by my _senses._ The division, then,
-which he really intends to make is (to put it quite strictly) into the
-two classes--(1) propositions which assert some matter of fact which I
-am (in the strictest sense) _observing_ at the moment, or which I have
-so observed in the past and now remember; and (2) propositions which
-assert any matter of fact which I am not now observing and never have
-observed, or, if I have, have quite forgotten.
-
-We have, then, the three classes--(1) propositions which assert
-"relations of ideas"; (2) propositions which assert "matters of fact"
-for which we have the evidence of direct observation or personal
-memory; (3) propositions which assert "matters of fact_"_ for which
-we have _not_ this evidence. And as regards propositions of the first
-two classes, Hume does not seem to doubt our capacity for knowledge.
-He does not doubt that we can know _some_ (though, of course, not
-_all)_ propositions about "relations of ideas" to be true; he never
-doubts, for instance, that we can know that twice two are four. And
-he generally assumes also that each of us can know the truth of
-_all_ propositions which merely assert some matter of fact which we
-ourselves are, in the strictest sense, directly observing, or which
-we have so observed and now remember. He does, indeed, in one place,
-suggest a doubt whether our memory is _ever_ to be implicitly trusted,
-but he generally assumes that it _always_ can. It is with regard to
-propositions of the third class that he is chiefly anxious to determine
-which of them (if any) we can know to be true and which not. In what
-cases can any man know any matter of fact which he himself has not
-directly observed? It is Hume's views on this question which form, I
-think, the main interest of his philosophy.
-
-He proposes, first of all, by way of answer to it, a rule, which may,
-I think, be expressed as follows: No man, he says, can ever know any
-matter of fact, which he has not himself observed, unless he can know
-that it is connected by "the relation of cause and effect," with some
-fact which he _has_ observed. And no man can ever know that any two
-facts are connected by this relation, except by the help of his own
-past _experience._ In other words, if I am to know any fact, A, which
-I have not myself observed, my past experience must give me some
-foundation for the belief that A is causally connected with some fact,
-B, which I have observed. And the only kind of past experience which
-can give me any foundation for such a belief is, Hume seems to say,
-as follows: I must, he says, have found _facts like_ A "constantly
-conjoined" in the past with _facts like_ B. This is what he _says;_
-but we must not, I think, press his words too strictly. I may, for
-instance, know that A is _probably_ a fact, even where the conjunction
-of facts like it with facts like B has not been quite constant. Or
-instead of observing facts like A conjoined with facts like B, I may
-have observed a whole series of conjunctions--for instance, between A
-and C, C and D, D and E, and E and B; and such a series, however long,
-will do quite as well to establish a causal connection between A and B,
-as if I had directly observed conjunctions between A and B themselves.
-Such modifications as this, Hume would, I think, certainly allow. But,
-allowing for them, his principle is, I think, quite clear. I can, he
-holds, never know any fact whatever, which I have not myself observed,
-unless I have observed similar facts in the past and have observed that
-they were "conjoined" (directly or indirectly) with facts similar to
-some fact which I do now observe or remember. In this sense, he holds,
-_all_ our knowledge of facts, beyond the reach of our own observation,
-is founded on _experience._
-
-This is Hume's primary principle. But what consequences does he
-think will follow from it, as to the kind of facts, beyond our own
-observation, which we can know? We may, I think, distinguish three
-entirely different views as to its consequences, which he suggests in
-different parts of his work.
-
-In the first place, where he is specially engaged in explaining this
-primary principle, he certainly seems to suppose that all propositions
-of the kind, which we assume most universally in everyday life, may be
-founded on experience in the sense required. He supposes that we have
-this foundation in experience for such beliefs as that "a stone will
-fall, or fire burn"; that Julius Caesar was murdered; that the sun will
-rise to-morrow; that all men are mortal He speaks as if experience did
-not merely render such beliefs probable, but actually _proved_ them
-to be true. The "arguments from experience" in their favour are, he
-says, such as "leave no room for doubt or opposition." The only kinds
-of belief, which he definitely mentions as _not_ founded on experience,
-are "popular superstitions" on the one hand, and certain religious and
-philosophical beliefs, on the other. He seems to suppose that a few (a
-very few) religious beliefs may, perhaps, be founded on experience.
-But as regards most of the specific doctrines of Christianity, for
-example, he seems to be clear that they are not so founded. The belief
-in miracles is not founded on experience; nor is the philosophical
-belief that every event is caused by the direct volition of the Deity.
-In short, it would seem, that in this doctrine that our knowledge of
-unobserved facts is confined to such as are "founded on experience,"
-he means to draw the line very much where it is drawn by the familiar
-doctrine which is called "Agnosticism." We can know such facts as
-are asserted in books on "history, geography or astronomy," or on
-"politics, physics and chemistry," because such assertions may be
-"founded on experience"; but we cannot know the greater part of the
-facts asserted in books "of divinity or school metaphysics," because
-such assertions have no foundation in experience.
-
-This, I think, was clearly one of Hume's views. He meant to fix the
-limits of our knowledge at a point which would _exclude_ most religious
-propositions and a great many philosophical ones, as incapable of being
-known; but which would _include_ all the other kinds of propositions,
-which are most universally accepted by common-sense, as capable of
-being known. And he thought that, so far as matters of fact beyond the
-reach of our personal observation are concerned, this point coincided
-with that at which the possibility of "foundation on experience"
-ceases.
-
-But, if we turn to another part of his work, we find a very different
-view suggested. In a quite distinct section of both his books, he
-investigates the beliefs which we entertain concerning the existence
-of "external objects." And he distinguishes two different kinds of
-belief which may be held on this subject. "Almost all mankind, and
-philosophers themselves, for the greatest part of their lives,"
-believe, he says, that "the very things they feel and see" _are_
-external objects, in the sense that they continue to exist, even when
-we cease to feel or see them. Philosophers, on the other hand, have
-been led to reject this opinion and to suppose (when they reflect)
-that what we actually perceive by the senses never exists except when
-we perceive it, but that there are other external objects, which do
-exist independently of us, and which _cause_ us to perceive what we do
-perceive. Hume investigates both of these opinions, at great length in
-the _Treatise_, and much more briefly in the _Enquiry_, and comes to
-the conclusion, in both books, that neither of them can be "founded
-on experience," in the sense he has defined. As regards the first of
-them, the vulgar opinion, he does seem to admit in the _Treatise_ that
-it is, in a sense, founded on experience; but not, he insists, in
-the sense defined. And he seems also to think that, apart from this
-fact, there are conclusive reasons for holding that the opinion cannot
-be true. And as regards the philosophical opinion, he says that any
-belief in external objects, which we never perceive but which cause our
-perceptions, cannot possibly be founded on experience, for the simple
-reason that if it were, we should need to have directly observed some
-of these objects and their "conjunction" with what we do perceive,
-which _ex hypothesi,_ we cannot have done, since we never do directly
-observe any external object.
-
-Hume, therefore, concludes, in this part of his work, that we cannot
-know of the existence of any "external object" whatever. And though
-in all that he says upon this subject, he is plainly thinking only of
-_material_ objects, the principles by which he tries to prove that we
-cannot know these must, I think, prove equally well that we cannot
-know any "external object" whatever--not even the existence of any
-other human mind. His argument is: We cannot directly observe any
-object whatever, except such as exist only when we observe them; we
-cannot, therefore, observe any "constant conjunctions" except between
-objects of this kind: and hence we can have no foundation in experience
-for any proposition which asserts the existence of any other kind of
-object, and cannot, therefore, know any such proposition to be true.
-And this argument must plainly apply to all the feelings, thoughts and
-perceptions of other men just as much as to material objects. I can
-never know that any perception of mine, or anything which I do observe,
-must have been caused by any other man, because I can never directly
-observe a "constant conjunction" between any other man's thoughts
-or feelings or intentions and anything which I directly observe: I
-cannot, therefore, know that any other man ever had any thoughts or
-feelings--or, in short, that any man beside myself ever existed. The
-view, therefore, which Hume suggests in this part of his work, flatly
-contradicts the view which he at first seemed to hold. He now says we
-_cannot_ know that a stone will fall, that fire will burn, or the sun
-will rise to-morrow. All that I can possibly know, according to his
-present principles, is that _I shall see_ a stone fall, shall feel the
-fire burn, shall see the sun rise to-morrow. I cannot even know that
-any other men will see these things; for I cannot know that any other
-men exist. For the same reason, I cannot know that Julius Caesar
-was murdered, or that all men are mortal. For these are propositions
-asserting "external" facts--facts which don't exist only at the moment
-when I observe them; and, according to his present doctrine, I cannot
-possibly know any such proposition to be true. No man, in short, can
-know any proposition about "matters of fact" to be true, except such
-as merely assert something about _his own_ states of mind, past,
-present or future--about these or about what _he himself_ has directly
-observed, is observing, or will observe.
-
-Here, therefore, we have a very different view suggested, as to the
-limits of human knowledge. And even this is not all. There is yet a
-third view, inconsistent with both of these, which Hume suggests in
-some parts of his work.
-
-So far as we have yet seen, he has not in any way contradicted his
-original supposition that we can know _some_ matters of fact, which we
-have never ourselves observed. In the second theory, which I have just
-stated, he does not call in question the view that I can know all such
-matters of fact as I know to be causally connected with facts which
-I have observed, nor the view that I can know some facts to be thus
-causally connected. All that he has done is to question whether I can
-know any _external_ fact to be causally connected with anything which
-I observe; he would still allow that I may be able to know that future
-states of my own, or past states, which I have forgotten, are causally
-connected with those which I now observe or remember; and that I may
-know therefore, in some cases, what I shall experience in the future,
-or have experienced in the past but have now forgotten. But in some
-parts of his work he does seem to question whether any man can know
-even as much as this: he seems to question whether we can ever know any
-fact whatever to be causally connected with any other fact. For, after
-laying it down, as we saw above, that we cannot know any fact, A, to be
-causally connected with another, B, unless we have experienced in the
-past a constant conjunction between facts like A and facts like B, he
-goes on to ask what foundation we have for the conclusion that A and B
-_are_ causally connected, even when we _have_ in the past experienced
-a constant conjunction between them. He points out that from the fact
-that A has been constantly conjoined with B in the past, it does not
-follow that it ever will be so again. It does not follow, therefore,
-that the two really are causally connected in the sense that, when the
-one occurs, the other _always_ will occur also. And he concludes, for
-this and other reasons, that _no argument_ can assure us that, because
-they have been constantly conjoined in the past, therefore they really
-are causally connected. What, then, he asks, is the foundation for such
-an inference? _Custom,_ he concludes, is the only foundation. It is
-nothing but custom which induces us to believe that, because two facts
-have been constantly conjoined on many occasions, therefore they will
-be so on _all_ occasions. We have, therefore, no better foundation
-than custom for any conclusion whatever as to facts which we have not
-observed. And can we be said really to _know_ any fact, for which we
-have no better foundation than this? Hume himself, it must be observed,
-never says that we can't. But he has been constantly interpreted as if
-the conclusion that we can't really know any one fact to be causally
-connected with any other, did follow from this doctrine of his. And
-there is, I think, certainly much excuse for this interpretation in the
-tone in which he speaks. He does seem to suggest that a belief which is
-_merely_ founded on custom, can scarcely be one which we _know_ to be
-true. And, indeed, he owns himself that, when he considers that this
-is our only foundation for any such belief, he is sometimes tempted
-to doubt whether we do know any fact whatever, except those which we
-directly observe. He does, therefore, at least suggest the view that
-every man's knowledge is entirely confined to those facts, which he is
-directly observing at the moment, or which he has observed in the past,
-and now remembers.
-
-We see, then, that Hume suggests, at least, three entirely different
-views as to the consequences of his original doctrine. His original
-doctrine was that, as regards matters of fact beyond the reach of our
-own actual observation, the knowledge of each of us is strictly limited
-to those for which we have a basis in our own experience. And his first
-view as to the consequences of this doctrine was that it does show us
-to be incapable of knowing a good many religious and philosophical
-propositions, which many men have claimed that they knew; but that it
-by no means denies our capacity of knowing the vast majority of facts
-beyond our own observation, which we all commonly suppose that we know.
-His second view, on the other hand, is that it cuts off at once all
-possibility of our knowing the vast majority of these facts; since he
-implies that we cannot have any basis in experience for asserting any
-_external_ fact whatever--any fact, that is, except facts relating to
-our own actual past and future observations. And his third view is more
-sceptical still, since it suggests that we cannot really know any fact
-whatever, beyond the reach of our present observation or memory, even
-where we _have_ a basis in experience for such a fact: it suggests that
-experience cannot ever let us _know_ that any two things are causally
-connected, and therefore that it cannot give us _knowledge_ of any fact
-based on this relation.
-
-What are we to think of these three views, and of the original
-doctrine from which Hume seems to infer them?
-
-As regards the last two views, it may perhaps be thought that they
-are too absurd to deserve any serious consideration. It is, in fact,
-absurd to suggest that I do not know any external facts whatever;
-that I do not know, for instance, even that there are any men beside
-myself. And Hume himself, it might seem, does not seriously expect or
-wish us to accept these views. He points out, with regard to all such
-excessively sceptical opinions that we cannot continue to believe them
-for long together--that, at least, we cannot, for long together, avoid
-believing things flatly inconsistent with them. The philosopher may
-believe, when he is philosophising, that no man knows of the existence
-of any other man or of any material object; but at other times he
-will inevitably believe, as we all do, that he does know of the
-existence of this man and of that, and even of this and that material
-object. There can, therefore, be no question of making all our beliefs
-consistent with such views as this of never believing anything that is
-inconsistent with them. And it may, therefore, seem useless to discuss
-them. But in fact, it by no means follows that, because we are not able
-to adhere consistently to a given view, therefore that view is false;
-nor does it follow that we may not sincerely believe it, whenever we
-are philosophising, even though the moment we cease to philosophise, or
-even before, we may be forced to contradict it. And philosophers do,
-in fact, sincerely believe such things as this--things which flatly
-contradict the vast majority of the things which they believe at other
-times. Even Hume, I think, does sincerely wish to persuade us that
-we cannot know of the existence of external material objects--that
-this is a philosophic truth, which we ought, if we can, so long as we
-are philosophising, to believe. Many people, I think, are certainly
-tempted, in their philosophic moments, to believe such things; and,
-since this is so, it is, I think, worth while to consider seriously
-what arguments can be brought against such views. It is worth while to
-consider whether they are views which we ought to hold as philosophical
-opinions, even if it be quite certain that we shall never be able to
-make the views which we entertain at other times consistent with them.
-And it is the more worth while, because the question how we can prove
-or disprove such extreme views as these, has a bearing on the question
-how we can, in any case whatever, prove or disprove that we do really
-_know,_ what we suppose ourselves to know.
-
-What arguments, then, are there for or against the extreme view that
-no man can know any external fact whatever; and the still more extreme
-view that no man can know any matter of fact whatever, except those
-which he is directly observing at the moment, or has observed in the
-past and now remembers?
-
-It may be pointed out, in the first place, that, if these views are
-true, then at least no man can possibly know them to be so. What
-these views assert is that I cannot know any external fact whatever.
-It follows, therefore, that I cannot know that there are any other
-men, beside myself, and that they are like me in this respect. Any
-philosopher who asserts positively that other men, equally with
-himself, are incapable of knowing any external facts, is, in that very
-assertion, contradicting himself, since he implies that he _does_ know
-a great many facts about the knowledge of other men. No one, therefore,
-can be entitled to assert positively that human knowledge is limited
-in this way, since, in asserting it positively, he is implying that
-his own knowledge is not so limited. It cannot be proper, even in our
-philosophic moments, to take up such an attitude as this.
-
-No one, therefore, can know positively that men in general, are
-incapable of knowing external facts. But still, although we cannot
-_know_ it, it remains possible that the view should be a true one. Nay,
-more, it remains possible that a man should know that _he himself_
-is incapable of knowing any external facts, and that, _if_ there are
-any other men whose faculties are only similar to his own, they also
-must be incapable of knowing any. The argument just used obviously
-does not apply against such a position as this. It only applies
-against the position that men in general positively are incapable
-of knowing external facts: it does not apply against the position
-that the philosopher himself is incapable of knowing any, or against
-the position that there are _possibly_ other men in the same case,
-and that, if their faculties are similar to the philosopher's, they
-certainly would be in it. I do not contradict myself by maintaining
-positively that _I_ know no external facts, though I do contradict
-myself if I maintain that I am only one among other men, and that no
-man knows any external facts. So far, then, as Hume merely maintains
-that _he_ is incapable of knowing any external facts, and that there
-_may_ be other men like him in this respect, the argument just used is
-not valid against his position. Can any conclusive arguments be found
-against it?
-
-It seems to me that such a position must, in a certain sense, be quite
-incapable of disproof. So much must be granted to any sceptic who feels
-inclined to hold it. Any valid argument which can be brought against
-it must be of the nature of a _petitio principii:_ it must beg the
-question at issue. How is the sceptic to prove to himself that he does
-know any external facts? He can only do it by bringing forward some
-instance of an external fact, which he does know; and, in assuming
-that he does know this one, he is, of course, begging the question. It
-is therefore quite impossible for any one to _prove,_ in one strict
-sense of the term, that he does know any external facts. I can only
-prove that I do, by assuming that in some particular instance, I
-actually do know one. That is to say, the so-called proof must assume
-the very thing which it pretends to prove. The only proof that we do
-know external facts lies in the simple fact that we do know them. And
-the sceptic can, with perfect internal consistency, deny that he does
-know any. But it can, I think, be shown that he has no reason for
-denying it. And in particular it may, I think, be easily seen that the
-arguments which Hume uses in favour of this position have no conclusive
-force.
-
-To begin with, his arguments, in both cases, depend upon the two
-original assumptions, (1) that we cannot know any fact, which we
-have not observed, unless we know it to be causally connected with
-some fact which we have observed, and (2) that we have no reason for
-assuming any causal connection, except where we have experienced some
-instances of conjunction between the two facts connected. And both of
-these assumptions may, of course, be denied. It is just as easy to deny
-them, as to deny that I do know any external facts. And, if these two
-assumptions did really lead to the conclusion that I cannot know any,
-it would, I think, be proper to deny them: we might fairly regard the
-fact that they led to this absurd conclusion as disproving them. But,
-in fact, I think it may be easily seen that they do not lead to it.
-
-Let us consider, first of all, Hume's most sceptical argument (the
-argument which he merely suggests). This argument suggests that, since
-our only reason for supposing two facts to be causally connected is
-that we have found them constantly conjoined in the past, and since
-it does not follow from the fact that they have been conjoined ever
-so many times, that they _always_ will be so, therefore we cannot
-_know_ that they always will be so, and hence cannot know that they are
-causally connected. But obviously the conclusion does not follow. We
-must, I think, grant the premiss that, from the fact that two things
-have been conjoined, no matter how often, it does not strictly _follow_
-that they _always_ are conjoined. But it by no means follows from this
-that we may not _know_ that, as a matter of fact, when two things are
-conjoined sufficiently often, they are also _always_ conjoined. We
-may quite well _know_ many things which do not logically follow from
-anything else which we know. And so, in this case, we may _know_ that
-two things are causally connected, although this does not logically
-follow from our past experience, nor yet from anything else that we
-know. And, as for the contention that our belief in causal connections
-is merely based on _custom,_ we may, indeed, admit that custom would
-not be a sufficient _reason_ for concluding the belief to be true.
-But the mere fact (if it be a fact) that the belief is only caused by
-custom, is also no sufficient reason for concluding that we can _not_
-know it to be true. Custom _may_ produce beliefs, which we do know to
-be true, even though it be admitted that it does not _necessarily_
-produce them.
-
-And as for Hume's argument to prove that we can never know any
-_external_ object to be causally connected with anything which we
-actually observe, it is, I think, obviously fallacious. In order
-to prove this, he has, as he recognises, to disprove both of two
-theories. He has, first of all, to disprove what he calls the vulgar
-theory--the theory that we can know the very things which we see or
-feel to be external objects; that is to say, can know that these very
-things exist at times when we do not observe them. And even here, I
-think, his arguments are obviously inconclusive. But we need not stay
-to consider them, because, in order to prove that we cannot know any
-external objects, he has also to disprove what he calls the philosophic
-theory--the theory that we can know things which we do observe, to be
-caused by external objects which we never observe. If, therefore, his
-attempt to disprove this theory fails, his proof that we cannot know
-any external objects also fails; and I think it is easy to see that
-his disproof does fail. It amounts merely to this: That we cannot, _ex
-hypothesi,_ ever observe these supposed external objects, and therefore
-cannot observe them to be constantly conjoined with any objects which
-we do observe. But what follows from this? His own theory about the
-knowledge of causal connection is not that in order to know A to be the
-cause of B, we must have observed A _itself_ to be conjoined with B;
-but only that we must have observed objects _like_ A to be constantly
-conjoined with objects _like_ B. And what is to prevent an external
-object from being _like_ some object which we have formerly observed?
-Suppose I have frequently observed a fact _like A_ to be conjoined with
-a fact _like_ B: and suppose I now observe B, on an occasion when I do
-not observe anything like A. There is no reason, on Hume's principles,
-why I should not conclude that A does exist on this occasion, even
-though I do not observe it; and that it is, therefore, an external
-object. It will, of course, differ from any object which I have ever
-observed, in respect of the simple fact that it is _not_ observed by
-me, whereas they were. There is, therefore, this one respect in which
-it must be _unlike_ anything which I have ever observed. But Hume has
-never said anything to show that unlikeness in this single respect is
-sufficient to invalidate the inference. It may quite well be like
-objects which I have observed in all other respects; and this degree
-of likeness may, according to his principles, be quite sufficient to
-justify us in concluding its existence. In short, when Hume argues that
-we cannot possibly learn by experience of the existence of any external
-objects, he is, I think, plainly committing the fallacy of supposing
-that, because we cannot, _ex hypothesis_ have ever observed any object
-which actually is "external," therefore we can never have observed
-any object _like_ an external one. But plainly we may have observed
-objects like them in all respects except the single one that these
-have been observed whereas the others have not. And even a less degree
-of likeness than this would, according to his principles, be quite
-sufficient to justify an inference of causal connection.
-
-Hume does not, therefore, bring forward any arguments at all sufficient
-to prove either that he cannot know any one object to be causally
-connected with any other or that he cannot know any external fact. And,
-indeed, I think it is plain that no conclusive argument could possibly
-be advanced in favour of these positions. It would always be at least
-as easy to deny the argument as to deny that we do know external facts.
-We may, therefore, each one of us, safely conclude that we do know
-external facts; and, if we do, then there is no reason why we should
-not also know that other men do the same. There is no reason why we
-should not, in this respect, make our philosophical opinions agree with
-what we necessarily believe at other times. There is no reason why I
-should not confidently assert that I do really _know_ some external
-facts, although I cannot prove the assertion except by simply assuming
-that I do. I am, in fact, as certain of this as of anything; and as
-reasonably certain of it. But just as I am certain that I do know
-_some_ external facts, so I am also certain that there are others which
-I do not know. And the question remains: Does the line between the
-two fall, where Hume says it falls? Is it true that the only external
-facts I know are facts for which I have a basis in my own experience?
-And that I cannot know any facts whatever, beyond the reach of my own
-observation and memory, except those for which I have such a basis?
-
-This, it seems to me, is the most serious question which Hume raises.
-And it should be observed that his own attitude towards it is very
-different from his attitude towards the sceptical views which we
-have just been considering. These sceptical views he did not expect
-or wish us to accept, except in philosophic moments. He declares
-that we cannot, in ordinary life, avoid believing things which are
-inconsistent with them; and, in so declaring, he, of course, implies
-incidentally that they are false: since he implies that he himself
-has a great deal of knowledge as to what we can and cannot believe in
-ordinary life. But, as regards the view that our knowledge of matters
-of fact beyond our own observation is entirely confined to such as are
-founded on experience, he never suggests that it is impossible that
-all our beliefs should be consistent with this view, and he does seem
-to think it eminently desirable that they should be. He declares that
-any assertion with regard to such matters, which is not founded on
-experience, can be nothing but "sophistry and illusion"; and that all
-books which are composed of such assertions should be "committed to the
-flames." He seems, therefore, to think that here we really have a test
-by which we may determine what we should or should not believe, on all
-occasions: any view on such matters, for which we have no foundation in
-experience, is a view which we cannot know to be even probably true,
-and which we should _never_ accept, if we can help it. Is there any
-justification for this strong view?
-
-It is, of course, abstractly possible that we do really know, _without_
-the help of experience, some matters of fact, which we never have
-observed. Just as we know matters of fact, which we _have_ observed,
-without the need of any further evidence, and just as we know, for
-instance, that 2+2=4, without the need of any proof, it is possible
-that we may know, directly and immediately, without the need of any
-basis in experience, some facts which we never have observed. This
-is certainly possible, in the same sense in which it is possible
-that I do not really know any external facts: no conclusive disproof
-can be brought against either position. We must make assumptions as
-to what facts we do know and do not know, before we can proceed to
-discuss whether or not all of the former are based on experience; and
-none of these assumptions can, in the last resort, be conclusively
-proved. We may offer one of them in proof of another; but it will
-always be possible to dispute the one which we offer in proof. But
-there are, in fact, certain kinds of things which we universally
-assume that we do know or do not know, just as we assume that we do
-know some external facts; and if among all the things which we know
-as certainly as this, there should turn out to be none for which we
-have no basis in experience, Hume's view would I think, be as fully
-proved as it is capable of being. The question is: Can it be proved
-in this sense? Among all the facts beyond our own observation, which
-we know most certainly, are there any which are certainly not based
-upon experience? For my part, I confess, I cannot feel certain what
-is the right answer to this question: I cannot tell whether Hume was
-right or wrong. But if he was wrong--if there are any matters of fact,
-beyond our own observation, which we know for certain, and which yet
-we know directly and immediately, without any basis in experience, we
-are, I think, faced with an eminently interesting problem. For it is,
-I think, as certain as anything can be that there are _some_ kinds of
-facts with regard to which Hume was right--that there are _some_ kinds
-of facts which we cannot know without the evidence of experience.
-I could not know, for instance, without some such evidence, such a
-fact as that Julius Caesar was murdered. For such a fact I must, in
-the first instance, have the evidence of other persons; and if I am
-to know that their evidence is trustworthy, I must have some ground
-in experience for supposing it to be so. There are, therefore, some
-kinds of facts which we cannot know without the evidence of experience
-and observation. And if it is to be maintained that there are others,
-which we can know without any such evidence, it ought to be pointed out
-exactly what kind of facts these are, and in what respects they differ
-from those which we cannot know without the help of experience. Hume
-gives us a very clear division of the kinds of propositions which we
-can know to be true. There are, first of all, some propositions which
-assert "relations of ideas "; there are, secondly, propositions which
-assert "matters of fact" which we ourselves are actually observing, or
-have observed and now remember; and there are, thirdly, propositions
-which assert "matters of fact" which we have never actually observed,
-but for believing in which we have some foundation in our past
-observations. And it is, I think, certain that some propositions, which
-we know as certainly as we know anything, do belong to each of these
-three classes. I know, for instance, that twice two are four; I know
-by direct observation that I am now seeing these words, that I am
-writing, and by memory that this afternoon I saw St. Paul's; and I know
-also that Julius Caesar was murdered, and I have some foundation in
-experience for this belief, though I did not myself witness the murder.
-Do any of those propositions, which we know as certainly as we know
-these and their like, _not_ belong to either of these three classes?
-Must we add a fourth class consisting of propositions which resemble
-the two last, in respect of the fact that they do assert "matters of
-fact," but which differ from them, in that we know them neither by
-direct observation nor by memory, nor yet as a result of previous
-observations? There may, perhaps, be such a fourth class; but, if there
-is, it is, I think, eminently desirable that it should be pointed out
-exactly what propositions they are which we do know in this way; and
-this, so far as I know, has never yet been done, at all clearly, by any
-philosopher.
-
-
-
-
-THE STATUS OF SENSE-DATA
-
-
-The term "sense-data" is ambiguous; and therefore I think I had better
-begin by trying to explain what the class of entities is whose status I
-propose to discuss.
-
-There are several different classes of mental events, all of which,
-owing to their intrinsic resemblance to one another in certain
-respects, may, in a wide sense, be called "sensory experiences,"
-although only some among them would usually be called "sensations."
-There are (1) those events, happening in our minds while we are
-awake, which consist in the experiencing of one of those entities,
-which are usually called "images," in the narrowest sense of the
-term. Everybody distinguishes these events from sensations proper;
-and yet everybody admits that "images" intrinsically resemble the
-entities which are experienced in sensations proper in some very
-important respect. There are (2) the sensory experiences we have in
-dreams, some of which would certainly be said to be experiences of
-images, while others might be said to be sensations. There are (3)
-hallucinations, and certain classes of illusory sensory experiences.
-There are (4) those experiences, which used to be called the having
-of "after-images," but which psychologists now say ought rather to
-be called "after-sensations." And there are, finally, (5) that class
-of sensory experiences, which are immensely commoner than any of the
-above, and which may be called _sensations proper_, if we agree to use
-this term in such a way as to exclude experiences of my first four
-sorts.
-
-Every event, of any one of these five classes, consists in the fact
-that an entity, of some kind or other, _is experienced._ The entity
-which is experienced may be of many different kinds; it may, for
-instance, be a patch of colour, or a sound, or a smell, or a taste,
-etc; or it may be an image of a patch of colour, an image of a
-sound, an image of a smell, an image of a taste, etc. But, whatever
-be its nature, the entity which _is_ experienced must in all cases
-be distinguished from the fact or event which consists in its being
-experienced; since by saying that it is experienced we mean that it
-has a relation of a certain kind to something else. We can, therefore,
-speak not only of _experiences_ of these five kinds, but also of the
-entities which _are experienced in_ experiences of these kinds; and
-the entity which is experienced _in_ such an experience is never
-identical with the experience which consists in its being experienced.
-But we can speak not only of the entities which _are_ experienced in
-experiences of this kind, but also of _the sort_ of entities which are
-experienced in experiences of this kind; and these two classes may
-again be different. For a patch of colour, even if it were not actually
-experienced, would be an entity _of the same sort_ as some which are
-experienced in experiences of this kind: and there is no contradiction
-in supposing that there are patches of colour, which yet are not
-experienced; since by calling a thing a patch of colour we merely make
-a statement about its intrinsic quality, and in no way assert that
-it has to anything else any of the relations which may be meant by
-saying that it is experienced. In speaking, therefore, of _the sort
-of_ entities which are experienced in experiences of the five kinds I
-have mentioned, we do not necessarily confine ourselves to those which
-actually _are_ experienced in some such experience: we leave it an open
-question whether the two classes are identical or not. And the class
-of entities, whose status I wish to discuss, consists precisely of all
-those, whether experienced or not, which are _of the same sort_ as
-those which are experienced in experiences of these five kinds.
-
-I intend to call this class of entities the class of _sensibles_; so
-that the question I am to discuss can be expressed in the form: What
-is the status of sensibles? And it must be remembered that images and
-after-images are just as much "sensibles," in my sense of the term, as
-the entities which are experienced in sensations proper; and so, too,
-are any patches of colour, or sounds, or smells, etc, (if such there
-be), which are not experienced at all.
-
-In speaking of sensibles as _the sort of_ entities which are
-experienced in sensory experiences I seem to imply that all the
-entities which are experienced in sensory experiences have some
-common characteristic other than that which consists in their being
-so experienced. And I cannot help thinking that this is the case,
-in spite of the fact that it is difficult to see what intrinsic
-character can be shared in common by entities so different from one
-another as are patches of colour, sounds, smells, tastes, etc. For,
-so far as I can see, some non-sensory experiences may be exactly
-similar to sensory ones in all intrinsic respects, except that what
-is experienced in them is different in kind from what is experienced
-in any sensory experience: the relation meant by saying that in them
-something _is experienced_ may be exactly the same in kind, and so may
-the experient. And, if this be so, it seems to compel us to admit that
-the distinction between sensory and non-sensory experiences is derived
-from that between sensibles, and non-sensibles and not _vice versâ._ I
-am inclined, therefore, to think that all sensibles, in spite of the
-great differences between them, have some common intrinsic property,
-which we recognise, but which is unanalysable; and that, when we call
-an experience sensory, what we mean is not only that in it something
-is experienced in a particular way, but also that this something has
-this unanalysable property. If this be so, the ultimate definition of
-"sensibles" would be merely all entities which have this unanalysable
-property.
-
-It seems to me that the term "sense-data" is often used, and may be
-correctly used, simply as a synonym for "sensibles"; and everybody,
-I think, would expect me, in discussing the status of sense-data,
-to discuss, among other things, the question whether there are any
-sensibles which are not "given." It is true that the etymology of the
-term "sense-data" suggests that nothing should be called a sense-datum,
-but what _is_ given; so that to talk of a non-given sense-datum would
-be a contradiction in terms. But, of course, etymology is no safe guide
-either as to the actual or the correct use of terms; and it seems to me
-that the term "sense-data" is often, and quite properly, used merely
-for _the sort of_ entities that are given in sense, and not in any way
-limited to those which are actually given. But though I think I might
-thus have used "sense-data" quite correctly instead of "sensibles,"
-I think the latter term is perhaps more convenient; because though
-nobody ought to be misled by etymologies, so many people in fact are
-so. Moreover the term "sense-data" is sometimes limited in yet another
-way, viz, to the sort of sensibles which are experienced in _sensations
-proper_; so that in this sense "images" would not be "sense-data."
-For both these reasons, I think it is perhaps better to drop the term
-"sense-data" altogether, and to speak only of "sensibles."
-
-My discussion of the status of sensibles will be divided into two
-parts. I shall first consider how, in certain respects, they are
-related to our minds; and then I shall consider how, in certain
-respects, they are related to physical objects.
-
-
-(I)
-
-
-(1) We can, I think, distinguish pretty clearly at least one kind
-of relation which sensibles, of all the kinds I have mentioned, do
-undoubtedly sometimes have to our minds.
-
-I do now see certain blackish marks on a whitish ground, and I hear
-certain sounds which I attribute to the ticking of my clock. In both
-cases I have to certain sensibles--certain blackish marks, in the one
-case, and certain sounds, in the other--a kind of relation with which
-we are all perfectly familiar, and which may be expressed, in the one
-case, by saying that I actually _see_ the marks, and in the other, by
-saying that I actually _hear_ the sounds. It seems to me quite evident
-that the relation to the marks which I express by saying that I _see_
-them, is not different in kind from the relation to the sounds which
-I express by saying that I _hear_ them. "Seeing" and "hearing," when
-thus used as names for a relation which we may have to sensibles, are
-not names for different relations, but merely express the fact that,
-in the one case, the kind of sensible to which I have a certain kind
-of relation is a patch of colour, while, in the other case, the kind
-of sensible to which I have the same kind of relation is a sound. And
-similarly when I say that I feel warm or smell a smell these different
-verbs do not express the fact that I have a different kind of relation
-to the sensibles concerned, but only that I have the _same_ kind of
-relation to a different kind of sensible. Even when I call up a visual
-image of a sensible I saw yesterday, or an auditory image of a sound
-I heard yesterday, I have to those images exactly the same kind of
-relation which I have to the patches of colour I now see and which I
-had yesterday to those I saw then.
-
-But this kind of relation, which I sometimes have to sensibles of
-all sorts of different kinds, images as well as others, is evidently
-quite different in kind from another relation which I may also have
-to sensibles. After looking at this black mark, I may turn away my
-head or close my eyes, and then I no longer _actually see_ the mark I
-saw just now. I may, indeed, have (I myself actually do have at this
-moment) a visual _image_ of the mark before my mind; and to this image
-I do now have exactly the same kind of relation which I had just now
-to the mark itself. But the image is not identical with the mark of
-which it is an image; and to the mark itself it is quite certain that
-I have _not_ now got the same kind of relation as I had just now, when
-I was actually seeing it. And yet I certainly may _now_ have to that
-mark itself a kind of relation, which may be expressed by saying that
-I am _thinking of_ it or remembering it. I can _now_ make judgments
-about _it itself_--the very sensible which I did see just now and am no
-longer seeing: as, for instance, that I did then see it and that it was
-different from the image of it which I am now seeing. It is, therefore,
-quite certain that there is a most important difference between the
-relation I have to a sensible when I am actually seeing or hearing it,
-and any relation (for there may be several) which I may have to the
-same sensible when I am only thinking or or remembering it. And I want
-to express this difference by using a particular term for the former
-relation. I shall express this relation, which I certainly do have to
-a sensible when I actually see or hear it, and most certainly do not
-have to it, when I only think of or remember it, by saying that there
-is in my mind a _direct apprehension_ of it. I have expressly chosen
-this term because, so far as I know, it has not been used hitherto as
-a technical term; whereas all the terms which have been so used, such
-as "presented," "given," "perceived," seem to me to have been spoilt
-by ambiguity. People sometimes, no doubt, use these terms as names for
-the kind of relation I am concerned with. But you can never be sure,
-when an entity is said to be "given" or "presented" or "perceived,"
-that what is meant is simply and solely that it has to someone that
-relation which sensibles do undoubtedly have to me when I actually see
-or hear them, and which they do _not_ have to me when I only think of
-or remember them.
-
-I have used the rather awkward expression "There is in my mind a
-direct apprehension of this black mark," because I want to insist that
-though, when I see the mark, the mark certainly has to _something_
-the fundamental relation which I wish to express by saying that it is
-directly apprehended, and though the event which consists in its being
-directly apprehended by that something is certainly a mental act of
-_mine_ or which occurs in my mind, yet the something which directly
-apprehends it may quite possibly not be anything which deserves to be
-called "I" or "me." It is quite possible, I think, that there is _no_
-entity whatever which deserves to be called "I" or "me" or "my mind";
-and hence that nothing whatever is ever directly apprehended by _me._
-Whether this is so or not, depends on the nature of that relation which
-certainly does hold between all those mental acts which are _mine_, and
-does not hold between any of mine and any of yours; and which holds
-again between all those mental acts which are yours, but does not hold
-between any of yours and any of mine. And I do not feel at all sure
-what the correct analysis of this relation is. It may be the case
-that the relation which unites all those acts of direct apprehension
-which are mine, and which is what we mean to say that they have to one
-another when we say they are all mine, really does consist in the fact
-that one and the same entity is _what_ directly apprehends in each of
-them: in which case this entity could properly be called "me," and it
-_would_ be true to say that, when I see this black mark, _I_ directly
-apprehend it. But it is also quite possible (and this seems to me to
-be the view which is commonest amongst psychologists) that the entity
-which directly apprehends, in those acts of direct apprehension which
-are mine, is numerically different in every different act; and that
-what I mean by calling all these different acts _mine_ is either merely
-that they have some kind of relation to _one another_ or that they
-all have a common relation to some other entity, external to them,
-which may or may not be something which deserves to be called "me."
-On any such view, what I assert to be true of this black mark, when
-I say that it is seen by me, would not be simply that it is directly
-apprehended by me, but something more complex in which, besides
-direct apprehension, some other quite different relation was also
-involved. I should be asserting _both_ (1) that the black mark is being
-directly apprehended by _something_, _and_ (2) that this act of direct
-apprehension has to something else, external to it, a quite different
-relation, which is what makes it an act of _mine._ I do not know how to
-decide between these views, and that is why I wished to explain that
-the fundamental relation which I wish to call direct apprehension, is
-one which quite possibly never holds between _me_ and any sensible.
-But, once this has been explained, I think no harm can result from
-using the expression "I directly apprehend A" as a synonym for "A
-direct apprehension of A occurs in my mind." And in future I shall so
-speak, because it is much more convenient.
-
-The only other point, which seems to me to need explanation, in order
-to make it quite clear what the relation I call "direct apprehension"
-is, concerns its relation to _attention_; and as to this I must confess
-I don't feel clear. In every case where it is quite clear to me that
-I am directly apprehending a given entity, it seems also clear to me
-that I am, more or less, attending to it; and it seems to me possible
-that what I mean by "direct apprehension" may be simply identical with
-what is meant by "attention," in _one_ of the senses in which that word
-can be used. That it can, at most, only be identical with _one_ of the
-relations meant by attention seems to me clear, because I certainly
-can be said to attend, in some sense or other, to entities, which I am
-not directly apprehending: I may, for instance, think, with attention,
-of a sensible, which I saw yesterday, and am certainly not seeing now.
-It is, therefore, clear that to say I am attending to a thing and yet
-am _not_ directly apprehending it, is not a contradiction in terms:
-and this fact alone is sufficient to justify the use of the special
-term "direct apprehension." But whether to say that I am directly
-apprehending a given thing and yet am _not_ attending to it, in any
-degree at all, is or is not a contradiction in terms, I admit I don't
-feel clear.
-
-However that may be, one relation, in which sensibles of all sorts do
-sometimes stand to our minds, is the relation constituted by the fact
-that we directly apprehend them: or, to speak more accurately, by the
-fact that events which consist in their being directly apprehended are
-_in_ our minds, in the sense in which to say that an event is _in_ our
-minds means merely that it is a mental act of _ours_--that it has to
-our other mental acts that relation (whatever it may be) which we mean
-by saying that they are all mental acts _of the same individual._ And
-it is clear that to say of a sensible that it is directly apprehended
-by me, is to say of it something quite different from what I say of a
-mental act of mine, when I say that this _mental act is in my mind_:
-for nothing is more certain than that an act of direct apprehension or
-belief may be in my mind, without being itself directly apprehended
-by me. If, therefore, by saying that a sensible is _in our minds_
-or is _ours,_ we mean merely that it is directly apprehended by us,
-we must recognise that we are here using the phrases "in our minds"
-or "ours" in quite a different sense from that in which we use them
-when we talk of our mental acts being "in our minds" or "ours." And
-why I say this is because I think that these two relations are very
-apt to be confused. When, for instance, we say of a given entity that
-it is "experienced," or when the Germans say that it is "erlebt," it
-is sometimes meant, I think, merely that it is directly apprehended,
-but sometimes that it is in my mind, in the sense in which, when I
-entertain a belief, this act of belief is in my mind.
-
-But (2) it seems to me to be commonly held that sensibles are often
-in our minds in some sense quite other than that of being directly
-apprehended by us or that of being thought of by us. This seems to me
-to be often what is meant when people say that they are "immediately
-experienced" or are "subjective modifications"; though, of course,
-both expressions are so ambiguous, that when people say that a given
-entity is immediately experienced or is a subjective modification, they
-_may_ mean merely that it is directly apprehended. And since I think
-this view is held, I want to explain that I see no reason whatever for
-thinking that sensibles ever are experienced by us in any other sense
-than that of being directly apprehended by us. Two kinds of argument,
-I think, are sometimes used to show that they are.
-
-(_a_) It is a familiar fact that, when, for instance, we are in a room
-with a ticking clock, we may seem suddenly to become aware of the
-ticks, whereas, so far as we can tell, we had previously not heard
-them at all. And it may be urged that in these cases, since the same
-kind of stimulus was acting on our ears all the time, we must have
-_experienced_ the same kind of sensible sounds, although we did not
-directly apprehend them.
-
-But I think most psychologists are now agreed that this argument is
-quite worthless. There seem to me to be two possible alternatives to
-the conclusion drawn. It may, I think, possibly be the case that we
-did directly apprehend the ticks all the time, but that we cannot
-afterwards remember that we did, because the degree of attention (if
-any) with which we heard them was so small, that in ordinary life we
-should say that we did not attend to them at all. But, what, I think,
-is much more likely is that, though the same stimulus was acting on
-our ears, it failed to produce any mental effect whatever, because our
-attention was otherwise engaged.
-
-(_b_) It is said that sometimes when we suddenly become aware, say,
-of the eighth stroke of a striking clock, we can _remember_ earlier
-strokes, although we seem to ourselves _not_ to have directly
-apprehended them. I cannot say that I have ever noticed this experience
-in myself, but I have no doubt that it is possible. And people seem
-inclined to argue that, since we can remember the earlier strokes, we
-must have experienced them, though we did not directly apprehend them.
-
-But here again, the argument does not seem to me at all conclusive. I
-should say, again, that it is possible that we did directly apprehend
-them, but only with a very slight degree of attention (if any). And,
-as an alternative, I should urge that there is no reason why we should
-not be able to remember a thing, which we never experienced at all.
-
-I do not know what other arguments can be used to show that we
-sometimes _experience_ sensibles in a sense quite other than that of
-directly apprehending them. But I do not know how to show that we do
-not; and since people whose judgment I respect, seem to hold that we
-do, I think it is worth while to say something as to what this sense of
-"experience" can be, in case it does occur.
-
-I have said that sometimes when people say that a given entity is
-"experienced" they seem to mean that it belongs to some individual,
-in the sense in which my acts of belief belong to me. To say that
-sensibles were experienced by me in this sense would, therefore, be to
-say that they sometimes have to my acts of belief and acts of direct
-apprehension the same relation which these have to one another--the
-relation which constitutes them _mine._ But that sensibles ever have
-this kind of relation to my mental acts, is a thing which I cannot
-believe. Those who hold that they are ever experienced at all, in some
-sense other than that of being directly apprehended, always hold, I
-think, that, whenever they are directly apprehended by us, they also,
-at the same time, have to us this other relation as well. And it seems
-to me pretty clear that when I do directly apprehend a sensible, it
-does _not_ have to me the same relation which my direct apprehension of
-it has.
-
-If, therefore, sensibles are ever experienced by us at all, in any
-sense other than that of being directly apprehended by us, we must, I
-think, hold that they are so in an entirely new sense, quite different
-both from that in which to be experienced means to be directly
-apprehended, and from that in which to be experienced means to occur
-in some individual's mind. And I can only say that I see no reason to
-think that they ever are experienced in any such sense. If they are,
-the fact that they are so is presumably open to the inspection of us
-all; but I cannot distinguish any such fact as occurring in myself, as
-I can distinguish the fact that they are directly apprehended. On the
-other hand, I see no way of showing that they are _not_ experienced in
-some such sense; and perhaps somebody will be able to point it out to
-me. I do not wish to assume, therefore, that there _is_ no such sense;
-and hence, though I am inclined to think that the _only_ sense in which
-they are experienced is that of being directly apprehended, I shall, in
-what follows, use the phrase "experienced" to mean _either_ directly
-apprehended _or_ having to something this supposed different relation,
-if such a relation there be.
-
-(3) We may now, therefore, raise the question: Do sensibles ever exist
-at times when they are not being experienced at all?
-
-To this question it is usual to give a negative answer, and two
-different _a priori_ reasons may be urged in favour of that answer.
-
-The first is what should be meant by Berkeley's dictum that the _esse_
-of sensibles is _percipi._ This should mean, whatever else it may mean,
-at least this: that to suppose a sensible to exist and yet _not_ to
-be experienced in self-contradictory. And this at least seems to me
-to be clearly false. Anything which was a patch of colour would be a
-sensible; and to suppose that there are patches of colour which are not
-being experienced is clearly not self-contradictory, however false it
-may be.
-
-It may, however, be urged (and this is the second argument) that,
-though to suppose a thing to be a sensible and _yet_ not experienced is
-not self-contradictory, yet we can clearly see that nothing can have
-the one property without having the other. And I do not see my way to
-deny that we may be able to know, _a priori_ that such a connection
-holds between two such properties. In the present case, however, I
-cannot see that it does hold, and therefore, so far as _a priori_
-reasons go, I conclude that there is no reason why sensibles should not
-exist at times when they are not experienced.
-
-It may, however, be asked: Is there any reason to suppose that they
-ever do? And the reason, which weighs with me most, is one which
-applies, I think, to a certain class of sensibles _only_; a class
-which I will try to define by saying that it consists of those which
-_would_ (under certain conditions which actually exist) be experienced
-in a _sensation proper, if only_ a living body, having a certain
-constitution, existed under those conditions in a position in which no
-such body does actually exist. I think it is very probable that this
-definition does not define at all accurately the kind of sensibles I
-mean; but I think that what the definition aims at will become clearer
-when I proceed to give my reasons for supposing that sensibles, of a
-kind to be defined in _some_ such way, do exist unexperienced. The
-reason is simply that, in Hume's phrase, I have "a strong propensity
-to believe" that, _e.g.,_ the visual sensibles which I directly
-apprehend in looking at this paper, still exist unchanged when I merely
-alter the position of my body by turning away my head or closing my
-eyes, _provided_ that the physical conditions outside my body remain
-unchanged. In such a case it is certainly true in some sense that I
-_should_ see sensibles like what I saw the moment before, _if only_
-my head were still in the position it was at that moment or my eyes
-unclosed. But if, in such a case, there is reason to think that
-sensibles which I should see, if the position of my body were altered,
-exist in spite of the fact that I do not experience them, there is,
-I think, an equal reason to suppose it in other cases. We must, for
-instance, suppose that the sensibles which I should see now, if I were
-at the other end of the room, or if I were looking under the table,
-exist at this moment, though they are not being experienced. And
-similarly we must suppose that the sensibles which _you_ would see, if
-you were in the position in which I am now, exist at this moment, in
-spite of the fact that they may be more or less different from those
-which I see, owing to the different constitution of our bodies. All
-this implies of course, that a vast number of sensibles exist at any
-moment, which are not being experienced at all. But still it implies
-this only with regard to sensibles of a strictly limited class, namely
-sensibles which would be experienced _in a sensation proper,_ if a
-body, having a certain constitution, were in a position in which it is
-not, under the given physical conditions. It does not, for instance,
-imply that any _images,_ of which it may be true that I _should_
-have them, under present physical conditions, if the position of my
-body were altered, exist now; nor does it imply that sensibles which
-_would_ be experienced by me now in a sensation proper, if the physical
-conditions external to my body were different from what they are, exist
-now.
-
-I feel, of course, that I have only succeeded in defining miserably
-vaguely the kind of sensibles I mean; and I do not know whether the
-fact that I have a strong propensity to believe that sensibles of a
-kind to be defined in some such way, do exist unexperienced, is any
-good reason for supposing that they actually do. The belief may, of
-course, be a mere prejudice. But I do not know of any certain test by
-which prejudices can be distinguished from reasonable beliefs. And I
-cannot help thinking that there may be a class of sensibles, capable
-of definition in _some_ such way, which there really is reason to
-think exist unexperienced.
-
-But, if I am not mistaken, there is an empirical argument which,
-though, even if it were sound, it would have no tendency whatever to
-show that _no_ sensibles exist unexperienced, would, if it were sound,
-show that this very class of sensibles, to which alone my argument for
-unexperienced existence applies, certainly do not so exist. This, it
-seems to me, is the most weighty argument which can be used upon the
-subject; and I want, therefore, to give my reasons for thinking that it
-is fallacious.
-
-The argument is one which asserts that there is abundant empirical
-evidence in favour of the view that the existence of the sensibles
-which we experience at any time, always depends upon the condition of
-our nervous system: so that, even where it also depends upon external
-physical conditions, we can safely say that sensibles, which we should
-have experienced, if only our nervous system had been in a different
-condition, certainly do not exist, when it is not in that condition.
-And the fallacy of this argument seems to me to lie in the fact that
-it does not distinguish between the existence of the sensibles _which_
-we experience and _the fact that we experience them._ What there _is_
-evidence for is that _our experience_ of sensibles always depends upon
-the condition of our nervous system; that, according as the condition
-of the nervous system changes, different sensibles are _experienced_,
-even where other conditions are the same. But obviously the fact that
-our experience of a given sensible depends upon the condition of our
-nervous system does not directly show that the existence of _the
-sensible experienced_ always also so depends. The fact that I am now
-experiencing this black mark is certainly a different fact from the
-fact that this black mark now exists. And hence the evidence which
-does tend to show that the former fact would not have existed if my
-nervous system had been in a different condition, has no tendency to
-show that the latter would not have done so either. I am sure that this
-distinction ought to be made; and hence, though I think there may be
-other reasons for thinking that the very existence of the sensibles,
-which we experience, and not merely the fact that we experience them
-_does_ always depend upon the condition of our nervous systems, it
-seems to me certain that this particular argument constitutes no such
-reason.
-
-And I think that those who suppose that it does are apt to be
-influenced by an assumption, for which also, so far as I can see,
-there is no reason. I have admitted that the only reason I can see for
-supposing that sensibles which we experience ever exist unexperienced,
-seems to lead to the conclusion that the sensibles which would be seen
-by a colour-blind man, if he occupied exactly the position which I, who
-am not colour-blind, now occupy, exist now, just as much as those which
-I now see. And it may be thought that this implies that the sensibles,
-which he would see, and which would certainly be very different from
-those which I see, are nevertheless at this moment in exactly the same
-place as those which I see. Now, for my part, I am not prepared to
-admit that it is impossible they should be in the same place. But the
-assumption against which I wish to protest, is the assumption that,
-if they exist at all, they _must_ be in the same place. I can see no
-reason whatever for this assumption. And hence any difficulties there
-may be in the way of supposing that they could be in the same place at
-the same time as the sensibles which I see, do not at all apply to my
-hypothesis, which is only that they exist _now, not_ that they exist
-_in the same place_ in which mine do.
-
-On this question, therefore, as to whether sensibles ever exist at
-times when they are not experienced, I have only to say (1) that I
-think there is certainly no good reason whatever for asserting that
-_no_ sensibles do; and (2) that I think perhaps a certain amount of
-weight ought to be attached to our instinctive belief that certain
-kinds of sensibles do; and that here again any special arguments which
-may be brought forward to show that, whether some sensibles exist
-unexperienced or not, _this_ kind certainly do not, are, so far as I
-can see, wholly inconclusive.
-
-
-
-(II)
-
-
-I now pass to the question how sensibles are related to physical
-objects. And here I want to say, to begin with, that I feel extremely
-puzzled about the whole subject. I find it extremely difficult to
-distinguish clearly from one another the different considerations which
-ought to be distinguished; and all I can do is to raise, more or less
-vaguely, certain questions as to how certain _particular_ sensibles
-are related to certain _particular_ physical objects, and to give
-the reasons which seem to me to have most weight for answering these
-questions in one way rather than another. I feel that all that I can
-say is very tentative.
-
-To begin with, I do not know how "physical object" is to be defined,
-and I shall not try to define it. I shall, instead, consider certain
-propositions, which everybody will admit to be propositions _about_
-physical objects, and which I shall assume that I know to be true.
-And the question I shall raise is as to how these propositions are to
-be interpreted_--in what sense_ they are true; in considering which,
-we shall at the same time consider how they are related to certain
-sensibles.
-
-I am looking at two coins, one of which is a half-crown, the other a
-florin. Both are lying on the ground; and they are situated obliquely
-to my line of sight, so that the visual sensibles which I directly
-apprehend in looking at them are visibly elliptical, and not even
-approximately circular. Moreover, the half-crown is so much farther
-from me than the florin that _its_ visual sensible is visibly smaller
-than that of the florin.
-
-In these circumstances I am going to assume that I know the following
-propositions to be true; and no one, I think, will deny that we can
-know such propositions to be true, though, as we shall see, extremely
-different views may be taken as to what they mean. I know (_a_) that,
-in the ordinary sense of the word "see" I am _really seeing two coins;_
-an assertion which includes, if it is not identical with, the assertion
-that the visual experiences, which consist in my direct apprehension
-of those two elliptical patches of colour, _are_ sensations proper,
-and are not either hallucinations nor mere experiences of "images";
-(_b_) that the upper sides of the coins are _really_ approximately
-circular, and not merely elliptical like the visual sensibles; (_c_)
-that the coins _have_ another side, and an inside, though I don't see
-it; (_d_) that the upper side of the half-crown is really _larger_
-than that of the florin, though its visual sensible is _smaller_ than
-the visual sensible of the upper side of the florin: (_e_) that both
-coins continue to exist, even when I turn away my head or shut my eyes;
-but in saying this, I do not, of course, mean to say that there is
-absolutely _no_ change in them; I daresay there must be _some_ change,
-and I do not know how to define exactly what I do mean. But we can, I
-think, say at least this: viz., that propositions (_h_), (_c_), and
-(_d_) will still be true, although proposition (_a_) has ceased to be
-true.
-
-Now all these propositions are, I think, typical propositions of the
-sort which we call propositions about physical objects; and the two
-coins themselves _are_ physical objects, if anything is. My question
-is: _In what sense_ are these propositions true?
-
-And in considering this question, there are, I think, two principles
-which we can lay down as certain to begin with; though they do not
-carry us very far.
-
-The one is (_a_) that the upper side of the coin, which I am said
-to _see,_ is not simply identical with the visual sensible which I
-_directly apprehend_ in seeing it. That this is so might be thought to
-follow absolutely from each of the two facts which I have called (_b_)
-and (_d_); but I am not quite sure that it does follow from either of
-these or from both together: for it seems to me just possible that the
-two sensibles in question, though _not_ circular _in my private space,_
-may yet be circular in _physical_ space; and similarly that though the
-sensible of the half-crown is smaller than that of the florin _in my
-private space,_ it may be larger _in physical space._ But what I think
-it does follow from is the fact that another person may be seeing the
-upper side of the coin in exactly the same sense in which I am seeing
-it, and yet his sensible be certainly different from mine. From this it
-follows absolutely that the upper side of the coin cannot be identical
-with _both_ sensibles, since they are _not_ identical with one another.
-And though it does not follow absolutely that it may not be identical
-with _one_ of the two, yet it does follow that we _can_ get a case in
-which it is not identical with _mine_ and I need only assume that the
-case I am taking is such a case.
-
-From this it follows that we must distinguish that sense of the word
-"see" in which we can be said to "see" a physical object, from that
-sense of the word in which "see" means merely to directly apprehend
-a visual sensible. In a proposition of the form "I see A," where A
-is a name or description of some physical object, though, if this
-proposition is to be true, there must be some visual sensible, B,
-which I am directly apprehending, yet the proposition "I see A" is
-certainly not always, and probably never, identical in meaning with the
-proposition "I directly apprehend B." In asserting "I see A" we are
-asserting not only that we directly apprehend some sensible but also
-something else about this sensible--it may be only some proposition of
-the form, "and this sensible has certain other properties," or it may
-be some proposition of the form "and _I know_ this sensible to have
-certain other properties." Indeed we have not only to distinguish that
-sense of the word "perceive" in which it is equivalent to "directly
-apprehend," from _one_ sense in which we can be said to perceive a
-physical object; we have also to distinguish at least two different
-senses in which we can be said to perceive physical objects, different
-both from one another and from "directly apprehend." For it is obvious
-that though I should be said to be now seeing _the half-crown_, there
-is a narrower, and more proper, sense, in which I can only be said
-to _see_ one side of it_--not_ its lower side or its inside, and not
-therefore the whole half-crown.
-
-The other principle, which we can lay down to start with is (_β_) that
-my knowledge of all the five propositions (_a_) to (_e_), is based,
-in the last resort, on experiences of mine consisting in the direct
-apprehension of sensibles and in the perception of relations between
-directly apprehended sensibles. It is _based_ on these, in at least
-this sense, that I should never have known any of these propositions
-if I had never directly apprehended any sensibles nor perceived any
-relations between them.
-
-What, in view of these two principles, can be the sense in which my
-five propositions are true?
-
-(1) It seems to me possible that the only _true_ interpretation which
-can be given to any of them is an interpretation of a kind which I
-can only indicate rather vaguely as follows: Namely, that all of them
-express only a kind of fact which we should naturally express by saying
-that, _if_ certain conditions were fulfilled, I or some other person,
-_should_ directly apprehend certain other sensibles. For instance
-the only _true_ thing that can be meant by saying that I really see
-_coins_ may be some such thing as that, _if_ I were to move my body in
-certain ways, I should directly apprehend _other_ sensibles, _e.g._
-tactual ones, which I should not directly apprehend as a consequence
-of these movements, if these present visual experiences of mine were
-mere hallucinations or experiences of "images." Again, the only true
-thing that can be meant by saying that the upper sides of the coins
-are _really_ approximately circular may be some such thing as that,
-_if_ I were looking straight at them, I should directly apprehend
-circular sensibles. And similarly, the only true interpretation of
-(_c_) may be some such fact as that, _if_ I were to turn the coins
-over, or break them up, I _should_ have certain sensations, of a sort I
-can imagine very well; of (_d_) that _if_ I were at an equal distance
-from the half-crown and the florin, the sensible, I should then see
-corresponding to the half-crown would be bigger than that corresponding
-to the florin, whereas it is now smaller; of (_e_) that, _if,_ when
-my eyes were closed, they had been open instead, I should have seen
-certain sensibles.
-
-It is obvious, indeed, that if any interpretation on these lines _is_
-the only true interpretation of our five propositions, none of those
-which I have vaguely suggested comes anywhere near to expressing it in
-its ultimate form. They cannot do so for the simple reason that, in
-them, the conditions under which I _should_ experience certain other
-sensibles are themselves expressed in terms of _physical objects,_ and
-not in terms of sensibles and our experience of them. The conditions
-are expressed in such terms as "if I were to move my body," "if I
-were to look straight at the coins," "if I were to turn the coins
-over," etc.; and all these are obviously propositions, which must
-themselves again be interpreted in terms of sensibles, if our original
-five propositions need to be so. It is obvious, therefore, that any
-_ultimate_ interpretation of our five propositions, on these lines,
-would be immensely complicated; and I cannot come anywhere near to
-stating exactly what it would be. But it seems to me possible that
-_some_ such interpretation could be found, and that it is the _only_
-true one.
-
-The great recommendation of this view seems to me to be that it enables
-us to see, more clearly than any other view can, how our knowledge of
-physical propositions can be based on our experience of sensibles, in
-the way in which principle (_β_) asserts it to be. If, when I know
-that the coins are round, all that I know is some such thing as that
-if, after experiencing the sensibles I do now experience, I were to
-experience still others, I should finally experience a third set, we
-can understand, as clearly as we can understand how any knowledge can
-be obtained by induction at all, how such a knowledge could be based on
-our previous experience of sensibles, and how it could be verified by
-our subsequent experience.
-
-On the other hand, apart from the difficulty of actually giving any
-interpretation on these lines, which will meet the requirements,
-the great objection to it seems to me to be this. It is obvious
-that, on this view, though we shall still be allowed to say that the
-coins _existed_ before I saw them, are _circular_ etc., all these
-expressions, if they are to be true, will have to be understood in a
-Pickwickian sense. When I know that the coins existed before I saw
-them, what I know will not be that anything whatever existed at that
-time, in the sense in which those elliptical patches of colour exist
-now. _All_ that I know will be simply that, since the elliptical
-patches exist now, it is true, that, _if_ certain unrealised conditions
-had been realised, I should have had certain sensations that I have
-not had; or, _if_ certain conditions, which may or may not be realised
-in the future, were to be so, I _should_ have certain experiences.
-Something like this will actually be the _only true_ thing that can
-be meant by saying that the coins existed before I saw them. In
-other words, to say of a _physical object_ that it _existed_ at a
-given time will always consist merely in saying of some sensible,
-_not_ that _it_ existed at the time in question, but something quite
-different and immensely complicated. And thus, though, when I know that
-the coins exist, what I know will be merely some proposition about
-these sensibles which I am directly apprehending, yet this view will
-not contradict principle (_a_) by _identifying_ the coins with the
-sensibles. For it will say that to assert a given thing of the _coins_
-is not equivalent to asserting the _same thing_ of the sensibles, but
-only to asserting of them something quite different.
-
-The fact that these assertions that the coins exist, are round, etc.,
-will, on this view, only be true in this outrageously Pickwickian
-sense, seems to me to constitute the great objection to it. But it
-seems to me to be an objection only, so far as I can see, because I
-have a "strong propensity to believe" that, when I know that the coins
-existed before I saw them, _what_ I know is that something existed at
-that time, in the very same sense in which those elliptical patches now
-exist. And, of course, this belief _may_ be a mere prejudice. It _may_
-be that when I believe that I _now_ have, in my body, blood and nerves
-and brain, _what_ I believe is only true, if it does _not_ assert, in
-the proper sense of the word "existence," the _present_ existence of
-anything whatever, other than sensibles which I directly apprehend, but
-only makes assertions as to the kind of experiences a doctor _would_
-have, if he dissected me. But I cannot feel at all sure that my belief,
-that, when I know of the present Existence of these things (as I think
-I do), I am knowing of the present existence (in the proper sense) of
-things other than any sensibles which I or any one else am now directly
-apprehending, is a mere prejudice. And therefore I think it is worth
-while to consider what, if it is not, these things, of whose existence
-I know, can be.
-
-(2) It is certain that if, when I know that that half-crown existed
-before I saw it, I am knowing that something existed at that time
-in other than a Pickwickian sense, I only know this something _by
-description_; and it seems pretty clear that the description by
-which I know it is as _the_ thing which has a certain connection
-with this sensible which I am now directly apprehending. But _what_
-connection? We cannot simply say, as many people have said, that by
-"that half-crown" I mean _the_ thing which _caused_ my experience of
-this sensible; because events which happen between the half-crown and
-my eyes, and events in my eyes, and optic nerves, and brains are just
-as much _causes_ of my experiences as the half-crown itself. But it
-may perhaps be the case that the half-crown has some particular _kind_
-of causal relation to my experience, which these other events have not
-got--a kind which may be expressed, perhaps, by saying that it is its
-"source." And hence, when I know that that half-crown is circular, I
-may perhaps be knowing that the _source_ of this experience is circular.
-
-But what sort of a thing can this "source" be?
-
-One kind of view, which I think is very commonly held, is that it is
-something "spiritual" in its nature, or something whose nature is
-utterly unknown to us. And those who hold this view are apt to add,
-that it is not really "circular," in any sense at all; nor is the
-"source" of my half-crown experience, in any sense at all, "bigger"
-than that of my florin experience. But if this addition were seriously
-meant, it would, of course, amount to saying that propositions (_b_)
-and (_d_) are not true, in any sense at all; and I do not think
-that those who make it, really mean to say this. I think that what
-they mean is only that the only sense in which those "sources" are
-circular, and one bigger than the other, is one in which to say this
-merely amounts to saying that the sensibles, which they _would_ cause
-us to experience, under certain conditions, _would_ be circular, and
-one bigger than the other. In other words, in order to give a true
-interpretation to the propositions that the coins are circular and one
-bigger than the other, they say that we must interpret them in the same
-kind of way in which view (1) interpreted them; and the only difference
-between their view and view (1), is that, whereas _that_ said that you
-must give a Pickwickian interpretation _both_ to the assertion that the
-coins _exist, and_ to the assertion that they are _circular_, they say
-that you must _not_ give it to the former assertion, and must to the
-latter.
-
-To this view my objection is only that any reason there may be for
-saying that the "sources" exist in other than a Pickwickian sense,
-seems to me to be also a reason for saying that they are "circular" in
-a sense that is not Pickwickian. I have just as strong a propensity to
-believe that they are really circular, in a simple and natural sense,
-as that they exist in such a sense: and I know of no better reason for
-believing either.
-
-(3) It may be suggested, next, that these "sources," instead of being
-something spiritual in their nature or something of a nature utterly
-unknown, consist simply of sensibles, of a kind which I have previously
-tried to define; namely of all those sensibles, which anybody _would,_
-under the actual physical conditions, experience in _sensations proper_
-of which the half-crown and the florin were the source, _if_ their
-bodies were in any of the positions relatively to those coins, in which
-they would get sensations from them at all. We saw before that it seems
-_possible_ that all these sensibles do really exist at times when they
-are not experienced, and that some people, at all events, seem to have
-a strong propensity to believe that they do. And in favour of the view
-that some such huge collection of sensibles _is_ the upper side of the
-half-crown, is the fact that we do seem to have a strong propensity
-to believe that any particular sensible, which we directly apprehend
-in looking at the upper side of the half-crown, and of our direct
-apprehension of which the upper side is the source, is _in the place_
-in which the upper side is. And that _some_ sense might be given to
-the expression "in the same place as," in which it could be true that
-sensibles of all sorts of different shapes and sizes, and of all sorts
-of different colours, were in the same place at the same time, seems to
-me to be possible. But the objection to this view seems to me to be the
-same as to the last; namely that if the upper side of the half-crown
-were identical with such a collection of sensibles, then the only sense
-in which it could be said to be "circular," or bigger than that of the
-florin, would certainly be very Pickwickian, though not the same as on
-that view.
-
-(4) If, for the reasons given, we reject both (1), (2), and (3) as
-interpretations of our five propositions, the only alternative I
-can think of that remains, is one which is roughly identical, so far
-as I can see, with Locke's view. It is a view which asserts that the
-half-crown and the florin really did exist (in the natural sense)
-before I saw them; that they really are approximately circular (again
-in the natural sense); that, therefore, they are not composed of
-sensibles which I or others should directly apprehend under other
-conditions; and that therefore also neither these sensibles (even if
-such do now exist) nor those which I am now directly apprehending are
-in the place in which the coins are. It holds, therefore, that the
-coins do really _resemble_ some sensibles, in respect of the "primary"
-qualities which these have; that they really are round, and one larger
-than the other, in much the same sense in which some sensibles are
-round and some larger than others. But it holds also that no sensibles
-which we ever do directly apprehend, or should directly apprehend, if
-at a given time we were in other positions, are _parts_ of those coins;
-and that, therefore, there is no reason to suppose that any parts of
-the coins have any of the "secondary qualities"--colour, etc.--which
-any of these sensibles have.
-
-On this view, it is plain, there is nothing to prevent us from holding
-that, as suggested in I (3), all sorts of unexperienced sensibles do
-exist. We are only prevented from holding that, if they do, those which
-have the same source all exist in the _same place_ as their source.
-And the natural view to take as to the status of sensibles generally,
-relatively to physical objects, would be that none of them, whether
-experienced or not, were ever in the same place as any physical object.
-That none, therefore, exist "anywhere" in physical space; while, at the
-same time, we can also say, as argued in I (2), that none exist "in the
-mind," except in the sense that some are directly apprehended by some
-minds. And the only thing that would need to be added, is that some,
-and some only, _resemble_ the physical objects which are their source,
-in respect of their shape.
-
-To this view I can see no objection except the serious one that it
-is difficult to answer the questions: How can I ever come to know
-that these sensibles have a "source" at all? And how do I know that
-these "sources" are circular? It would seem that, if I do know these
-things at all, I must know _immediately_, in the case of _some_
-sensibles, both that they have a source and what the shape of this
-source is. And to this it may be objected that this is a kind of thing
-which I certainly cannot know immediately. The argument in favour
-of an interpretation of type (i) seems to me to rest wholly on the
-assumption that there are only certain kinds of facts which I can know
-immediately; and hence that if I believe I know a fact, which is not of
-this kind, and which also I cannot have learnt immediately, my belief
-must be a mere prejudice. But I do not know how it can be shown that an
-assertion of the form: Facts of certain kinds are the only ones you can
-know immediately; is itself not a prejudice. I do not think, therefore,
-that the fact that, if this last view were true, we should have to
-admit that we know immediately facts of a kind which many people think
-we cannot know immediately, is a conclusive objection to it.
-
-
-
-
-THE CONCEPTION OF REALITY
-
-
-The fourth chapter of Mr. Bradley's _Appearance and Reality_ is a
-chapter headed "Space and Time," and he begins the chapter as follows:--
-
-"The object of this chapter is far from being an attempt to discuss
-fully the nature of space or of time. It will content itself with
-stating our main justification for regarding them as appearances. It
-will explain why we deny that, _in the character which they exhibit_,
-they either _have_ or _belong_ to reality."[1]
-
-Here, it will be seen, Mr. Bradley states that, in his opinion, Time,
-_in a certain character_, neither has nor belongs to reality; this is
-the conclusion he wishes to maintain. And to say that Time _has not_
-reality would seem to be plainly equivalent to saying that Time _is
-not_ real. However, if anybody should doubt whether the two phrases
-are meant to be equivalent, the doubt may be easily set at rest by
-a reference to the concluding words of the same chapter, where Mr.
-Bradley uses the following very emphatic expression: "Time," he says,
-"like space, has most evidently proved _not to be real,_ but to be a
-contradictory appearance" (p. 43). Mr. Bradley does, then, say here,
-in so many words, that Time _is not_ real. But there is one other
-difference between this statement at the end of the chapter, and the
-statement at the beginning of it, which we must not forget to notice.
-In the statement at the beginning he carefully qualifies the assertion
-"Time neither has nor belongs to reality" by saying "Time, _in the
-character which it exhibits,_ neither has nor belongs to reality,"
-whereas in the final statement this qualification is not inserted;
-here he says simply "Time is not real." This qualification, which is
-inserted in the one place and omitted in the other, might, of course,
-be meant to imply that, in some _other_ character--some character which
-it does _not_ exhibit--Time _has_ reality and does belong to it. And I
-shall presently have something to say about this distinction between
-Time in one character and Time in another, because it might be thought
-that this distinction is the explanation of the difficulty as to Mr.
-Bradley's meaning, which I am going to point out.
-
-However, so far it is clear that Mr. Bradley holds that _in some
-sense,_ at all events, the whole proposition "Time is not real" can be
-truly asserted. And, now, I want to quote a passage in which he says
-things which, at first sight, seem difficult to reconcile with this
-view. This new passage is a passage in which he is not talking of Time
-in particular, but of "appearances" in general. But, as we have seen,
-he does regard Time as one among appearances, and I think there is no
-doubt that what he here declares to be true of all appearances is meant
-to be true of Time, among the rest. This new passage is as follows:--
-
-"For the present," he says,[2] "we may keep a fast hold upon this,
-that appearances _exist._ That is absolutely certain, and to deny it
-is nonsense. And whatever exists must _belong to reality._ This is
-also quite certain, and its denial once more is self-contradictory.
-Our appearances, no doubt, may be a beggarly show, and their nature to
-an unknown extent may be something which, _as it is,_ is _not_ true
-of reality. That is one thing, and it is quite another thing to speak
-as if these facts had no actual existence, or as if there could be
-anything but reality to which they might belong. And I must venture to
-repeat that such an idea would be sheer nonsense. What appears, for
-that sole reason, most indubitably _is;_ and there is no possibility of
-conjuring its being away from it."
-
-That is the passage which seems to me to raise a difficulty as to his
-meaning when contrasted with the former passage. And the reason why it
-seems to me to raise one is this. In the former passage Mr. Bradley
-declared most emphatically that Time is not real; he said: "Time has
-_most evidently_ proved not to be real." Whereas in this one he seems
-to declare equally emphatically that Time _does_ exist, and _is._ And
-his language here again is as strong as possible. He says it is sheer
-nonsense to suppose that Time does _not_ exist, is _not_ a fact, does
-_not_ belong to reality. It looks, therefore, as if he meant to make
-a distinction between "being real" on the one hand, and "existing,"
-"being a fact," and "being" on the other hand--as if he meant to say
-that a thing may exist, and be, and be a fact, and yet _not_ be real.
-And I think there is, at all events, some superficial difficulty in
-understanding this distinction. We might naturally think that to say
-"Time exists, is a fact, and is," is equivalent to saying that it is
-real. What more, we might ask, can a man who says that Time _is_ real
-mean to maintain about it than that it exists, is a fact, and is? All
-that most people would mean by saying that time is real could, it would
-seem, be expressed by saying "There is such a thing as Time." And it
-might, therefore, appear from this new passage as if Mr. Bradley fully
-agreed with the view that most people would express by saying "Time is
-real"--as if he did not at all mean to contradict anything that most
-people believe about Time. But, if so, then what are we to make of his
-former assertion that, nevertheless, Time is _not_ real? He evidently
-thinks that, in asserting this, he is asserting something which is
-_not_ mere nonsense; and he certainly would not have chosen this way of
-expressing what he means, unless he had supposed that what he is here
-asserting about Time is incompatible with what people _often_ mean when
-they say "Time is real." Yet, we have seen that he thinks that what he
-is asserting is _not_ incompatible with the assertions that Time is,
-and is a fact, and exists. He must, therefore, think that when people
-say "Time is real" they often, at least, mean something _more_ than
-merely that there _is_ such a thing as Time, something therefore, which
-may be denied, without denying this. All the same, there is, I think, a
-real difficulty in seeing that they ever _do_ mean anything more, and,
-_if_ they do, what more it is that they can mean.
-
-The two expressions "There _is_ such a thing as so and so" and "So
-and so is real" are certainly sometimes and quite naturally used as
-equivalents, even if they are not always so used. And Mr. Bradley's own
-language implies that this is so. For, as we have seen, in the first
-passage, he seems to identify belonging to reality with being real.
-The conclusion which he expresses in one place by saying that Time
-does not belong to reality he expresses in another by saying that it
-is not real; whereas in the second passage he seems to identify the
-meaning of the same phrase "belonging to reality" with _existing;_
-he says that whatever exists must belong to reality, and that it is
-self-contradictory to deny this. But if both being real and existing
-are identical with belonging to reality, it would seem they must be
-identical with one another. And, indeed, in another passage in the
-Appendix to the 2nd Edition (p. 555) we find Mr. Bradley actually using
-the following words: "Anything," he says, "that in any sense _is,_
-qualifies the absolute reality and so is real." Moreover, as we have
-seen, he declares it to be nonsense to deny that Time _is_; he must,
-therefore, allow that, _in a sense,_ at all events, it is nonsense to
-deny that Time is real. And yet this denial is the very one he has
-made. Mr. Bradley, therefore, does seem himself to allow that the word
-"real" may, _sometimes_ at all events, be properly used as equivalent
-to the words "exists," "is a fact," "is." And yet his two assertions
-cannot both be true, unless there is _some_ sense in which the whole
-proposition "Time is real" is _not_ equivalent to and cannot be
-inferred from "Time is," or "Time exists," or "Time is a fact."
-
-It seems, then, pretty clear that Mr. Bradley must be holding that the
-statement "Time is real" is in _one_ sense, _not_ equivalent to "Time
-exists"; though he admits that, in _another_ sense, it is. And I will
-only quote one other passage which seems to make this plain.
-
-"If," he says later on (p. 206) "Time is not unreal, I admit that our
-Absolute is a delusion; but, on the other side, it will be urged that
-time cannot be mere appearance. The change in the finite subject, we
-are told, is a matter of direct experience; it is a fact, and hence it
-cannot be explained away. And so much of course is indubitable. Change
-is a fact and, further, _this fact, as such,_ is _not_ reconcilable
-with the Absolute. And, if we could not in any way perceive how _the
-fact_ can be _unreal,_ we should be placed, I admit, in a hopeless
-dilemma.... But our real position is very different from this. For time
-has been shown to contradict itself, and so to be appearance. With
-this, its discord, we see at once, may pass as an element into a wider
-harmony. And with this, the _appeal to fact_ at once becomes worthless."
-
-"It is mere superstition to suppose that an appeal to experience can
-prove _reality._ That I find something in existence in the world or in
-my self, shows that this something _exists_, and it cannot show _more._
-Any deliverance of consciousness--whether original or acquired--is
-but a deliverance of consciousness. It is in no case an oracle and a
-revelation which we have to accept as it is a fact, like other facts,
-to be dealt with; and there is no presumption anywhere that any _fact_
-is better than appearance."
-
-Here Mr. Bradley seems plainly to imply that to be "real" is something
-_more_ and other than to be a fact or to exist. This is the distinction
-which I think he means to make, and which, I think, is the real
-explanation of his puzzling language, and this is the distinction which
-I am going presently to discuss. But I want first to say something
-as to that other distinction, which I said might be supposed to be
-the explanation of the whole difficulty--the distinction implied by
-the qualification "Time, _in the character which it exhibits_"; the
-suggestion that, when we talk of "Time," we may sometimes mean Time in
-one character, sometimes in another, and that what is true of it in the
-one character may not be true of it in the other. It might, I think, be
-suggested that this is the explanation of the whole difficulty. And I
-want briefly to point out why I think it cannot be the only explanation.
-
-Stated very badly and crudely, the difficulty which requires
-explanation is this: Mr. Bradley says, "It is sheer nonsense to say
-Time is not real." But this thing which he says it is sheer nonsense
-to say is the very thing which he himself had formerly said. He had
-said, "Time has most evidently proved not to be real." Now, Mr. Bradley
-certainly does not mean to say that this proposition of his own is
-sheer nonsense; and yet he says, in words, that it _is_ sheer nonsense.
-This is the difficulty. What is the explanation? Quite obviously,
-the explanation can only take one possible form. Mr. Bradley must be
-holding that the words "Time is real" may have two different _senses._
-In one sense, the denial of them is sheer nonsense; in the other sense,
-so far from being sheer nonsense, denial of them is, according to him,
-evidently true. Now, what are these two different senses, between
-which the difference is so enormous? It is here that the two different
-explanations come in.
-
-The first and, as I think, the wrong explanation (though I think Mr.
-Bradley's words do give some colour to it) is this. It might be said:
-"The whole business is perfectly easy to explain. When Mr. Bradley
-says that Time is _not_ real, what he means is that Time, _in the
-character which it exhibits,_ is not real. Whereas, when he says, Time
-does exist, is a fact, and is, and that it is nonsense to deny this,
-what he means is that Time does exist, _in some other character_--some
-character _other_ than that which it exhibits. He does _not_ mean to
-make any distinction, such as you suppose, between two meanings of
-the word I real '--the one of them merely equivalent to 'exists,'
-'is,' 'is a fact,' and the other meaning something very different from
-this. The only distinction he means to make is a distinction between
-_two_ meanings of 'Time' or of the whole sentence 'Time is real.' He
-distinguishes between the meaning of this sentence, when it means,
-'Time in the character which it exhibits, is real,' which meaning, he
-says, is evidently false; and its meaning when it means, 'Time in _some
-other_ character, is real,' and this meaning, he says, is evidently
-true. This is the complete explanation of your supposed puzzle, which
-is, in fact, therefore, very easy to solve."
-
-This, I think, might be offered as an explanation of Mr. Bradley's
-meaning. And it must be admitted that it _would_ furnish a complete
-explanation of the particular puzzle I have just stated, it would
-completely absolve Mr. Bradley from the charge of inconsistency; and
-would show that where he appears to contradict himself about the
-reality of Time, the contradiction is verbal only and not real. We
-might, indeed, object to this distinction between Time in one character
-and Time in another; on the ground that anything which has not got the
-character which Time exhibits, but only some _other_ character, ought
-not to be called Time at all. We are, indeed, perfectly familiar with
-the conception that one and the same thing may _at one time_ possess a
-character which it does _not_ possess at another, so that what is true
-of it at one time may not be true of it at another. We are, that is,
-familiar with the idea of a thing _changing_ its character. But Time
-itself as a whole obviously cannot change its character in this sense.
-Mr. Bradley cannot mean to say that it possesses the character "which
-it exhibits" and in which it is unreal _at one time,_ and possesses
-some other character, in which it is real, at _some other time._ And
-hence we might say it is certainly wrong to speak as if Time itself
-could have two incompatible characters; since nothing can have two
-incompatible characters, unless it has them _at different times._ And
-this is an objection which does seem to apply to Mr. Bradley's doctrine
-in any case, since he does in any case seem to imply this distinction
-between Time in one character and Time in another, whether this
-distinction is the complete explanation of our particular puzzle or
-not. Yet this objection would not necessarily be more than an objection
-to Mr. Bradley's words; it would not necessarily be an objection to
-his meaning. Where he seems to imply that Time, in some character
-other than that which it exhibits, may be fully real, he may only mean
-that something completely different from Time, but which does in some
-sense correspond to it, is fully real; and if he does mean this, our
-objection would only amount to an objection to his giving the name of
-"Time" to this supposed counterpart of Time; we might say, and I think
-justly, that it is misleading to speak of this counterpart of Time as
-if it were Time itself in some other character; but this would go no
-way at all to show that there may not really be such a counterpart of
-Time, which _is_ real, while Time itself is unreal. We might ask, too,
-what this supposed counterpart of Time is like, or (to put it in Mr.
-Bradley's way) what the precise character is, in which Time Areal? And
-I think Mr. Bradley would admit that he cannot tell us. But this, you
-see, would also be no objection to his actual doctrine. He might quite
-well know, and be right in saying, that there is and must be a real
-_counterpart_ of Time, completely different in character from Time, as
-we know it, even though he has not the least idea what this counterpart
-is like.
-
-We must, therefore, admit that this proposed explanation of our puzzle
-would be a complete explanation of it. It would completely vindicate
-Mr. Bradley from the charge of inconsistency, and would give us, as
-his doctrine, a doctrine to which we have hitherto found no objection
-except verbal ones.
-
-But, nevertheless, I think it is a wrong explanation, and I want to
-explain why. If we were to suppose that this distinction between Time
-in one character and Time in another were the only one on which Mr.
-Bradley meant to rely, we should have as his doctrine this: We should
-have to suppose him to affirm most emphatically that Time, in the
-character which it exhibits, neither is real, _nor_ exists, _nor_ is
-a fact, _nor_ is. We should have to suppose him to be using all these
-four expressions always as strict equivalents, and to mean that it
-is _only_ in its other character that Time either exists, or is a
-fact, or is. And if he did mean this, there would, of course, be no
-doubt whatever that he does mean to contradict the common view with
-regard to Time; since, of course, what most people mean by "Time" is
-what he chooses to call "Time in the character which it exhibits."
-Yet, his language, even in the passages that I quoted, seems to me
-to indicate that he does not mean this. I think, on the contrary,
-he means to affirm emphatically that Time _even_ in the character
-which it exhibits, does exist, _is_ a fact, and indubitably _is,_
-though it is _not_ real in that character. In the second passage, for
-instance, where he insists so emphatically that appearances do exist,
-are facts, and indubitably _are,_ he is, I think, plainly talking of
-appearances, in the character which they exhibit--or, as he there puts
-it, their nature, _as it is_--he does, I think, mean that appearances,
-even in this character, are facts, exist, and are, though, in this
-character, they are not "true of reality." And, so again in the third
-passage, where he says, Change _is_ a fact, and this fact, _as such,_
-is not reconcilable with the Absolute; this language is surely quite
-inexcusable, unless he means that Change, as such--change, in the
-_character which it exhibits_--change, _as it is, is_ a fact: though,
-of course, he holds that _in_ this character it certainly is not real.
-I think, therefore, we have to assume that Mr. Bradley means to make
-a distinction not merely between Time, in one character, and Time in
-another, but also between "real," in one sense, and "real" in another.
-His meaning is not so simple as it would be, if he were merely making
-a distinction between Time in one character and Time in another, and
-it is not, after all, at all plain whether he means to contradict what
-ordinary people hold about Time or not. He does not mean to assert that
-Time, _as such, neither_ is real, _nor_ exists, _nor_ is a fact, _nor_
-is; but, on the contrary, that Time, even _as such,_ does exist, _is_
-a fact, and _is_; _but,_ nevertheless, is not real. This, at least,
-is what I am going to assume him to mean. And on this assumption, we
-are brought face to face with the question as to the meaning of the
-word "real," and also as to the meaning of these other words "exists,"
-"is a fact," and "is." Mr. Bradley seems to admit, we have seen, that
-"real" may _sometimes_ be properly used as _merely_ equivalent to
-these other phrases. We are, however, now supposing that he also holds
-that in another sense they are not equivalent, but that "real" means
-something more than the others, so that it is quite consistent to
-maintain that Time is _not_ "real," and yet _does_ exist, is a fact,
-and is. In holding this I think he is mistaken; and what I want to do
-is to explain, as clearly as I can, what sort of a mistake I take him
-to be making, and what seems to me to be the source of this mistake. I
-may, perhaps, be quite wrong in thinking that Mr Bradley has made this
-mistake, and that it is in any degree the source of the distinction he
-seems to draw between "reality" and "existence." To maintain that it is
-so is no part of my main object. My main object is simply to make clear
-the nature of this particular mistake, whether committed by Mr. Bradley
-or not, and that it is a mistake; because it seems to me that it is a
-mistake which it is very easy to make, and very important to avoid. I
-am, of course, not concerned at all to discuss the question whether
-Time _is_ real or not, but only to discuss the question what sort of
-things would have to be true, if it were unreal, and whether if those
-things were true it could still be true that Time either exists, or is,
-or is a fact.
-
-Now, to begin with, I think I know pretty well, in part at least, what
-Mr. Bradley means when he says that it is unreal. I think that part
-at least of what he means is just what he _ought_ to mean--just what
-anyone else would mean if he said that Time was unreal, and what any
-ordinary person would understand to be meant, if he heard those words.
-But I can conceive that, when I have explained as well as I can what
-this is that he _ought_ to mean, some people may be inclined to dispute
-whether he means any such thing at all. They may say that he is using
-the word "real" exclusively in some highly unusual and special sense,
-so that in asserting that "Time is unreal" he is by no means denying
-any part of what ordinary people would mean by saying that "Time is
-real." And that some special sense may _come in_ to his meaning I
-am prepared to admit. I do think it is possible that _part_ of what
-Mr. Bradley is asserting may be something which no unsophisticated
-person would think of expressing in the same way, and I will admit,
-therefore, that he does not, very likely, mean by "Time is unreal"
-_merely_ what other people would mean by this phrase, but something
-else _as well._ What, however, I cannot help thinking is that, even
-if he means something more, he _does_ mean what ordinary people would
-mean _as well_: that what they would mean is at least a _part_ of his
-meaning. And if even this is disputed, if it is maintained that he is
-using the words _exclusively_ in some special sense, I own I do not
-know how to argue the question. If anybody really does take the view
-that, when he says "Time is unreal," absolutely all that he means is
-something which is in no way incompatible with what most people would
-mean by saying "Time is real," I do not know how to show that this view
-is wrong. I can only say that if this _had_ been all that he meant,
-I cannot believe that he would have expressed his view in the form
-"Time is unreal." The only further argument I shall bring in favour
-of my view that he does mean what he ought to mean will take the form
-of an answer to one possible argument which might be brought against
-it. When I nave explained what he _ought_ to mean by saying that "Time
-is unreal," it will be quite clear that this is something which is in
-fact incompatible with the truth of the propositions that Time _is,_
-or _exists,_ or _is a fact._ And it might be urged that the fact that
-it is thus incompatible is a strong argument against the view that
-Mr. Bradley does mean what he _ought_ to mean, since, if he had meant
-it, he could hardly have failed to perceive that what he meant _was_
-inconsistent with these propositions, whereas, as we have seen, he
-certainly does not perceive this. I have an answer to that argument,
-which consists in giving an explanation, which I think a plausible
-one, as to how he could come to think that the propositions are _not_
-inconsistent, when in fact they are.
-
-What, then, _ought_ Mr. Bradley to mean by "Time is unreal"? What
-would most people mean by this proposition? I do not think there is
-much difficulty in discovering what sort of thing they would mean by
-it. Of course, Time, with a big T, seems to be a highly abstract kind
-of entity, and to define _exactly_ what can be meant by saying of an
-entity of that sort that it is unreal does seem to offer difficulties.
-But if you try to translate the proposition into the concrete, and to
-ask what it _implies,_ there is, I think, very little doubt as to the
-sort of thing it implies. The moment you try to do this, and think what
-it really comes to, you at once begin thinking of a number of different
-_kinds_ of propositions, all of which plainly must be untrue, if Time
-is unreal. If Time is unreal, then plainly nothing ever happens before
-or after anything else; nothing is ever simultaneous with anything
-else; it is never true that anything is past; never true that anything
-will happen in the future; never true that anything is happening now;
-and so on. You can at once think of a considerable number of kinds of
-propositions (and you could easily add to the list), the falsehood of
-all of which is plainly implied by saying that Time is unreal. And it
-is clear, also, that to say that the falsehood of all propositions of
-these kinds is implied is equivalent to saying that there are no facts
-of certain corresponding kinds--no facts which consist in one event
-happening before another; none which consist in an event being past or
-future, and so on. That is to say, what "Time is unreal" implies is
-that, in the case of a large number of different _properties_ which
-are such that, if they _did_ belong to anything, what they belonged
-to would be facts having some common characteristic, which we might
-express by calling them "temporal facts," the properties in question
-do, in fact, belong to nothing. It implies that the property of being a
-fact which consists in one event following another belongs to nothing;
-that that of being a past event belongs to nothing, and so on. And
-why it implies that all those different special properties belong to
-nothing is, I think we may say, because what it _means_ is that the
-general property which I have called that of being a "temporal fact"
-belongs to nothing. To say that the property of being a temporal fact
-belongs to nothing _does imply_ that such special properties as that
-of being a fact which consists in one event following another, or that
-of being a fact which consists in something being past, also belong to
-nothing; in exactly the same way as to say that the property of being
-"coloured" belongs to nothing _implies_ with regard to the special
-properties "being red," "being blue," etc., that they also belong to
-nothing. We may, then, I think, say that what "Time is unreal" _means_
-is simply "The property of being a temporal fact belongs to nothing,"
-or, to express this in the way in which it would be expressed in
-ordinary life, "There _are_ no temporal facts." And this being so, we
-have explained the usage of "unreal," where it is predicated of Time
-with a capital T, by reference to a much more common and perfectly
-familiar usage of the term. The use of "is unreal" in the phrase "Time
-is unreal" has been defined by reference to its use in the phrase
-"Temporal facts are unreal." And its use in this phrase is, so far as
-I can see, exactly the same as in hosts of phrases with which we are
-perfectly familiar; it is, I think, _the_ commonest and by far the most
-important use of the term "unreal." The use is that in which we use it
-when we say, "Unicorns are unreal," "Griffins are unreal," "Chimæras
-are unreal," and so on. It is the usage in which unreal is equivalent
-to "imaginary"; and in which to say "Unicorns are unreal" means the
-same as "There are no unicorns" or "Unicorns do not exist." In just
-the same way the proposition "Temporal facts are unreal," into which
-we have translated "Time is unreal," means the same as "There are no
-temporal facts," or "Temporal facts do not exist," or "Temporal facts
-are imaginary."
-
-I think, then, that what Mr. Bradley _ought_ to mean by "Time is
-unreal" can be defined by reference to one particular usage of the word
-"real" --or, if you like to put it that way, to one particular one
-among the conceptions for which the term "reality" may stand. And this
-particular conception seems to me to be by far the commonest and most
-important of those for which the term does stand. I want, therefore,
-before going on, to dwell a little upon its nature; although I daresay
-that all that I have to say is perfectly familiar and perfectly well
-understood by every one here. Of course, it has often been said before,
-but I think it is still very far from being generally understood.
-
-I think, perhaps, the point I want to insist on can be brought out in
-this way. I have just said that we have pointed out one particular
-one, and that the most important, among the conceptions for which the
-term "reality" may stand; and that is an excusable way of saying what
-we have done. But it would, I think, be more correct to say that we
-have pointed out one particular, and that the most important, usage
-of the terms "real" and "unreal," and that one of the peculiarities
-of this usage is that it is such that the terms "real" and "unreal"
-cannot, when used in this way, be properly said to stand for any
-conception whatever. I will try to explain what I mean. We have said
-that what "Lions are real" _means_ is that some particular property or
-other--I will say, for the sake of brevity, _the_ property of being
-a lion, though that is not strictly accurate, does In fact _belong
-to_ some-thing--that there are things which have it, or, to put it
-in another way, that the conception of being a lion is a conception
-which does apply to some things--that there are things which _fall
-under_ it. And similarly what "Unicorns are _unreal"_ means is that the
-property of being a unicorn belongs to _nothing_. Now, if this is so,
-then it seems to me, in a very important sense, "real" and "unreal"
-do _not_ in this usage stand for any conceptions at all. The only
-_conceptions_ which occur in the proposition "Lions are real" are, on
-this interpretation, plainly, (1) the conception of being a lion, and
-(2) the conception of belonging to something, and perfectly obviously
-"real" does not stand for either of these. In the case of the first
-that is obvious; but it is worth while pointing out that it is also
-true of the second.
-
-For if "is real" did stand for "belongs to something," then the
-proposition "Lions are real" would stand, not for the assertion
-that the property of "being a lion" belongs to something, but for
-the assertion that lions themselves _are properties which belong to
-something_; and it is quite obvious that what we mean to assert is
-not any such nonsense as this. "Real," therefore, does not, in this
-proposition, stand for the conception of "belonging to something" nor
-yet, quite plainly, does it stand for the conception of "being a lion."
-And hence, since these are the only two conceptions which do occur in
-the proposition, we may, I think, say that "real," in this usage, does
-not stand for any conception at all. To say that it did would be to
-imply that it stood for some property of which we are asserting that
-everything which has the property of "being a lion" _also_ has this
-other property. But we are not, in fact, asserting any such thing. We
-are not asserting of any property called "reality" that it belongs to
-lions, as in the proposition "Lions are mammalian" we _are_ asserting
-of the property of "being a mammal" that _it_ belongs to lions. The
-two propositions "Lions are real" and "Lions are mammalian," though
-grammatically similar, are in reality of wholly different forms; and
-one difference between them may be expressed by saying that whereas
-"mammalian" does stand for a property or conception, the very point of
-this usage of "real" is that it does not.
-
-To return to Mr. Bradley. "Time is unreal" _ought_ to mean, according
-to me, "Temporal facts are unreal," in the sense I have tried to
-explain. And I cannot help thinking that this which he _ought_ to mean
-is, in part at least, what Mr. Bradley _does_ mean when he says "Time
-is unreal," though possibly be also means something else as well. But
-if so, it is quite clear, I think, that what he means is inconsistent
-with its being true that Time exists or that there is such a thing as
-Time. To say that Time exists or that there is such a thing, is to
-assert at least, that there are some temporal facts: it may assert more
-than this, but it does assert this, at least. And this, we have seen,
-is exactly what is denied when it is said that Time is unreal. "Time
-is unreal" just means "Temporal facts are unreal," _or_ "there are no
-temporal facts," _or_ "Temporal facts do not exist." And just this is
-also what is meant by "Time does not exist" or "There is no such thing
-as Time." There is, in fact, nothing, else for these expressions to
-mean. What, therefore, Mr. Bradley _ought_ to mean and (according to
-me) does mean by "Time is unreal" is, in fact, inconsistent with what
-he ought to mean by "Time exists" or by "Time is." And yet plainly he
-does not think that it is so. Is it possible to explain why he should
-have failed to perceive the inconsistency?
-
-I think his failure can be explained as follows. It may have been
-noticed that, in the passages I quoted from him, he insists in one
-place, that to deny that appearances exist is not merely false but
-_self-contradictory,_ and in another appeals to the principle that "any
-deliverance of consciousness is but a deliverance of consciousness" in
-support of his contention that what _is_ a fact need, nevertheless,
-_not_ be real. And the fact that he does these two things does, I
-think, give colour to the suggestion that the reason why he thinks that
-what is unreal may yet exist, and be a fact, and be, is the following.
-It is undoubtedly the case that, even if temporal facts are unreal,
-_i.e.,_ there _are_ no such things, we can and do _think of them,_ just
-as it is undoubtedly the case that, though unicorns are unreal, we can
-and do imagine them. In other words, "temporal facts" and "unicorns"
-are both quite certainly "deliverances of consciousness," at least
-in the sense that they are "objects of thought"; being "objects of
-thought" they are, in a wide sense, "appearances" also, and I cannot
-help thinking that Mr. Bradley supposes that, merely because they are
-so, they _must_ at least BE. "How" (I imagine he would ask) "can a
-thing 'appear' or even 'be thought of' unless it is there to appear and
-to be thought of? To say that it appears or is thought of, and that yet
-there is no such thing, is plainly self-contradictory. A thing cannot
-have a property, unless it is there to have it, and, since unicorns
-and temporal facts _do_ have the property of being thought of, there
-certainly must be such things. When I think of a unicorn, what I am
-thinking of is certainly not nothing; if it were nothing, then, when
-I think of a griffin, I should also be thinking of nothing, and there
-would be no difference between thinking of a griffin and thinking
-of a unicorn. But there certainly is a difference; and what can the
-difference be except that in the one case what I am thinking of is a
-unicorn, and in the other a griffin? And if the unicorn is what I am
-thinking of, then there certainly must _be_ a unicorn, in spite of the
-fact that unicorns are unreal. In other words, though in one sense of
-the words there certainly _are_ no unicorns--that sense, namely, in
-which to assert that there are would be equivalent to asserting that
-unicorns are real--yet there _must_ be _some_ other sense in which
-there _are_ such things; since, _if_ there were not, we could not think
-of them."
-
-Perhaps, it may be thought that the fallacy involved in this argument
-is too gross for it to be possible that Mr. Bradley should have
-been guilty of it. But there are other passages in _Appearance and
-Reality_--particularly what he says about Error --which look to me as
-if he certainly was guilty of it. I suppose it will be quite obvious to
-everyone here that it is a fallacy; that the fact that we can think of
-unicorns is not sufficient to prove that, in any sense at all, there
-_are_ any unicorns. Yet, I am not sure that I know myself what is _the_
-mistake involved in thinking that it _is_ sufficient, and I am going,
-therefore, to try to put as clearly as I can, what I think it is, in
-the hope that somebody may be able, if I am wrong, to correct me.
-
-The main mistake, I suppose, is the mistake of thinking that the
-proposition "Unicorns are thought of" is a proposition of the same form
-as "Lions are hunted"; or the proposition "I am thinking of a unicorn"
-of the same form as "I am hunting a lion"; or the proposition "Unicorns
-are objects of thought" of the same form as "Lions are objects of the
-chase." Of the second proposition in each of these three pairs, it is
-in fact the case that it could not be true unless there were lions--at
-least one. Each of them does, in fact, assert both with regard to a
-certain property--which we will call that of "being a lion"--that there
-_are_ things which possess it, and also with regard to another--that of
-being hunted--that some of the things which possess the former possess
-this property too. But it is obvious enough to common sense that the
-same is by no means true of the _first_ proposition in each pair, in
-spite of the fact that their grammatical expression shows no trace of
-the difference. It is perfectly obvious that if I say "I am thinking of
-a unicorn,"
-
-I am not saying both that there is a unicorn and that I am thinking of
-it, although, if I say "I am hunting a lion," I am saying both that
-there is a lion, and that I am hunting it. In the former case,
-
-I am _not_ asserting that the two properties of being a unicorn and of
-being thought of by me both belong to one and the same thing; whereas,
-in the latter case, I am asserting that the two properties of being a
-lion and of being hunted by me _do_ belong to one and the same thing.
-It is quite clear that there is _in fact_, this difference between
-the two propositions; although no trace of it appears in their verbal
-expression. And why we should use the same form of verbal expression
-to convey such different meanings is more than I can say. It seems to
-me very curious that language, in this, as in the other instance which
-we have just considered of "Lions are real" and "Lions are mammalian,"
-should have grown up just as if it were expressly designed to mislead
-philosophers; and I do not know why it should have. Yet, it seems to
-me there is no doubt that in ever so many instances it has. Moreover,
-_exactly_ what _is_ meant by saying "I am thinking of a unicorn" is
-not by any means clear to me. I think we can assert at least this:
-In order that this proposition should be true, it is necessary (1)
-that I should be conceiving, with regard to a certain property, the
-hypothesis that there Is something which possesses it, and (2) that the
-property in question should be such that, if anything did possess it
-there would be a unicorn. Although this is plainly true, it does not
-give us completely what is _meant_ by the statement, "I am thinking
-of a unicorn"; and I do not know what the complete meaning is. It is
-certainly _not_ that I am conceiving with regard to the property of
-"being a unicorn," that there is something which possesses it; since
-I may be thinking of a unicorn, without ever having conceived the
-property of "being a unicorn" at all. Whatever it does mean, the point
-which concerns us is that it is certainly _not_ necessary for its
-truth, that the property of being a unicorn should, in fact, belong
-to anything whatever, or, therefore, that there should in any sense
-whatever _be_ a unicorn. And the fallacy I am attributing to Mr.
-Bradley is that of supposing that, _in some sense,_ it must imply this
-latter.
-
-This, then, is what I imagine to be at least one of the reasons
-which have led Mr. Bradley to suppose that the proposition "Time is
-unreal," _must_ be consistent with the proposition "There _is_ such
-a thing as Time." Put shortly, it is that he sees (what is perfectly
-true) that "Time is unreal" _must_ be consistent with "We do think of
-Time;" he thinks (falsely) that "We _do_ think of Time" must imply,
-in some sense, "There _is_ such a thing as Time;" and finally, infers
-(correctly) from this true and this false premiss, that there _must_ be
-some sense of the proposition "There is such a thing as Time" which is
-consistent with "Time is unreal."
-
-It follows, then, that if Mr. Bradley means what he ought mean _both_
-by "Time is unreal" _and_ by "Time exists," he is contradicting himself
-when he combines these two propositions. And I have said I feel
-convinced that he _does_ mean what he ought to mean by the former.
-But I feel a good deal of doubt as to whether, all the same, he is
-contradicting himself, because it does seem to me doubtful whether he
-means what he ought to mean by the latter. The kind of thing which I
-imagine may be happening to him when he insists so strongly that Time
-_does_ exist, _is a fact,_ and _is,_ is that, properly speaking, he is
-not attaching to these phrases any meaning whatever--_not,_ therefore,
-that which they properly bear. It seems to me very possible that he
-has so strongly convinced himself of the false proposition that there
-_must_ be _some_ sense in which, if I think of a unicorn, there must
-_be_ a unicorn, that wherever he knows the former proposition holds,
-he allows himself to use the latter _form of words,_ without attaching
-any meaning to them. What he is really asserting so emphatically may,
-I think, be not anything which his words stand for, but simply this
-verbal proposition that there _must_ be _some_ sense in which they are
-true.
-
-
-[1] _Appearance and Reality_ (2nd edn.), p. 35. The Italics are mine.
-
-[2] _Op. cit._ pp. 131-2.
-
-
-
-
-SOME JUDGMENTS OF PERCEPTION
-
-
-I want to raise some childishly simple questions as to what we are
-doing when we make judgments of a certain kind, which we all do in fact
-exceedingly commonly make. The kind of judgments I mean are those which
-we make when, with regard to something which we are seeing, we judge
-such things as '"That is an inkstand," "That is a tablecloth," "That
-is a door," etc., etc.; or when, with regard to something which we are
-feeling with our hands, we judge such things as "This is cloth," "This
-is a finger," "This is a coin," etc., etc.
-
-It is scarcely possible, I think, to exaggerate the frequency with
-which we make such judgments as these, nor yet the certainty with
-which we are able to make vast numbers of them. Any man, who is not
-blind, can, at almost any moment of his waking life, except when he
-is in the dark, make a large number of judgments of the first kind,
-with the greatest certainty. He has only to look about him, if he is
-indoors, to judge with regard to various things which he is seeing,
-such things as "That is a window," "That is a chair," "This is a book";
-or, if he is out-of-doors, such things as "That is a house," "That
-is a motor-car," "That is a man," or "That is a stone," "That is a
-tree," "That is a cloud." And all of us, who are not blind, do in fact
-constantly make such judgments, even if, as a rule, we only make them
-as parts of more complicated judgments. What I mean is that, when
-we make such judgments as "Hullo! that clock has stopped," or "This
-chair is more comfortable than that one," or "That man looks like a
-foreigner," judgments of the simpler kind with which I am concerned
-are, so far as I can see, actually a part of what we are judging. In
-judging "That clock has stopped," part of what I am actually judging
-is, so far as I can see, "That is a clock;" and similarly if I judge
-"That tree is taller than this one," my judgment actually contains the
-two simpler judgments "That is a tree," and "This is a tree." Perhaps
-most judgments which we make, of the kind I mean, are, in this way,
-only parts of more complicated judgments: I do not know whether this
-is so or not. But in any case there can be no doubt that we make them
-exceedingly commonly. And even a blind man, or a man in the dark, can
-and does, very frequently, make judgments of the second kind--judgments
-about things which he is feeling with his hands. All of us, for
-instance, at almost any moment of our waking life, whether we are in
-the dark or not, have only to feel certain parts of our own bodies or
-of our clothes, in order to make, with great certainty, such judgments
-as "This is a finger," "This is a nose," "This is cloth." And similarly
-I have only to feel in my pockets to judge, with regard to objects
-which I meet with there, such things as "This is a coin," "This is a
-pencil," "This is a pipe."
-
-Judgments of this kind would, I think, commonly, and rightly, be taken
-to be judgments, the truth of which involves the existence of material
-things or physical objects. If I am right in judging that this is
-an inkstand, it follows that there is at least one inkstand in the
-Universe; and if there is an inkstand in the Universe, it follows that
-there is in it at least one material thing or physical object. This
-may, of course, be disputed. Berkeley, if I understand him rightly,
-was clearly of opinion that there was no inconsistency in maintaining
-that there were in the Universe thousands of inkstands and trees and
-stones and stars, and that yet there was in it no such thing as matter.
-And perhaps the definition of matter, which he adopted, was such
-that there really was no inconsistency in maintaining this. Perhaps,
-similarly, other philosophers have sometimes adopted definitions of
-the expressions "material things" and "physical objects," which were
-such that all the judgments of this kind that we make might quite
-well be true, without its being true that there are in the Universe
-any material things whatever. Perhaps, even, there may be some
-justification for adopting definitions of those terms which would yield
-the surprising result that we may, with perfect consistency, maintain
-that the world is full of minerals and vegetables and animals, of all
-sorts of different kinds, and that yet there is not to be found in
-it a single material thing. I do not know whether there is or is not
-any utility in using the terms "material thing" or "physical object"
-in such a sense as this. But, whether there is or not, I cannot help
-thinking that there is ample justification for using them in another
-sense--a sense in which from the proposition that there are in the
-Universe such things as inkstands or fingers or clouds, it strictly
-follows that there are in it at least as many material things, and in
-which, therefore, we can _not_ consistently maintain the existence of
-inkstands, fingers, and clouds, while denying that of material things.
-The kinds of judgment which I have mentioned, and thousands of others
-which might easily be mentioned, are obviously all of the same sort
-in one very important respect--a respect in which, for instance, such
-judgments as "This is an emotion," "This is a judgment," "This is a
-colour," are _not_ of the same sort as they are. And it seems to me
-that we are certainly using the term "material thing" in _a_ correct
-and useful way, if we express this important common property which they
-have, by saying that of each of them the same can truly be said as was
-said of the judgment "That is an inkstand": that, just as from the
-proposition "There is an inkstand" it follows that there is at least
-one material thing, so from the proposition "There is a tablecloth,"
-it follows that there is at least one material thing; and similarly
-in all the other cases. We can certainly use the expression "Things
-_such as_ inkstands, tablecloths, fingers, clouds, stars, etc.," to
-mean things such as these in a certain very important respect, which
-we all understand, though we may not be able to define it. And the
-term "material thing" certainly is and can be correctly used to mean
-simply things such as these in that respect--whatever it may be. Some
-term is certainly required to mean merely things such as these in that
-important respect; and, so far as I can see, there is no term which can
-be naturally used in this sense except the term "material things" and
-its equivalents. Thus understood, the term "material thing" certainly
-does stand for an important notion, which requires a name.
-
-And, if we agree to use the term in this sense, then it is obvious that
-no more can be necessary for the truth of the assertion that there are
-material things, than is necessary for the truth of judgments of the
-kind with which I propose to deal. But no more can be necessary for
-the truth of these judgments than is actually asserted in or logically
-implied by them. And if we approach the question what is necessary for
-the truth of the assertion that there are material things, by asking
-what it is that we actually assert when we make such judgments as
-these, certain reasons for doubting how much is necessary are, I think,
-brought out much more clearly, than if we approach the question in
-any other way. Many philosophers have told us a very great deal as to
-what they suppose to be involved in the existence of material things;
-and some, at least, among them seem to have meant by "material things"
-such things as inkstands, fingers and clouds. But I can think of only
-one type of view as to the constitution of material things, which is
-such that it is tolerably clear what answer those who hold it would
-give to the simple question; What is it that I am judging, when I
-judge, as I now do, that that is an inkstand? The type of view I mean
-is that to which the view that Mill suggests, when he explains what he
-means by saying that Matter is a Permanent Possibility of Sensation,
-and also the view or views which Mr. Russell seems to suggest in his
-"Our Knowledge of the External World," seem to belong. In the case of
-views of this kind, it is, I think, tolerably clear what answer those
-who hold them would give to _all_ the questions I want to raise about
-judgments of the kind I have described. But it does not seem to me at
-all certain that any view of this type is true; and certainly many
-philosophers have held and do hold that all views of this type are
-false. But in the case of those who do hold them to be false, I do
-not know, in any single case, what answer would be given to _all_ the
-questions which I want to raise. In the case of philosophers, who do
-not accept any view of the Mill-Russell type, none, so far as I know,
-has made it clear what answer he would give to _all_ my questions: some
-have made it clear what answer they would give to _some_ of them; but
-many, I think, have not even made it clear what answer they would give
-to any. Perhaps there is some simple and satisfactory answer, which has
-escaped me, that such philosophers could give to all my questions; but
-I cannot help thinking that assumptions as to the nature of material
-things have too often been made, without its even occurring to those
-who made them to ask, what, if they were true, we could be judging when
-we make such judgments as these; and that, if this question had been
-asked, it would have become evident that those assumptions were far
-less certain than they appeared to be.
-
-I do not know that there is any excuse whatever for calling _all_
-judgments of the kind I mean "judgments of perception." All of them
-are, of course, judgments _about_ things which we are at the moment
-perceiving, since, by definition, they are judgments about things
-which we are seeing or feeling with our hands; and all of them are, no
-doubt, also _based upon_ something which we perceive about the thing
-in question. But the mere fact that a judgment is both about a thing
-which I am perceiving, and also based upon something which I perceive
-about that thing, does not seem to be a sufficient reason for calling
-it a judgment of perception; and I do not know that there is any
-other reason than this for calling _all_ judgments of the kind I mean
-judgments of perception. I do not want therefore, to assert that _all_
-of them are so. But it seems to me quite plain that enormous numbers
-of them are so, in a perfectly legitimate sense. This judgment, which
-I now make, to the effect that _that_ is a door, seems to me quite
-plainly to be a judgment of perception, in the simple sense that I
-make it because I do, in fact, see that that _is_ a door, and assert
-in it no more than what I see; and what I see I, of course, perceive.
-In every case in which I judge, with regard to something which I am
-seeing or feeling with my hands, that it is a so-and-so, simply because
-I do perceive, by sight or touch, that it is in fact a thing of that
-kind, we can, I think, fairly say that the judgment in question is a
-judgment of perception. And enormous numbers of judgments of the kind
-I mean are, quite plainly, judgments of perception in this sense. They
-are not _all,_ for the simple reason that some of them are mistaken.
-I may, for instance, judge, with regard to an animal which I see at
-a distance, that it is a sheep, when in fact it is a pig. And here
-my judgment is certainly not due to the fact that I see it to be a
-sheep; since I cannot possibly see a thing to be a sheep, unless it is
-one. It, therefore, is _not_ a judgment of perception in this sense.
-And moreover, even where such a judgment is true, it may not always
-be a judgment of perception, for the reason that, whereas I only see
-the thing in question, the kind of thing which I judge it to be is of
-such a nature, that it is impossible for any one, by sight alone, to
-perceive anything to be of that kind. How to draw the line between
-judgments of this kind, which are judgments of perception, and those
-which are not, I do not know. That is to say, I do not know what
-conditions must be fulfilled in order that I may be truly said to be
-_perceiving,_ by sight or touch, such things as that that is a door,
-this is a finger, and not _merely_ inferring them. Some people may no
-doubt think that it is very unphilosophical in me to say that we _ever_
-can perceive such things as these. But it seems to me that we do, in
-ordinary life, constantly talk of _seeing_ such things, and that, when
-we do so, we are neither using language incorrectly, nor making any
-mistake about the facts--supposing something to occur which never does
-in fact occur. The truth seems to me to be that we are using the term
-"perceive" in a way which is both perfectly correct and expresses a
-kind of thing which constantly does occur, only that some philosophers
-have not recognised that this is a correct usage of the term and have
-not been able to define it. I am not, therefore, afraid to say that I
-do now perceive that that is a door, and that that is a finger. Only,
-of course, when I say that I do, I do not mean to assert that part of
-what I "perceive," when I "perceive" these things, may not be something
-which, in an important sense, is known to me only by inference. It
-would be very rash to assert that "perception," in this sense of the
-word, entirely excludes inference. All that seems to me certain is that
-there is an important and useful sense of the word "perception," which
-is such that the amount and kind of inference, if inference there be,
-which is involved in my present perception that that is a door, is no
-bar to the truth of the assertion that I do perceive that it is one.
-Vast numbers, then, of the kind of judgments with which I propose to
-deal seem to me to be, in an important and legitimate sense, judgments
-of perception; although I am not prepared to define, any further than I
-have done, what that sense is. And though it is true that the questions
-which I shall raise apply just as much to those of them which are not
-judgments of perception as to those which are, it is, of course, also
-true that they apply just as much to those which are as to those which
-are not; so that I shall be really dealing with a large and important
-class among judgments of perception.
-
-It is true that, if certain views which, if I understand them rightly,
-some Philosophers have seriously entertained, were true ones, it would
-be quite impossible that any of them should be judgments of perception.
-For some philosophers seem to me to have denied that we ever do in fact
-know such things as these, and others not only that we ever know them
-but also that they are ever true. And, if, in fact, I never do know
-such a thing, or if it is never true, it will of course, follow that I
-never perceive such a thing; since I certainly cannot, in this sense,
-perceive anything whatever, unless I both know it and it is true. But
-it seems to me a sufficient refutation of such views as these, simply
-to point to cases in which we do know such things. This, after all, you
-know, really is a finger: there is no doubt about it: I know it, and
-you all know it. And I think we may safely challenge any philosopher to
-bring forward any argument in favour either of the proposition that we
-do not know it, or of the proposition that it is not true, which does
-not at some point, rest upon some premiss which is, beyond comparison,
-less certain than is the proposition which it is designed to attack.
-The questions whether we do ever know such things as these, and whether
-there are any material things, seem to me, therefore, to be questions
-which there is no need to take seriously: they are questions which it
-is quite easy to answer, with certainty, in the affirmative. What does,
-I think, need to be taken seriously, and what is really dubious, is not
-the question, whether this is a finger, or whether I know that it is,
-but the question _what,_ in certain respects, I am knowing, when I know
-that it is. And this is the question to which I will now address myself.
-
-To begin with there is one thing which seems to me to be very certain
-indeed about such judgments. It is unfortunately a thing which I do
-not know how properly to express. There seem to me to be objections
-to every way of expressing it which I can think of. But I hope I
-may be able to make my meaning clear, in spite of the inadequacy of
-my expression. The thing I mean is a thing which may to some people
-seem so obvious as to be scarcely worth saying. But I cannot help
-thinking that it is not always clearly recognised, and even that some
-philosophers, to judge from what they say, might perhaps dispute it.
-It seems to me to be an assumption which is silently made in many
-treatments of the subject, and, as I say, it seems to me to be very
-certain indeed. But I think it is at all events worth while to try to
-make the assumption explicit, in case it should be disputed. If it
-really is not true, then the other questions to which I shall go on,
-and which seem to me really dubious and difficult, do not, I think,
-arise at all.
-
-I will try to express this fundamental assumption, which seems to me
-so very certain, by saying it is the assumption that, in all cases in
-which I make a judgment of this sort, I have no difficulty whatever
-in picking out a thing, which is, quite plainly, in a sense in which
-nothing else is, _the_ thing about which I am making my judgment; and
-that yet, though this thing is _the_ thing about which I am judging, I
-am, quite certainly, _not_, in general, judging with regard to it, that
-_it_ is a thing of that kind for which the term, which seems to express
-the predicate of my judgment, is a name. Thus, when I judge, as now,
-that That is an inkstand, I have no difficulty whatever in picking out,
-from what, if you like, you can call my total field of presentation
-at the moment, an object, which is undoubtedly, in a sense in which
-nothing else is, _the_ object about which I am making this judgment;
-and yet it seems to me quite certain that of _this_ object I am not
-judging that it is a whole inkstand. And similarly when I judge, with
-regard to something which I am feeling in my pocket, "This is a coin,"
-I have no difficulty in picking out, from my field of presentation,
-an object, which is undoubtedly _the_ object with which my judgment
-is concerned; and yet I am certainly not judging with regard to this
-object that it is a whole coin. I say that _always__t_ when I make
-such a judgment, I can pick out _the_ one, among the objects presented
-to me at the time, about which I am making it; but I have only said
-that _in general_ I am not judging with regard to this object that
-it is a thing of the kind, for which the term, which seems to express
-the predicate of my judgment, is a name. And I have limited my second
-proposition in this way, because there are cases, in which it does
-not, at first sight, seem quite so certain that I am not doing this,
-as in the two instances I have just given. When, for instance, I judge
-with regard to something, which I am seeing, "This is a soap-bubble,"
-or "This is a drop of water," or even when I judge "This is a spot
-of ink," it may not seem quite so plain, that I may not be judging,
-with regard to the very object presented to me, that it is, itself, a
-whole soap-bubble, a whole drop of water, or a whole spot of ink, as
-it always is, in the case of an inkstand, or a coin, that I never take
-the presented object, about which I am judging, to be a whole inkstand,
-or a whole coin. The sort of reason why I say this will, of course,
-be obvious to any one, and it is obviously of a childish order. But I
-cannot say that it seems to me quite obvious that in such a case I am
-not judging of the presented object that it is a whole drop of water,
-in the way in which it does seem to be obvious that I am not judging
-of _this_ presented object that it is an inkstand. That is why I limit
-myself to saying that, _in general_, when I judge "That is a so-and-so"
-I am not judging with regard to the presented object, about which my
-judgment is that _it_ is a thing of the kind in question. As much as
-this seems to me to be a thing which any child can see. Nobody will
-suppose, for a moment, that when he judges such things as "This is a
-sofa," or "This is a tree," he is judging, with regard to the presented
-object about which his judgment plainly is, that it is a whole sofa or
-a whole tree: he can, at most, suppose that he is judging it to be a
-part of the surface of a sofa or a part of the surface of a tree. And
-certainly in the case of most judgments of this kind which we make,
-whether in the case of all or not, this is plainly the case: we are not
-judging, with regard to the presented object about which our judgment
-plainly is, that it is a thing of the kind, for which the term which
-appears to express the predicate of our judgment, is a name. And that
-this should be true of _most_ judgments of this kind, whether of all or
-not, is quite sufficient for my purpose.
-
-This much, then, seems to me to be very certain indeed. But I will try
-to make clearer exactly what I mean by it, by mentioning a ground on
-which I imagine it might perhaps be disputed.
-
-The object of which I have spoken as _the_ object, about which, in
-each particular case, such a judgment as this always is a judgment,
-is, of course, always an object of the kind which some philosophers
-would call a sensation, and others would call a sense-datum. Whether
-all philosophers, when they talk of sensations, mean to include among
-them such objects as these, I do not know. Some, who have given a great
-deal of attention to the subject, and for whom I have a great respect,
-talk of sensations in such a way, that I cannot be sure what they are
-talking about at all or whether there are such things. But many, I
-think, undoubtedly do mean to include such subjects as these. No doubt,
-in general, when they call them sensations, they mean to attribute to
-them properties, which it seems to me extremely doubtful whether they
-possess. And perhaps even those who call them sense-data, may, in part,
-be attributing to them properties which it may be doubtful whether
-they possess. If we want to define a sensation or a sense-datum, in a
-manner which will leave it not open to doubt what sort of things we are
-talking of, and that there are such things, I do not know that we can
-do it better than by saying that sense-data are the sort of things,
-_about_ which such judgments as these always seem to be made--the sort
-of things which seem to be the real or ultimate subjects of all such
-judgments. Such a way of defining how the term "sense-datum" is used,
-may not seem very satisfactory; but I am inclined to think it may be as
-satisfactory as any which can be found. And it is certainly calculated
-to obviate some misunderstandings which may arise; since everybody can
-see, I think, what the thing is which I am describing as _the_ thing
-about which he is making his judgment, when he judges "That is an
-inkstand," and that there is such a thing, even if he does not agree
-that this description applies to it.
-
-I can, in fact, imagine that some of those who would call this thing a
-sensation would deny that my judgment is _about_ it at all. It would
-sometimes be spoken of as the sensation which mediates my perception
-of this inkstand in this instance. And I can imagine that some of
-those who would so speak of it might be inclined to say that when
-I judge "This is an inkstand," my judgment is about this inkstand
-which I perceive, and not, in any sense at all, about the sensation
-which mediates my perception of it. They may perhaps imagine that the
-sensation mediates my perception of the inkstand only in the sense
-that it brings the inkstand before my mind in such a way that, once it
-is before my mind, I can make a judgment about it, which is _not_ a
-judgment about the mediating sensation at all; and that such a judgment
-is the one I am actually expressing when I say "This is an inkstand."
-Such a view, if it is held, seems to me to be quite certainly false,
-and is what I have intended to deny. And perhaps I can put most clearly
-the reason why it seems to me false, by saying that, if (which may
-be doubted) there is anything which is this inkstand, that thing is
-certainly not given to me independently of this sense-datum, in such
-a sense that I can possibly make a judgment about it which is _not_
-a judgment about this sense-datum. I am not, of course, denying that
-I do perceive this inkstand, and that my judgment is, in a sense, a
-judgment about it. Both these things seem to me to be quite obviously
-true. I am only maintaining that my judgment is _also,_ in another
-sense, a judgment about this sense-datum which mediates my perception
-of the inkstand. Those who say that this sense-datum does mediate my
-perception of the inkstand, would, of course, admit that my perception
-of the inkstand is, in a sense, dependent upon the sense-datum; that
-it is dependent is implied in the mere statement that it is mediated
-by it. But it might be maintained that it is dependent on it only in
-the sense in which, when the idea of one object is called up in my
-mind, through association, by the idea of another, the idea which is
-called up is dependent on the idea which calls it up. What I wish to
-maintain, and what seems to me to be quite certainly true, is that my
-perception of this inkstand is dependent on this sense-datum, in a
-quite different and far more intimate sense than this. It is dependent
-on it in the sense that, if there is anything which is this inkstand,
-then, in perceiving that thing, I am knowing it _only_ as _the_ thing
-which stands in a certain relation to this sense-datum. When the idea
-of one object is called up in my mind by the idea of another, I do
-not know the second object _only_ as _the_ thing which has a certain
-relation to the first: on the contrary, I can make a judgment about the
-second object, which is not a judgment about the first. And similarly
-in the case of two sense-data which are presented to me simultaneously,
-I do not know the one _only_ as a thing which has a certain relation to
-the other. But in the case of this sense-datum and this inkstand the
-case seems to me to be plainly quite different. If there be a thing
-which is this inkstand at all, it is certainly _only_ known to me as
-_the_ thing which stands in a certain relation to this sense-datum. It
-is not given to me, in the sense in which this sense-datum is given.
-If there be such a thing at all, it is quite certainly only known to
-me by description, in the sense in which Mr. Russell uses that phrase;
-and the description by which it is known is that of being _the_ thing
-which stands to this sense-datum in a certain relation. That is to
-say, when I make such a judgment as "This inkstand is a good big one";
-what I am really judging is: "There is a thing which stands to _this_
-in a certain relation, and which is an inkstand, and that thing is
-a good big one"--where "_this_" stands for this presented object. I
-am referring to or identifying the thing which is this inkstand, if
-there be such a thing at all, only as the thing which stands to this
-sense-datum in a certain relation; and hence my judgment, though in
-one sense it may be said to be a judgment about the inkstand, is quite
-certainly also, in another sense, a judgment about this sense-datum.
-This seems to me so clear, that I wonder how anyone can deny it; and
-perhaps nobody would. But I cannot help thinking that it is not clear
-to everybody; partly because, so far as I can make out, nobody before
-Mr. Russell had pointed out the extreme difference there is between a
-judgment about a thing known only by description to the individual who
-makes the judgment, and a judgment about a thing not known to him only
-in this way; and partly because so many people seem still utterly to
-have failed to understand what the distinction is which he expresses in
-this way. I will try to make the point clear, in a slightly different
-way. Suppose I am seeing two coins, lying side by side, and am not
-perceiving them in any other way except by sight. It will be plain to
-everybody, I think, that, when I identify the one as "This one" and
-the other as "That one," I identify them only by reference to the two
-visual presented objects, which correspond respectively to the one and
-to the other. But what may not, I think, be realised, is that the sense
-in which I identify them by reference to the corresponding sense-data,
-is one which involves that every judgment which I make about the one
-is a judgment about the sense-datum which corresponds to it, and every
-judgment I make about the other, a judgment about the sense-datum which
-corresponds to _it_: I simply cannot make a judgment about either,
-which is not a judgment about the corresponding sense-datum. But if the
-two coins were given to me, in the sense in which the two sense-data
-are, this would certainly not be the case. I can identify and
-distinguish the two sense-data _directly,_ this as this one, and that
-as that one: I do not need to identify either as _the_ thing which has
-this relation to this other thing. But I certainly cannot thus directly
-identify the two coins. I have not four things presented to me (1)
-_this_ sense-datum, (2) _that_ sense-datum, (3) _this_ coin, and (4)
-_that_ coin, but two only_--this_ sense-datum and _that_ sense-datum.
-When, therefore, I judge "_This_ is a coin," my judgment is certainly
-a judgment about the one sense-datum, and when I judge "And _that_
-is also a coin," it is certainly a judgment about the other. Only,
-in spite of what my language might seem to imply, I am certainly not
-judging either of the one sense-datum that it is a whole coin, nor yet
-of the other that it is one.
-
-This, then, seems to me fundamentally certain about judgments of this
-kind. Whenever we make such a judgment we can easily pick out an object
-(whether we call it a sensation or a sense-datum, or not), which is,
-in an easily intelligible sense, _the_ object which is the real or
-ultimate subject of our judgment; and yet, in many cases at all events,
-what we are judging with regard to this object is certainly not that it
-is an object of the kind, for which the term which appears to express
-the predicate of our judgment is a name.
-
-But if this be so, what is it that I am judging, in all such cases,
-about the presented object, which is the real or ultimate subject of my
-judgment? It is at this point that we come to questions which seem to
-me to be really uncertain and difficult to answer.
-
-To begin with, there is one answer which is naturally suggested by the
-reason I have given for saying that, in this case, it is quite obvious
-that I am not judging, with regard to this presented object, that
-_it_ is an inkstand, whereas it is not in the same way, quite obvious
-that, in making such a judgment as "This is a soap-bubble" or "This is
-a drop of water," I may not be judging, of the object about which my
-judgment is, that that very object really is a soap-bubble or a drop
-of water. The reason I gave is that it is quite obvious that I do not
-take this presented object to be a _whole_ inkstand: that, at most, I
-only take it to be part of the surface of an inkstand. And this reason
-naturally suggests that the true answer to our question may be that
-what I am judging of the presented object is just that it is a part of
-the surface of an inkstand. This answer seems to me to be obviously on
-quite a different level from the suggestion that I am judging it really
-to be an inkstand. It is not childishly obvious that I am not judging
-it to be part of the surface of an inkstand, as it is that I am not
-judging it to be an inkstand--a whole one.
-
-On this view, when I say such things as "That is an inkstand," "That
-is a door," "This is a coin," these expressions would really only be
-a loose way of saying "That is part of the surface of an inkstand,"
-"That is part of the surface of a door," "This is part of the surface
-of a coin." And there would, I think, plainly be nothing surprising
-in the fact that we should use language thus loosely. What, at first
-sight, appears to be a paradox, namely that, whereas I appear to be
-asserting of a given thing that it is of a certain kind, I am not
-really asserting of the thing in question that it is of that kind at
-all, would be susceptible of an easy explanation. And moreover, if
-this view were true, it would offer an excellent illustration of the
-difference between a thing known only by description and a thing not so
-known, and would show how entirely free from mystery that distinction
-is. On this view, when I judge "That inkstand is a good big one" I
-shall in effect be judging: "There is one and only one inkstand of
-which _this_ is part of the surface, and the inkstand of which this is
-true is a good big one." It would be quite clear that the part of the
-surface of the inkstand was given to me in a sense in which the whole
-was not, just as it is in fact clear that I do now _"see"_ this part
-of the surface of this inkstand, in a sense in which I do _not_ "see"
-the whole; and that my judgment, while it is, in fact, _about_ both the
-whole inkstand, and also _about_ one particular part of its surface, is
-_about_ them in two entirely different senses.
-
-This view is one, which it is at first sight, I think, very natural to
-suppose to be true. But before giving the reasons, why, nevertheless,
-it seems to me extremely doubtful, I think it is desirable to try
-to explain more precisely what I mean by it. The word "part" is one
-which is often used extremely vaguely in philosophy; and I can imagine
-that some people would be willing to assent to the proposition that
-this sense-datum really is, in some sense or other, a "part" of this
-inkstand, and that what I am judging with regard to it, when I
-judge "This is an inkstand," is, in effect, "There is an inkstand,
-of which _this_ is a part," who would be far from allowing that this
-can possibly be what I am judging, when once they understand what the
-sense is in which I am here using the word "part." What this sense
-is, I am quite unable to define; but I hope I may be able to make my
-meaning sufficiently clear, by giving instances of things which are
-undoubtedly "parts" of other things in the sense in question. There is,
-it seems to me, a sense of the word "part," in which we all constantly
-use the word with perfect precision, and, which, therefore, we all
-understand very well, however little we may be able to define it. It is
-the sense in which the trunk of any tree is undoubtedly a part of that
-tree; in which this finger of mine is undoubtedly a part of my hand,
-and my hand a part of my body. This is a sense in which every part
-of a material thing or physical object is itself a material thing or
-physical object; and it is, so far as I can see, the only proper sense
-in which a material thing can be said to have parts. The view which I
-wish to discuss is the view that I am judging this presented object to
-be a part of an inkstand, in this sense. And the nature of the view
-can perhaps be brought out more clearly, by mentioning one important
-corollary which would follow from it. I am, of course, at this moment,
-seeing many parts of the surface of this inkstand. But all these
-parts, except one, are, in fact, themselves parts of that one. That
-one is the one of which we should naturally speak as "_the_ part of
-the surface that I am now seeing" or as "_this_ part of the surface of
-this inkstand." There is only one part of the surface of this inkstand,
-which does thus contain, as parts, all the other parts that I am now
-seeing. And, if it were true that I am judging this presented object to
-be a part of the surface of an inkstand at all, in the sense I mean,
-it would follow that this presented object must, if my judgment "This
-is an inkstand" be true (as it certainly is), be identical with this
-part, which contains all the other parts which I am seeing; since there
-is plainly no other part with which it could possibly be identified.
-That is to say, if I am really judging of this presented object that it
-is part of the surface of an inkstand, in the sense I mean, it must be
-the case that everything which is true of what I should call "this part
-of the surface of this inkstand" is, in fact, true of this presented
-object.
-
-This view, therefore, that what we are judging of the ultimate subject
-of our judgment, when we judge "This is a so-and-so," is, in general,
-merely that the subject in question is a _part_ of a thing of the
-kind in question, can, I think, be most clearly discussed, by asking
-whether, in this case, this presented object can really be identical
-with this part of the surface of this inkstand. If it can't, then most
-certainly I am not judging of it that it is a part of the surface of an
-inkstand at all. For my judgment, whatever it is, is true. And yet, if
-this presented object is not identical with this part of the surface of
-this inkstand, it certainly is not a part of an inkstand at all; since
-there is no other part, either of this inkstand or of any other, with
-which it could possibly be supposed to be identical.
-
-Can we, then, hold that this sense-datum really is identical with this
-part of the surface of this inkstand? That everything which is true of
-the one is true of the other?
-
-An enormous number of very familiar arguments have been used by various
-philosophers, which, if they were sound, would show that we can not.
-Some of these arguments seem to me to be quite clearly not sound--all,
-for instance, which rest either on the assumption that this sense-datum
-can only exist so long as it is perceived, or on the assumption that
-it can only exist so long as it is perceived _by me._ Of others I
-suspect that they may have some force, though I am quite unable to see
-that they have any. Such, for instance, are all those which assume
-either that this sense-datum is a sensation or feeling of mine, in a
-sense which includes the assertion that it is dependent on my mind
-in the very same sense in which my perception of it obviously is so;
-or that it is causally dependent on my body in the sense in which my
-perception of it admittedly is so. But others do seem to me to have
-great force. I will, however, confine myself to trying to state one,
-which seems to me to have as much as any. It will be found that this
-one involves an assumption, which does seem to me to have great force,
-but which yet seems to me to be doubtful. So far as I know, all good
-arguments against the view that this sense-datum really is identical
-with this part of the surface of the inkstand, do involve this same
-assumption, and have no more force than it has. But in this, of course,
-I may be wrong. Perhaps some one will be able to point out an argument,
-which is obviously quite independent of it, and which yet has force.
-
-The argument I mean involves considerations which are exceedingly
-familiar, so familiar that I am afraid every one may be sick of
-hearing them alluded to. But, in spite of this fact, it seems to
-me not quite easy to put it quite precisely, in a way which will
-distinguish it clearly from other arguments involving the same familiar
-considerations, but which do not seem to me to be equally cogent. I
-want, therefore, to try to put it with a degree of precision, which
-will prevent irrelevant objections from being made to it--objections
-which would, I think, be relevant against some of these other
-arguments, but are not, I think, relevant against it.
-
-The fact is that we all, exceedingly commonly, when, at each of two
-times, separated by a longer or shorter interval, we see a part of the
-surface of a material thing, in the sense in which I am now seeing
-this part of the surface of this inkstand, or when at one time we see
-such a surface and at another perceive one by touch, make, on the
-second occasion, the judgment "_This_ part of a surface is the _same_
-part of the surface of the same thing, as that which I was seeing
-(or perceiving by touch) just now." How commonly we all do this can
-scarcely be exaggerated. I look at this inkstand, and then I look
-again, and on the second occasion I judge "This part of the surface
-of this inkstand is the same as, or at least contains a part which is
-the same as a part of, the part of its surface which I was seeing just
-now." Or I look at this finger and then I touch it, and I judge, on the
-second occasion, "This part of the surface of this finger is the same
-as one of those I was seeing just now." We all thus constantly identify
-a part of a surface of a material thing which we are perceiving at one
-time with a part which we _were_ perceiving at another.
-
-Now, when we do this--when we judge "This is the _same_ part of the
-same thing as I was seeing or touching just now," we, of course, do
-not mean to exclude the possibility that the part in question may
-have changed during the interval; that it is really different, on the
-second occasion, either in shape or size or quality, or in all three,
-from what it was on the first. That is to say, the sense of sameness
-which we are here concerned with is one which clearly does not exclude
-change. We may even be prepared to assert, on general grounds, in all
-such cases, that the surface in question certainly must have changed.
-But nevertheless there is a great difference in one respect, between
-two kinds of such cases, both of which occur exceedingly commonly.
-If I watch somebody blowing air into a child's balloon, it constantly
-happens, at certain stages in the process, that I judge with regard
-to the part of the surface which I am seeing at that stage, not only
-that it _is_ larger than it was at an earlier stage, but that it is
-_perceptibly_ larger. Or, if I pull the face of an india-rubber doll,
-I may judge at a certain stage in the process that the patch of red
-colour on its cheek not only is different in shape from what it was
-at the beginning, but is _perceptibly_ so; it may, for instance, be a
-perceptibly flatter ellipse than it was to start with. Or, if I watch
-a person blushing, I may judge at a certain stage that a certain part
-of the surface of his face not only is different in colour from what
-it was, when I saw it before he began to blush, but is _perceptibly_
-so--perceptibly redder. In enormous numbers of cases we do thus judge
-of a surface seen at a given time that it is thus _perceptibly_
-different in size, or in shape, or in colour, from what it was when we
-saw it before. But cases are at least equally numerous in which, though
-we might, on general grounds be prepared to assert that it _must_ have
-changed in some respect, we should not be prepared to assert that it
-had, in any respect whatever, changed _perceptibly._ Of this part
-of this surface of this inkstand, for instance, I am certainly not
-prepared to assert that it is now perceptibly different in any respect
-from what it was when I saw it just now. And similar cases are so
-numerous that I need not give further instances. We can, therefore,
-divide cases, in which we judge, of a part of a surface which we are
-seeing, "This is the same part of the surface of the same material
-thing as the one I saw just now," into cases where we should also judge
-"But it is perceptibly different from what it was then," and cases in
-which, even though we might assert "It _must_ be different," we are
-certainly not prepared to assert that it is _perceptibly_ so.
-
-But now let us consider the cases in which we are not prepared to
-assert that the surface in question has changed perceptibly. The
-strange fact, from which the argument I mean is drawn, is that, in a
-very large number of such cases, it seems as if it were unmistakably
-true that the presented object, about which we are making our judgment
-when we talk of "This surface" at the later time, _is_ perceptibly
-different, from that about which we are making it when we talk of the
-surface I saw just now. If, at the later time, I am at a sufficiently
-greater distance from the surface, the presented object which
-corresponds to it at the time seems to be perceptibly smaller, than
-the one which corresponded to it before. If I am looking at it from
-a sufficiently oblique angle, the later presented object often seems
-to be perceptibly different in shape--a perceptibly flatter ellipse,
-for instance. If I am looking at it, with blue spectacles on, when
-formerly I had none, the later presented object seems to be perceptibly
-different in colour from the earlier one. If I am perceiving it by
-touch alone, whereas formerly I was perceiving it by sight alone,
-the later presented object seems to be perceptibly different from
-the earlier, in respect of the fact that it is not coloured at all,
-whereas the earlier was, and that, on the other hand, it has certain
-tactual qualities, which the earlier had not got. All this seems to
-be as plain as it can be, and yet it makes absolutely no difference
-to the fact that of the surface in question we are _not_ prepared to
-judge that it is perceptibly different from what it was. Sometimes,
-of course, where there seems to be no doubt that the later presented
-object is perceptibly different from the earlier, we may not notice
-that it is so. But even where we do notice the apparent difference, we
-do still continue to judge of the surface in question: This surface
-is not, so far as I can tell with certainty by perception, in any way
-different from what it was when I saw it or touched it just now; I am
-_not_ prepared to assert that it has changed perceptibly. It seems,
-therefore, to be absolutely impossible that the surface seen at the
-later time should be identical with the object presented then, and the
-surface seen at the earlier identical with the object presented then,
-for the simple reason that, whereas with regard to the later seen
-surface I am not prepared to judge that it is in any way perceptibly
-different from that seen earlier, it seems that with regard to the
-later sense-datum I cannot fail to judge that it _is_ perceptibly
-different from the earlier one: the fact that they are perceptibly
-different simply stares me in the face. It seems, in short, that when,
-in such a case, I judge: "This surface is not, so far as I can tell,
-perceptibly different from the one I saw just now," I cannot possibly
-be judging of the presented object "_This_ is not, so far as I can
-tell, perceptibly different from that object which was presented to
-me just now," for the simple reason that I _can_ tell, as certainly,
-almost, as I can tell anything, that it is perceptibly different.
-
-That is the argument, as well as I can put it, for saying that this
-presented object, is _not_ identical with this part of the surface of
-this inkstand; and that, therefore, when I judge "This is part of the
-surface of an inkstand," I am not judging of this presented object,
-which nevertheless is the ultimate subject of my judgment, that _it_ is
-part of the surface of an inkstand. And this argument does seem to me
-to be a very powerful one.
-
-But nevertheless it does not seem to me to be quite conclusive, because
-it rests on an assumption, which, though it seems to me to have great
-force, does not seem to me quite certain. The assumption I mean is the
-assumption that, in such cases as those I have spoken of, the later
-presented object really is perceptibly different from the earlier. This
-assumption has, if I am not mistaken, seemed to many philosophers to
-be quite unquestionable; they have never even thought of questioning
-it; and I own that it used to be so with me. And I am still not sure
-that I may not be talking sheer nonsense in suggesting that it can
-be questioned. But, if I am, I am no longer able to see that I am.
-What now seems to me to be possible is that the sense-datum which
-corresponds to a tree, which I am seeing, when I am a mile off, may not
-really be perceived to _be_ smaller than the one, which corresponds
-to the same tree, when I see it from a distance of only a hundred
-yards, but that it is only perceived to _seem_ smaller; that the
-sense-datum which corresponds to a penny, which I am seeing obliquely,
-is not really perceived to _be_ different in shape from that which
-corresponded to the penny, when I was straight in front of it, but is
-only perceived to _seem_ different--that all that is perceived is that
-the one _seems_ elliptical and the other circular; that the sense-datum
-presented to me when I have the blue spectacles on is not perceived
-to _be_ different in colour from the one presented to me when I have
-not, but only to _seem_ so; and finally that the sense-datum presented
-when I touch this finger is not perceived to _be_ different in any way
-from that presented to me when I see it, but only to _seem_ so that
-I do not perceive the one to be coloured and the other not to be so,
-but only that the one _seems_ coloured and the other not. If such a
-view is to be possible, we shall have, of course, to maintain that
-the kind of experience which I have expressed by saying one _seems_
-different from the other_--"seems_ circular," _"seems_ blue," _"seems_
-coloured," and so on--involves an ultimate, not further analysable,
-kind of psychological relation, not to be identified either with that
-involved in being "perceived" to be so and so, or with that involved
-in being "judged" to be so and so; since a presented object might, in
-this sense, _seem_ to be elliptical, _seem_ to be blue, etc., when it
-is neither perceived to be so, nor judged to be so. But there seems to
-me to be no reason why there should not be such an ultimate relation.
-The great objection to such a view seems to me to be the difficulty of
-believing that I don't actually perceive this sense-datum to _be_ red,
-for instance, and that other to _be_ elliptical; that I only perceive,
-in many cases, that it _seems_ so. I cannot, however, now persuade
-myself that it is quite clear that I do perceive it to _be_ so. And,
-if I don't, then it seems really possible that this presented object
-really is identical with this part of the surface of this inkstand;
-since, when I judge, as in the cases supposed, that the surface in
-question is _not_, so far as I can tell, perceptibly different from
-what it was, I might really be judging of the two sense-data that they
-also were not, so far as I can tell, perceptibly different, the only
-difference between the two that _is_ perceptible, being that the one
-_seems_ to be of a certain size, shape or colour, and the other to
-be of a different and incompatible size, shape or colour. Of course,
-in those cases, as in that of the balloon being blown up, where I
-"perceive" that the surface has changed, _e.g._ in size, it would have
-to be admitted that I do perceive of the two sense-data not merely that
-they _seem_ different in size, but that they _are_ so. But I think it
-would be possible to maintain that the sense in which, in these cases,
-I "perceive" them to _be_ different, is a different one from that in
-which, both in these and in the others, I perceive them to _seem_ so.
-
-Possibly in making this suggestion that sense-data, in cases where most
-philosophers have assumed unhesitatingly that they are _perceived_ to
-be different, are only really perceived to _seem_ different, I am, as I
-said, talking sheer nonsense, though I cannot, at the moment, see that
-I am. And possibly, even if this suggestion itself is not nonsense,
-even if it is true, there may be other fatal objections to the view
-that this presented object really is identical with this part of the
-surface of this inkstand. But what seems to me certain is that, unless
-this suggestion is true, then this presented object is certainly _not_
-identical with this part of the surface of this inkstand. And since it
-is doubtful whether it is not nonsense, and still more doubtful whether
-it is true, it must, I think, be admitted to be highly doubtful whether
-the two _are_ identical. But, if they are not identical, then what I am
-judging with regard to this presented object, when I judge "This is an
-inkstand," is certainly _not_ that it is itself part of the surface of
-an inkstand; and hence, it is worth while to inquire further, what, if
-I am not judging this, I _can_ be judging with regard to it.
-
-And here, I think, the first natural suggestion to make is that just
-as, when I talk of "this inkstand," what I seem really to mean is
-"_the_ inkstand of which _this_ is part of the surface," so that the
-inkstand is only known to me by description as the inkstand of which
-this material surface is part of the surface, so again when I talk of
-"this material surface," what I really mean is "_the_ material surface
-to which _this_ (presented object) has a certain relation," so that
-this surface is, in its turn, only known to me by description as _the_
-surface which has a certain relation to this presented object. If that
-were so, then what I should be judging of this presented object, when I
-judge "This is part of the surface of an inkstand," would be not that
-it is itself such a part, but that _the_ thing which stands to it in
-a certain relation is such a part: in short, what I should be judging
-with regard to _it,_ would be "There's one thing and one only which
-stands to _this_ in _this_ relation, and the thing which does so is
-part of the surface of an inkstand."
-
-But if we are to adopt the view that something of this sort is what we
-are judging, there occurs at once the pressing question: What on earth
-can the relation be with regard to which we are judging, that one and
-only one thing stands in it to this presented object? And this is a
-question to which, so far as I know, none of those philosophers, who
-_both_ hold (as many do) that this presented object is _not_ identical
-with this part of the surface of this inkstand, _and_ also that there
-really is something of which it could be truly predicated that it is
-this part of the surface of this inkstand (that is to say, who reject
-all views of the Mill-Russell type), have given anything like a clear
-answer. It does not seem to have occurred to them that it requires an
-answer, chiefly, I think, because it has not occurred to them to ask
-what we can be judging when we make judgments of this sort. There are
-only two answers, that I can think of, which might be suggested with
-any plausibility.
-
-Many philosophers, who take the view that the presented objects about
-which we make these judgments are sensations of ours, and some even who
-do not, are in the habit of talking of _"the_ causes" of these objects
-as if we knew, in the case of each, that it had one and only one cause;
-and many of them seem to think that this part of the surface of this
-inkstand could be correctly described as _the_ cause of this presented
-object. They suggest, therefore, the view that what I am judging in
-this case might be: "This presented object has one and only one cause,
-and that cause is part of the surface of an inkstand." It seems to me
-quite obvious that _this_ view, at all events, is utterly untenable. I
-do not believe for a moment, nor does any one, and certainly therefore
-do not judge, that this presented object has _only_ one cause: I
-believe that it has a whole series of different causes. I do, in fact,
-believe that this part of the surface of this inkstand is _one_ among
-the causes of my perception of this presented object: that seems to
-me to be a very well established scientific proposition. And I am
-prepared to admit that there _may_ be good reasons for thinking that
-it is one among the causes of this presented object itself, though I
-cannot myself see that there are any. But that it is the _only_ cause
-of this presented object I certainly do not believe, nor, I think,
-does anybody, and hence my judgment certainly cannot be "_The_ cause
-of this is part of the surface of an inkstand." It might no doubt, be
-possible to define some _kind_ of causal relation, such that it might
-be plausibly held that it and it alone causes this presented object _in
-that particular way._ But any such definition would, so far as I can
-see, be necessarily very complicated. And, even when we have got it,
-it seems to me it would be highly improbable we could truly say that
-what we are judging in these cases is: "This presented object has one
-and only one cause, of this special kind." Still, I do not wish to deny
-that some such view may _possibly_ be true.
-
-The only other suggestion I can make is that there may be some
-ultimate, not further definable relation, which we might for instance,
-call the relation of "being a manifestation of," such that we might
-conceivably be judging: "There is one and only one thing of which this
-presented object is a manifestation, and _that_ thing is part of the
-surface of an inkstand." And here again, it seems to me just possible
-that this _may_ be a true account of what we are judging; only I cannot
-find the slightest sign that I am in fact aware of any such relation.
-
-Possibly other suggestions could be made as to what the relation is,
-with regard to which it could be plausibly supposed that in all cases,
-where we make these judgments we are in fact judging of the presented
-object "There is one and only one thing which stands to this object in
-_this_ relation." But it seems to me at least very doubtful whether
-there is any such relation at all; whether, therefore, our judgment
-really is of this form, and whether therefore, this part of the surface
-of this inkstand really is known to me by description as _the_ thing
-which stands in a certain relation to this presented object. But if it
-isn't, and if, also, we cannot take the view that what I am judging
-is that this presented object _itself_ is a part of the surface of an
-inkstand, there would seem to be no possible alternative but that we
-must take some view of what I have called the Mill-Russell type. Views
-of this type, if I understand them rightly, are distinguished from
-those which I have hitherto considered, by the fact that, according to
-them, there is nothing whatever in the Universe of which it could truly
-be predicated that it is this part of the surface of this inkstand,
-or indeed that it is _a_ part of the surface of an inkstand, or an
-inkstand, at all. They hold, in short, that though there are plenty of
-material things in the Universe, there is nothing in it of which it
-could truly be asserted that _it_ is a material thing: that, though,
-when I assert "This is an inkstand," my assertion is true, and is such
-that it follows from it that there is in the Universe at least one
-inkstand, and, therefore, at least one material thing, yet it does not
-follow from it that there is anything which is a material thing. When
-I judge "This is an inkstand," I am judging this presented object to
-possess a certain property, which is such that, if there are things,
-which possess that property, there are inkstands and material things,
-but which is such that nothing which possesses it is itself a material
-thing; so that in judging that there are material things, we are really
-always judging of some _other_ property, which is not that of being a
-material thing, that there are things which possess _it._ It seems to
-me quite possible, of course, that some view of this type is the true
-one. Indeed, this paper may be regarded, if you like, as an argument in
-favour of the proposition that some such view _must_ be true. Certainly
-one of my main objects in writing it was to put as plainly as I can
-some grave difficulties which seem to me to stand in the way of any
-other view; in the hope that some of those, who reject all views of
-the Mill-Russell type, may explain clearly which of the alternatives
-I have suggested they would adopt, or whether, perhaps, some other
-which has not occurred to me. It does not seem to me to be always
-sufficiently realised how difficult it is to find _any_ answer to my
-question "What are we judging in these cases?" to which there are not
-very grave objections, unless we adopt an answer of the Mill-Russell
-type. That an answer of this type _is_ the true one, I am not myself,
-in spite of these objections, by any means convinced. The truth is I am
-completely puzzled as to what the true answer can be. At the present
-moment, I am rather inclined to favour the view that what I am judging
-of this presented object is that it is itself a part of the surface of
-an inkstand--that, therefore, it really is identical with this part of
-the surface of this inkstand, in spite of the fact that this involves
-the view that, where, hitherto, I have always supposed myself to be
-perceiving of two presented objects that they really were different, I
-was, in fact, only perceiving that they _seemed_ to be different. But,
-as I have said, it seems to me quite possible that this view is, as I
-have hitherto supposed, sheer nonsense; and, in any case, there are, no
-doubt, other serious objections to the view that this presented object
-is this part of the surface of this inkstand.
-
-
-
-
-THE CONCEPTION OF INTRINSIC VALUE
-
-
-My main object in this paper is to try to define more precisely the
-most important question, which, so far as I can see, is really at issue
-when it is disputed with regard to any predicate of value, whether it
-is or is not a "subjective" predicate. There are three chief cases in
-which this controversy is apt to arise. It arises, first, with regard
-to the conceptions of "right" and "wrong," and the closely allied
-conception of "duty" or "what _ought_ to be done." It arises, secondly,
-with regard to "good" and "evil," in some sense of those words in which
-the conceptions for which they stand are certainly quite distinct from
-the conceptions of "right" and "wrong," but in which nevertheless it is
-undeniable that ethics has to deal with them. And it arises, lastly,
-with regard to certain aesthetic conceptions, such as "beautiful" and
-"ugly;" or "good" and "bad," in the sense in which these words are
-applied to works of art, and in which, therefore, the question what is
-good and bad is a question not for ethics but for aesthetics.
-
-In all three cases there are people who maintain that the predicates
-in question are purely "subjective," in a sense which can, I think,
-be fairly easily defined. I am not here going to attempt a perfectly
-accurate definition of the sense in question; but, as the term
-"subjective" is so desperately ambiguous, I had better try to indicate
-roughly the sense I am thinking of. Take the word "beautiful" for
-example. There is a sense of the term "subjective," such that to say
-that "beautiful" stands for a subjective predicate, means, roughly,
-that any statement of the form "This is beautiful" merely expresses a
-psychological assertion to the effect that some particular individual
-or class of individuals either actually has, or would, under certain
-circumstances, have, a certain kind of mental attitude towards the
-thing in question. And what I mean by "having a mental attitude"
-towards a thing, can be best explained by saying that to desire a thing
-is to have one kind of mental attitude towards it, to be pleased with
-it is to have another, to will it is to have another; and in short
-that to have any kind of feeling or emotion _towards_ it is to have a
-certain mental attitude towards it--a different one in each case. Thus
-anyone who holds that when we say that a thing is beautiful, what we
-_mean_ is merely that we ourselves or some particular class of people
-actually do, or would under certain circumstances, have, or permanently
-have, a certain feeling towards the thing in question, is taking a
-"subjective" view of beauty.
-
-But in all three cases there are also a good many people who hold that
-the predicates in question are not, in this sense "subjective"; and I
-think that those who hold this are apt to speak as if the view which
-they wish to maintain in opposition to it consisted simply and solely
-in holding its contradictory--in holding, that is, that the predicates
-in question are "objective," where "objective" simply means the same as
-"not subjective." But in fact I think this is hardly ever really the
-case. In the case of goodness and beauty, what such people are really
-anxious to maintain is by no means merely that these conceptions are
-"objective," but that, besides being "objective," they are also, in
-a sense which I shall try to explain, "intrinsic" kinds of value.
-It is this conviction--the conviction that goodness and beauty are
-_intrinsic_ kinds of value, which is, I think, the strongest ground of
-their objection to any subjective view. And indeed, when they speak
-of the "objectivity" of these conceptions, what they have in mind is,
-I believe, always a conception which has no proper right to be called
-"objectivity," since it includes as an essential part this other
-characteristic which I propose to call that of being an "intrinsic"
-kind of value.
-
-The truth is, I believe, that though, from the proposition that a
-particular kind of value is "intrinsic" it does follow that it must
-be "objective," the converse implication by no means holds, but on
-the contrary it is perfectly easy to conceive theories of _e.g._
-"goodness," according to which goodness would, in the strictest sense,
-be "objective," and yet would not be "intrinsic." There is, therefore,
-a very important difference between the conception of "objectivity,"
-and that which I will call "internality" but yet, if I am not mistaken,
-when people talk about the "objectivity" of any kind of value, they
-almost always confuse the two, owing to the fact that most of those
-who deny the "internality" of a given kind of value, also assert its
-"subjectivity." How great the difference is, and that it is a fact that
-those who maintain the "objectivity" of goodness do, as a rule, mean by
-this not mere "objectivity," but "internality," as well, can, I think,
-be best brought out by considering an instance of a theory, according
-to which goodness would be objective but would not be intrinsic.
-
-Let us suppose it to be held, for instance, that what is meant by
-saying that one type of human being A is "better" than another type B,
-is merely that the course of evolution tends to increase the numbers of
-type A and to decrease those of type B. Such a view has, in fact, been
-often suggested, even if it has not been held in this exact form; it
-amounts merely to the familiar suggestion that "better" means "better
-fitted to survive." Obviously "better," on this interpretation of its
-meaning, is in no sense a "subjective" conception: the conception of
-belonging to a type which tends to be favoured by the struggle for
-existence more than another is as "objective" as any conception can be.
-But yet, if I am not mistaken, all those who object to a subjective
-view of "goodness," and insist upon its "objectivity," would object
-just as strongly to this interpretation of its meaning as to any
-"subjective" interpretation. Obviously, therefore, what they are really
-anxious to contend for is not merely that goodness is "objective,"
-since they are here objecting to a theory which is "objective;" but
-something else. And this something else is, I think, certainly just
-that it is "intrinsic"--a character which is just as incompatible
-with this objective evolutionary interpretation as with any and every
-subjective interpretation. For if you say that to call type A "better"
-than type B means merely that it is more favoured in the struggle for
-existence, it follows that the being "better" is a predicate which does
-_not depend merely on the intrinsic nature of A and B respectively._
-On the contrary, although here and now A may be more favoured than B,
-it is obvious that under other circumstances or with different natural
-laws the very same type B might be more favoured than A, so that the
-very same type which, under one set of circumstances, is better than
-B, would, under another set, be worse. Here, then, we have a case
-where an interpretation of "goodness," which does make it "objective,"
-is incompatible with its being "intrinsic." And it is just this same
-fact--the fact that, on any "subjective" interpretation, the very same
-kind of thing which, under some circumstances, is better than another,
-would, under others, be worse--which constitutes, so far as I can
-see, the fundamental objection to all "subjective" interpretations.
-Obviously, therefore, to express this objection by saying that goodness
-is "objective" is very incorrect; since goodness might quite well be
-"objective" and yet _not_ possess the very characteristic which it is
-mainly wished to assert that it has.
-
-In the case, therefore, of ethical and aesthetic "goodness," I think
-that what those who contend for the "objectivity" of these conceptions
-really wish to contend for is not mere "objectivity" at all, but
-principally and essentially that they are _intrinsic_ kinds of value.
-But in the case of "right" and "wrong" and "duty," the same cannot
-be said, because many of those who object to the view that these
-conceptions are "subjective," nevertheless do not hold that they are
-"intrinsic." We cannot, therefore, say that what those who contend for
-the "objectivity" of right and wrong really mean is always chiefly
-that those conceptions are intrinsic, but we can, I think, say that
-what they do mean is certainly _not_ "objectivity" in this case any
-more than the other; since here, just as there, it would be possible
-to find certain views, which are in every sense "objective," to
-which they would object just as strongly as to any subjective view.
-And though what is meant by "objectivity" in this case, is not that
-"right" and "wrong" are _themselves_ "intrinsic," what is, I think,
-meant here too is that they have a fixed relation to a kind of value
-which _is_ "intrinsic." It is this fixed relation to an intrinsic
-kind of value, so far as I can see, which gives to right and wrong
-that kind and degree of fixity and impartiality which they actually
-are felt to possess, and which is what people are thinking of when
-they talk of their "objectivity." Here, too, therefore, to talk of
-the characteristic meant as "objectivity" is just as great a misnomer
-as in the other cases; since though it is a characteristic which is
-incompatible with any kind of "subjectivity," it is also incompatible,
-for the same reason, with many kinds of "objectivity."
-
-For these reasons I think that what those who contend for the
-"objectivity" of certain kinds of value, or for the "objectivity" of
-judgments of value, commonly have in mind is not really "objectivity"
-at all, but either that the kinds of value in question are themselves
-"intrinsic," or else that they have a fixed relation to some kind that
-is so. The conception upon which they really wish to lay stress is not
-that of "objective value," but that of "intrinsic value," though they
-confuse the two. And I think this is the case to a considerable extent
-not only with the defenders of so-called "objectivity," but also with
-its opponents. Many of those who hold strongly (as many do) that _all_
-kinds of value are "subjective" certainly object to the so-called
-"objective" view, not so much because it is _objective_, as because it
-is not _naturalistic ox positivistic_--a characteristic which does
-naturally follow from the contention that value is "intrinsic," but
-does not follow from the mere contention that it is "objective." To a
-view which is at the same time both "naturalistic" or "positivistic"
-and also "objective," such as the Evolutionary view which I sketched
-just now, they do not feel at all the same kind or degree of objection
-as to any so-called "objective" view. With regard to so-called
-"objective" views they are apt to feel not only that they are false,
-but that they involve a particularly poisonous kind of falsehood--the
-erecting into a "metaphysical" entity of what is really susceptible of
-a simple naturalistic explanation. They feel that to hold such a view
-is not merely to make a mistake, but to make a superstitious mistake.
-They feel the same kind of contempt for those who hold it, which we
-are apt to feel towards those whom we regard as grossly superstitious,
-and which is felt by certain persons for what they call "metaphysics."
-Obviously, therefore, what they really object to is not simply the view
-that these predicates are "objective," but something else--something
-which does not at all follow from the contention that they are
-"objective," but which does follow from the contention that they are
-"intrinsic."
-
-In disputes, therefore, as to whether particular kinds of value are
-or are not "subjective," I think that the issue which is really felt
-to be important, almost always by one side, and often by both, is not
-really the issue between "subjective" and "non-subjective," but between
-"intrinsic" and "non-intrinsic." And not only is this felt to be the
-more important issue; I think it really is so. For the difference that
-must be made to our view of the Universe, according as we hold that
-some kinds of value are "intrinsic" or that none are, is much greater
-than any which follows from a mere difference of opinion as to whether
-some are "non-subjective," or all without exception "subjective." To
-hold that any kinds of value are "intrinsic" entails the recognition of
-a kind of predicate extremely different from any we should otherwise
-have to recognise and perhaps unique; whereas it is in any case certain
-that there are "objective" predicates as well as "subjective."
-
-But now what is this "internality" of which I have been speaking?
-What is meant by saying with regard to a kind of value that it is
-"intrinsic?" To express roughly what is meant is, I think, simple
-enough; and everybody will recognise it at once, as a notion which
-is constantly in people's heads; but I want to dwell upon it at some
-length, because I know of no place where it is expressly explained and
-defined, and because, though it seems very simple and fundamental, the
-task of defining it precisely is by no moans easy and involves some
-difficulties which I must confess that I do not know how to solve.
-
-I have already given incidentally the main idea in speaking of that
-evolutionary interpretation of "goodness," according to which, as I
-said, goodness would be "objective" but would not be "intrinsic."
-I there used as equivalent to the assertion that 'better,' on
-that definition, would not be 'intrinsic,' the assertion that the
-question whether one type of being A was better than another B would
-_not_ depend _solely on the intrinsic natures of A and B,_ but on
-circumstances and the laws of nature. And I think that this phrase will
-in fact suggest to everybody just what I do mean by "intrinsic" value.
-We can, in fact, set up the following definition. _To say that a kind
-of value is "intrinsic" means merely that the question whether a thing
-possesses it, and in what degree it possesses it, depends solely on the
-intrinsic nature of the thing in question._
-
-But though this definition does, I think, convey exactly what I mean,
-I want to dwell upon its meaning, partly because the conception of
-'differing in intrinsic nature which I believe to be of fundamental
-importance, is liable to be confused with other conceptions, and partly
-because the definition involves notions, which I do not know how to
-define exactly.
-
-When I say, with regard to any particular kind of value, that the
-question whether and in what degree anything possesses it _depends
-solely on the intrinsic nature of the thing in question_, I mean to say
-two different things at the same time. I mean to say (1) that it is
-_impossible_ for what is strictly _one and the same_ thing to possess
-that kind of value at one time, or in one set of circumstances, and
-_not_ to possess it at another; and equally _impossible_ for it to
-possess it in one degree at one time, or in one set of circumstances,
-and to possess it in a different degree at another, or in a different
-set. This, I think, is obviously part of what is naturally conveyed by
-saying that the question whether and in what degree a thing possesses
-the kind of value in question always depends _solely_ on the intrinsic
-nature of the thing. For if _x_ and _y_ have different intrinsic
-natures, it follows that _x_ cannot be quite strictly one and the same
-thing as _y_; and hence if _x_ and _y_ can have a different intrinsic
-value, only where their intrinsic natures are different, it follows
-that one and the same thing must always have the same intrinsic value.
-This, then, is part of what is meant; and about this part I think I
-need say no more, except to call attention to the fact that it involves
-a conception, which as we shall see is also involved in the other part,
-and which involves the same difficulty in both cases--I mean, the
-conception which is expressed by the word 'impossible.' (2) The second
-part of what is meant is that if a given thing possesses any kind of
-intrinsic value in a certain degree, then not only must that same thing
-possess it, under all circumstances, in the same degree, but also
-anything _exactly like_ it, must, under all circumstances, possess it
-in exactly the same degree. Or to put it in the corresponding negative
-form: It is _impossible_ that of two exactly similar things one should
-possess it and the other not, or that one should possess it in one
-degree, and the other in a different one.
-
-I think this second proposition also is naturally conveyed by saying
-that the kind of value in question depends solely on the intrinsic
-nature of what possesses it. For we should naturally say of two
-things which were _exactly alike_ intrinsically, in spite of their
-being _two,_ that they possessed the _same_ intrinsic nature. But
-it is important to call attention expressly to the fact that what
-I mean by the expression 'having a different intrinsic nature' is
-equivalent to 'not exactly alike' because here there is real risk of
-confusion between this conception and a different one. This comes
-about as follows. It is natural to suppose that the phrase 'having a
-different intrinsic nature' is equivalent to the phrase 'intrinsically
-different' or 'having different intrinsic properties.' But, if we do
-make this identification, there is a risk of confusion. For it is
-obvious that there is a sense in which, when things are exactly like,
-they must be 'intrinsically different' and have different intrinsic
-properties, merely because they are two. For instance, two patches of
-colour may be exactly alike, in spite of the fact that each possesses a
-constituent which the other does not possess, provided only that their
-two constituents are exactly alike. And yet, in a certain sense, it
-is obvious that the fact that each has a constituent, which the other
-has not got, does constitute an intrinsic difference between them, and
-implies that each has an intrinsic property which the other has not
-got. And even where the two things are simple the mere fact that they
-are _numerically_ different does in a sense constitute an intrinsic
-difference between them, and each will have at least one intrinsic
-property which the other has not got--namely that of being identical
-with itself. It is obvious therefore that the phrases 'intrinsically
-different' and 'having different intrinsic properties' are ambiguous.
-They may be used in such a sense that to say of two things that they
-are intrinsically different or have different intrinsic properties does
-_not_ imply that they are not exactly alike, but only that they are
-_numerically_ different. Or they may be used in a sense in which two
-things can be said to be intrinsically different, and to have different
-intrinsic properties _only_ when they are not exactly alike. It is,
-therefore, extremely important to insist that when I say: Two things
-can differ in intrinsic value, only when they have different intrinsic
-natures, I am using the expression 'having different intrinsic natures'
-in the latter sense and not the former:--in a sense in which the mere
-fact that two things are two, or differ numerically, does _not_ imply
-that they have different intrinsic natures, but in which they can
-be said to have different intrinsic natures, _only_ where, besides
-differing numerically, they are also _not_ exactly alike.
-
-But as soon as this is explained, another risk of confusion arises
-owing to the fact that when people contrast mere numerical difference
-with a kind of intrinsic difference, which is _not_ merely numerical,
-they are apt to identify the latter with _qualitative_ difference. It
-might, therefore, easily be thought that by 'difference in intrinsic
-nature' I mean 'difference in quality.' But this identification of
-difference in quality with difference in intrinsic nature would also
-be a mistake. It is true that what is commonly meant by difference
-of quality, in the strict sense, always is a difference of intrinsic
-nature: two things cannot differ in quality without differing in
-intrinsic nature; and that fact is one of the most important facts
-about qualitative difference. But the converse is by no means also
-true: although two things cannot differ in quality without differing in
-intrinsic nature, they can differ in intrinsic nature without differing
-in quality; or, in other words, difference in quality is only _one_
-species of difference in intrinsic nature. That this is so follows
-from the fact that, as I explained, I am using the phrase 'different
-in intrinsic nature' as equivalent to 'not exactly like for it is
-quite plain that two things may not be exactly alike, in spite of the
-fact that they don't differ in quality, _e.g._ if the only difference
-between them were in respect of the _degree_ in which they possess
-some quality they do possess. Nobody would say that a very loud sound
-was exactly like a very soft one, even if they were exactly like in
-quality; and yet it is plain there is a sense in which their intrinsic
-nature is different For this reason alone qualitative difference cannot
-be identified with difference in intrinsic nature. And there are still
-other reasons. Difference in size, for instance may be a difference
-in intrinsic nature, in the sense I mean, but it can hardly be called
-a difference in quality. Or take such a difference as the difference
-between two patterns consisting in the fact that the one is a yellow
-circle with a red spot in the middle, and the other a yellow circle
-with a blue spot in the middle. This difference would perhaps be
-loosely called a difference of quality; but obviously it would be more
-accurate to call it a difference which consists in the fact that the
-one pattern has a _constituent_ which is qualitatively different from
-any which the other has; and the difference between being qualitatively
-different and having qualitatively different constituents is important
-both because the latter can only be defined in terms of the former, and
-because it is possible for simple things to differ from one another
-in the former way, whereas it is only possible for complex things to
-differ in the latter.
-
-I hope this is sufficient to make clear exactly what the conception is
-which I am expressing by the phrase "different in intrinsic nature."
-The important points are (1) that it is a kind of difference which
-does _not_ hold between two things, when they are _merely_ numerically
-different, but only when, besides being numerically different, they
-are also _not_ exactly alike and (2) that it is _not_ identical
-with qualitative difference; although qualitative difference is one
-particular species of it. The conception seems to me to be an extremely
-important and fundamental one, although, so far as I can see, it has no
-quite simple and unambiguous name: and this is the reason why I have
-dwelt on it at such length. "Not exactly like" is the least ambiguous
-way of expressing it; but this has the disadvantage that it looks as
-if the idea of exact likeness were the fundamental one from which this
-was derived, whereas I believe the contrary to be the case. For this
-reason it is perhaps better to stick to the cumbrous phrase "different
-in intrinsic nature."
-
-So much for the question what is meant by saying of two things that
-they "differ in intrinsic nature." We have now to turn to the more
-difficult question as to what is meant by the words "impossible" and
-"necessary" in the statement: A kind of value is intrinsic if and only
-if, it is _impossible_ that _x_ and _y_ should have different values of
-the kind, unless they differ in intrinsic nature; and in the equivalent
-statement: A kind of value is intrinsic if and only if, when anything
-possesses it, that same thing or anything exactly like it would
-_necessarily_ or _must_ always, under all circumstances, possess it in
-exactly the same degree.
-
-As regards the meaning of this necessity and impossibility, we may
-begin by making two points clear.
-
-(1) It is sometimes contended, and with some plausibility, that what
-we mean by saying that it is _possible_ for a thing which possesses
-one predicate F to possess another G, is, sometimes at least, merely
-that some things which possess F do in fact also possess G. And if
-we give this meaning to "possible," the corresponding meaning of the
-statement it is _impossible_ for a thing which possesses F to possess
-G will be merely: Things which possess F never do in fact possess G.
-If, then, we understood "impossible" in this sense, the condition for
-the "internality" of a kind of value, which I have stated by saying
-that if a kind of value is to be "intrinsic" it must be _impossible_
-for two things to possess it in different degrees, if they are exactly
-like one another, will amount merely to saying that no two things
-which are exactly like one another ever do, in fact, possess it in
-different degrees. It follows, that, if this were all that were meant,
-this condition would be satisfied, if only it were true (as for all
-I know it may be) that, in the case of all things which possess any
-particular kind of intrinsic value, there happens to be nothing else
-in the Universe exactly like any one of them; for if this were so, it
-would, of course, follow that no two things which are exactly alike did
-in fact possess the kind of value in question in different degrees,
-for the simple reason that everything which possessed it at all would
-be unique in the sense that there was nothing else exactly like it. If
-this were all that were meant, therefore, we could prove any particular
-kind of value to satisfy this condition, by merely proving that there
-never has in fact and never will be anything exactly like any one of
-the things which possess it: and our assertion that it satisfied this
-condition would merely be an empirical generalisation. Moreover if
-this were all that was meant it would obviously be by no means certain
-that purely subjective predicates could not satisfy the condition in
-question; since it would be satisfied by any subjective predicate of
-which it happened to be true that everything which possessed it was,
-in fact, unique--that there was nothing exactly like it; and for all
-I know there may be many subjective predicates of which this is true.
-It is, therefore, scarcely necessary to say that I am not using
-"impossible" in this sense. When I say that a kind of value, to be
-intrinsic, must satisfy the condition that it must be _impossible_ for
-two things exactly alike to possess it in different degrees, I do not
-mean by this condition anything which a kind of value could be proved
-to satisfy, by the mere empirical fact that there was nothing else
-exactly like any of the things which possessed it. It is, of course,
-an essential part of my meaning that we must be able to say not merely
-that no two exactly similar things do _in fact_ possess it in different
-degrees, but that, _if_ there had been or were going to be anything
-exactly similar to a thing which does possess it, even though, in
-fact, there has not and won't be any such thing, that thing would have
-possessed or would possess the kind of value in question in exactly the
-same degree. It is essential to this meaning of "impossibility" that
-it should entitle us to assert what _would_ have been the case, under
-conditions which never have been and never will be realised; and it
-seems obvious that no mere empirical generalisation can entitle us to
-do this.
-
-But (2) to say that I am not using 'necessity' in this first sense,
-is by no means sufficient to explain what I do mean. For it certainly
-seems as if causal laws (though this is disputed) do entitle us to make
-assertions of the very kind that mere empirical generalisations do not
-entitle us to make. In virtue of a causal law we do seem to be entitled
-to assert such things as that, if a given thing had had a property
-or were to have a property F which it didn't have or won't have, it
-_would_ have had or _would_ have some other property G. And it might,
-therefore, be thought that the kind of 'necessity' and 'impossibility'
-I am talking of is this kind of causal 'necessity' and 'impossibility.'
-It is, therefore, important to insist that I do _not_ mean this kind
-either. If this were all I meant, it would again be by no means
-obvious, that purely subjective predicates might not satisfy our second
-condition. It may, for instance, for all I know, be true that there
-are causal laws which insure that in the case of everything that is
-'beautiful,' anything exactly like any of these things would, in this
-Universe, excite a particular kind of feeling in everybody to whom it
-were presented in a particular way: and if that were so, we should have
-a subjective predicate which satisfied the condition that, when a given
-thing possesses that predicate, it is impossible (in the causal sense)
-that any exactly similar thing should not also possess it. The kind
-of necessity I am talking of is not, therefore, mere causal necessity
-either. When I say that if a given thing possesses a certain degree of
-intrinsic value, anything precisely similar to it _would_ necessarily
-_have_ possessed that value in exactly the same degree, I mean that it
-_would_ have done so, even if it had existed in a Universe in which
-the causal laws were quite different from what they are in this one. I
-mean, in short, that it is _impossible_ for any precisely similar thing
-to possess a different value, in precisely such a sense as that, in
-which it is, I think, generally admitted that it is _not_ impossible
-that causal laws should have been different from what they are--a sense
-of impossibility, therefore, which certainly does not depend merely on
-causal laws.
-
-That there is such a sense of necessity--a sense which entitles us to
-say that what has F _would have_ G, even if causal laws were quite
-different from what they are--is, I think, quite clear from such
-instances as the following. Suppose you take a particular patch of
-colour, which is yellow. We can, I think, say with certainty that any
-patch exactly like that one, _would_ be yellow, even if it existed in
-a Universe in which causal laws were quite different from what they
-are in this one. We can say that any such patch _must_ be yellow,
-quite unconditionally, whatever the circumstances, and whatever
-the causal laws. And it is in a sense similar to this, in respect
-of the fact that it is neither empirical nor causal, that I mean
-the 'must' to be understood, when I say that if a kind of value is
-to be 'intrinsic,' then, supposing a given-thing possesses it in a
-certain degree, anything exactly like that thing _must_ possess it in
-exactly the same degree. To say, of 'beauty' or 'goodness' that they
-are 'intrinsic' is only, therefore, to say that this thing which is
-obviously true of 'yellowness' and 'blueness' and 'redness' is true
-of them. And if we give this sense to 'must' in our definition, then
-I think it is obvious that to say of a given kind of value that it is
-intrinsic _is_ inconsistent with its being 'subjective.' For there
-is, I think, pretty clearly no subjective predicate of which we can
-say thus unconditionally, that, _if_ a given thing possesses it, then
-anything exactly like that thing, _would,_ under any circumstances, and
-under any causal laws, also possess it. For instance, whatever kind of
-feeling you take, it is plainly not true that supposing I have that
-feeling towards a given thing A, then _I_ should necessarily under any
-circumstances have that feeling towards anything precisely similar to
-A: for the simple reason that a thing precisely similar to A _might_
-exist in a Universe in which I did not exist at all. And similarly
-it is not true of any feeling whatever, that if _somebody_ has that
-feeling towards a given thing A, then, in arty Universe, in which
-a thing precisely similar to A existed, _somebody_ would have that
-feeling towards it. Nor finally is it even true, that if it is true of
-a given thing A, that, under actual causal laws, any one to whom A were
-presented in a certain way _would_ have a certain feeling towards it,
-then the same hypothetical predicate would, in any Universe, belong to
-anything precisely similar to A: in every case it seems to be possible
-that there _might_ be a Universe, in which the causal laws were such
-that the proposition would not be true.
-
-It is, then, because in my definition of 'intrinsic' value the 'must'
-is to be understood in this unconditional sense, that I think that the
-proposition that a kind of value is 'intrinsic' is inconsistent with
-its being subjective. But it should be observed that in holding that
-there is this inconsistency, I am contradicting a doctrine which seems
-to be held by many philosophers. There are, as you probably know, some
-philosophers who insist strongly on a doctrine which they express by
-saying that no relations are purely external. And so far as I can make
-out one thing which they mean by this is just that, whenever r has any
-relation whatever which _y_ has not got, _x_ and _y cannot_ be exactly
-alike: That any difference in relation necessarily entails a difference
-in intrinsic nature. There is, I think, no doubt that when these
-philosophers say this, they mean by their 'cannot' and 'necessarily'
-an unconditional 'cannot' and 'must.' And hence it follows they are
-holding that, if, for instance, a thing A pleases me now, then any
-other thing, B, precisely similar to A, must, under any circumstances,
-and in any Universe, please me also: since, if B did not please me, it
-would _not_ possess a relation which A does possess, and therefore, by
-their principle, _could_ not be precisely similar to A_--must_ differ
-from it in intrinsic nature. But it seems to me to be obvious that this
-principle is false. If it were true, it would follow that I can know _a
-priori_ such things as that no patch of colour which is seen by you and
-is not seen by me is ever exactly like any patch which is seen by me
-and is not seen by you; or that no patch of colour which is surrounded
-by a red ring is ever exactly like one which is not so surrounded. But
-it is surely obvious, that, whether these things are true or not they
-are things which I cannot know _a priori._ It is simply _not_ evident
-_a priori_ that no patch of colour which is seen by A and not by B is
-ever exactly like one which is seen by B and not by A, and that no
-patch of colour which is surrounded by a red ring is ever exactly like
-one which is not. And this illustration serves to bring out very well
-both what is meant by saying of such a predicate as 'beautiful 'that
-it is intrinsic,' and why, if it is, it cannot be subjective. What is
-meant is just that if A is beautiful and B is not, you could know _a
-priori_ that A and B are _not_ exactly alike; whereas, with any such
-subjective predicate, as that of exciting a particular feeling in me,
-or that of being a thing which would excite such a feeling in any
-spectator, you cannot tell _a priori_ that a thing A which did possess
-such a predicate and a thing B which did not, could not be exactly
-alike.
-
-It seems to me, therefore, quite certain, in spite of the dogma that no
-relations are purely external, that there are many predicates, such for
-instance as most (if not all) subjective predicates or the objective
-one of being surrounded by a red ring, which do _not_ depend solely
-on the intrinsic nature of what possesses them: or, in other words,
-of which it is _not_ true that if _x_ possesses them and _y_ does
-not, _x_ and _y must_ differ in intrinsic nature. But what precisely
-is meant by this unconditional 'must,' I must confess I don't know.
-The obvious thing to suggest is that it is the logical 'must,' which
-certainly is unconditional in just this sense: the kind of necessity,
-which we assert to hold, for instance, when we say that whatever is a
-right-angled triangle _must_ be a triangle, or that whatever is yellow
-_must_ be either yellow or blue. But I must say I cannot see that
-all unconditional necessity is of this nature. I do not see how it
-can be deduced from any logical law that, if a given patch of colour
-be yellow, then any patch which were exactly like the first would be
-yellow too. And similarly in our case of 'intrinsic' value, though I
-think it is true that beauty, for instance, is 'intrinsic,' I do not
-see how it can be deduced from any logical law, that if A is beautiful,
-anything that were exactly like A would be beautiful too, in exactly
-the same degree.
-
-Moreover, though I do believe that both "yellow" (in the sense in
-which it applies to sense-data) and "beautiful" are predicates which,
-in this unconditional sense, depend only on the intrinsic nature of
-what possesses them, there seems to me to be an extremely important
-difference between them which constitutes a further difficulty in the
-way of getting quite clear as to what this unconditional sense of
-"must" is. The difference I mean is one which I am inclined to express
-by saying that though both yellowness and beauty are predicates which
-_depend_ only on the intrinsic nature of what possesses them, yet
-while yellowness is itself an _intrinsic_ predicate, _beauty_ is not.
-Indeed it seems to me to be one of the most important truths about
-predicates of value, that though many of them _are_ intrinsic kinds of
-value, in the sense I have defined, yet _none_ of them are intrinsic
-properties, in the sense in which such properties as "yellow" or the
-property of "being a state of pleasure" or "being a state of things
-which contains a balance of pleasure" are intrinsic properties. It is
-obvious, for instance, that, if we are to reject _all_ naturalistic
-theories of value, we must not only reject those theories, according to
-which no kind of value would be intrinsic, but must also reject such
-theories as those which assert, for instance, that to say that a state
-of mind is good is to say that it is a state of being pleased; or
-that to say that a state of things is good is to say that it contains
-a balance of pleasure over pain. There are, in short, two entirely
-different types of naturalistic theory, the difference between which
-may be illustrated by the difference between the assertion, "A is good"
-_means_ "A is pleasant" and the assertion "A is good" _means_ "A is a
-state of pleasure." Theories of the former type imply that goodness is
-_not_ an intrinsic kind of value, whereas theories of the latter type
-imply equally emphatically that it is: since obviously such predicates
-as that "of being a state of pleasure," or "containing a balance of
-pleasure," _are_ predicates like "yellow" in respect of the fact that
-if a given thing possesses them, anything exactly like the thing in
-question must possess them. It seems to me equally obvious that _both_
-types of theory are false: but I do not know how to exclude them both
-except by saying that two different propositions are both true of
-_goodness_, namely: (1) that it does depend _only_ on the intrinsic
-nature of what possesses it--which excludes theories of the first type
-and (2) that, _though_ this is so, it is yet not itself an intrinsic
-property--which excludes those of the second. It was for this reason
-that I said above that, if there are any intrinsic kinds of value,
-they would constitute a class of predicates which is, perhaps, unique;
-for I cannot think of any other predicate which resembles them in
-respect of the fact, that though _not_ itself intrinsic, it yet shares
-with intrinsic properties the characteristics of depending solely on
-the intrinsic nature of what possesses it. So far as I know, certain
-predicates of value are the only non-intrinsic properties which share
-with intrinsic properties this characteristic of depending only on the
-intrinsic nature of what possesses them.
-
-If, however, we are thus to say that predicates of value, though
-_dependent_ solely on intrinsic properties, are not themselves
-intrinsic properties, there must be some characteristic belonging to
-intrinsic properties which predicates of value never possess. And
-it seems to me quite obvious that there is; only I can't see _what_
-it is. It seems to me quite obvious that if you assert of a given
-state of things that it contains a balance of pleasure over pain, you
-are asserting of it not only a _different_ predicate, from what you
-would be asserting of it if you said it was "good"--but a predicate
-which is of quite a different _kind_; and in the same way that when
-you assert of a patch of colour that it is "yellow," the predicate
-you assert is not only _different_ from "beautiful," but of quite a
-different _kind,_ in the same way as before. And of course the mere
-fact that many people have thought that goodness and beauty were
-subjective is evidence that there is _some_ great difference of kind
-between them and such predicates as being yellow or containing a
-balance of pleasure. But _what_ the difference is, if we suppose, as I
-suppose, that goodness and beauty are _not_ subjective, and that they
-do share with "yellowness" and "containing pleasure," the property
-of depending _solely_ on the intrinsic nature of what possesses
-them, I confess I cannot say. I can only vaguely express the kind of
-difference I feel there to be by saying that intrinsic properties seem
-to _describe_ the intrinsic nature of what possesses them in a sense
-in which predicates of value never do. If you could enumerate _all_
-the intrinsic properties a given thing possessed, you would have given
-a _complete_ description of it, and would not need to mention any
-predicates of value it possessed; whereas no description of a given
-thing could be _complete_ which omitted any intrinsic property. But,
-in any case, owing to the fact that predicates of intrinsic value are
-not themselves intrinsic properties, you cannot define "intrinsic
-property," in the way which at first sight seems obviously the right
-one. You cannot say that an intrinsic property is a property such that,
-if one thing possesses it and another does not, the intrinsic nature of
-the two things _must_ be different. For this is the very thing which we
-are maintaining to be true of predicates of intrinsic value, while at
-the same time we say that they are _not_ intrinsic properties. Such a
-definition of "intrinsic property" would therefore only be possible if,
-we could say that the necessity there is that, if _x_ and _y_ possess
-different intrinsic properties, their nature must be different, is a
-necessity of a _different kind_ from the necessity there is that, if
-_x_ and _y_ are of different intrinsic values, their nature must be
-different, although both necessities are unconditional. And it seems to
-me possible that this is the true explanation. But, if so, it obviously
-adds to the difficulty of explaining the meaning of the unconditional
-"must," since, in this case, there would be two different meanings of
-"must," both unconditional, and yet neither, apparently, identical with
-the logical "must."
-
-
-
-
-EXTERNAL AND INTERNAL RELATIONS
-
-
-[Propositions and terms surrounded by "°" are "over-ligned" in original.]
-
-In the index to _Appearance and Reality_ (First Edition) Mr. Bradley
-declares that _all_ relations are "intrinsical"; and the following are
-some of the phrases by means of which he tries to explain what he means
-by this assertion. "A relation must at both ends _affect,_ and pass
-into, the being of its terms" (p. 364). "Every relation essentially
-penetrates the being of its terms, and is, in this sense, intrinsical"
-(p. 392). "To stand in a relation and not to be relative, to support
-it and yet not to be infected and undermined by it, seems out of the
-question" (p. 142). And a good many other philosophers seem inclined to
-take the same view about relations which Mr. Bradley is here trying to
-express. Other phrases which seem to be sometimes used to express it,
-or a part of it, are these: "No relations are purely external"; "All
-relations qualify or modify or make a difference to the terms between
-which they hold"; "No terms are independent of any of the relations in
-which they stand to other terms." (See _e.g.,_ Joachim, _The Nature of
-Truth,_ pp. 11, 12, 46).
-
-It is, I think, by no means easy to make out exactly what these
-philosophers mean by these assertions. And the main object of this
-paper is to try to define clearly one proposition, which, even if it
-does not give the whole of what they mean, seems to me to be always
-implied by what they mean, and to be certainly false. I shall try to
-make clear the exact meaning of this proposition, to point out some
-of its most important consequences, and to distinguish it clearly
-from certain other propositions which are, I think, more or less
-liable to be confused with it. And I shall maintain that, if we give
-to the assertion that a relation is "internal" the meaning which this
-proposition would give to it, then, though, in that sense, _some_
-relations are "internal," others, no less certainly, are not, but are
-"purely external."
-
-To begin with, we may, I think, clear the ground, by putting on
-one side two propositions about relations, which, though they seem
-sometimes to be confused with the view we are discussing, do, I think,
-quite certainly not give the whole meaning of that view.
-
-The first is a proposition which is quite certainly and obviously true
-of all relations, without exception, and which, though it raises points
-of great difficulty, can, I think, be clearly enough stated for its
-truth to be obvious. It is the proposition that, in the case of any
-relation whatever, the kind of fact which we express by saying that
-a given term A has that relation to another term B, or to a pair of
-terms B and C, or to three terms B, C, and D, and so on, in no case
-simply consists in the terms in question _together with_ the relation.
-Thus the fact which we express by saying that Edward VII was father
-of George V, obviously does not simply consist in Edward, George,
-_and_ the relation of fatherhood. In order that the fact may be, it
-is obviously not sufficient that there should merely be George and
-Edward and the relation of fatherhood; it is further necessary that the
-relation should _relate_ Edward to George, and not only so, but also
-that it should relate them in the particular way which we express by
-saying that Edward was father of George, and not merely in the way
-which we should express by saying that George was father of Edward.
-This proposition is, I think, obviously true of all relations without
-exception: and the only reason why I have mentioned it is because,
-in an article in which Mr. Bradley criticises Mr. Russell (_Mind,_
-1910, p. 179), he seems to suggest that it is inconsistent with the
-proposition that any relations are merely external, and because, so far
-as I can make out, some other people who maintain that all relations
-are internal seem sometimes to think that their contention follows
-from this proposition. The way in which Mr. Bradley puts it is that
-such facts are unities which are not _completely analysable_; and this
-is, of course, true, if it means merely that in the case of no such
-fact is there any set of constituents of which we can truly say: This
-fact is _identical with_ these constituents. But whether from this it
-follows that all relations are internal must of course depend upon
-what is meant by the latter statement. If it be merely used to express
-this proposition itself, or anything which follows from it, then, of
-course, there can be no doubt that all relations are internal. But I
-think there is no doubt that those who say this do not mean by their
-words _merely_ this obvious proposition itself; and I am going to point
-out something which I think they always imply, and which certainly does
-_not_ follow from it.
-
-The second proposition which, I think, may be put aside at once as
-certainly not giving the whole of what is meant, is the proposition
-which is, I think, the natural meaning of the phrases "All relations
-modify or affect their terms" or "All relations make a difference to
-their terms." There is one perfectly natural and intelligible sense in
-which a given relation may be said to modify a term which stands in
-that relation, namely, the sense in which we should say that, if, by
-putting a stick of sealing-wax into a flame, we make the sealing-wax
-melt, its relationship to the flame has modified the sealing-wax.
-This is a sense of the word "modify" in which part of what is meant
-by saying of any term that it is modified, is that it has actually
-undergone a change: and I think it is clear that a sense in which this
-is part of its meaning is the only one in which the word "modify" can
-properly be used. If, however, those who say that all relations modify
-their terms were using the word in this, its proper, sense, part of
-what would be meant by this assertion would be that all terms which
-have relations at all actually undergo changes. Such an assertion would
-be obviously false, for the simple reason that there are terms which
-have relation? and which yet never change at all. And I think it is
-quite clear that those who assert that all relations are internal, in
-the sense we are concerned with, mean by this something which could be
-consistently asserted to be true of all relations without exception,
-even if it were admitted that some terms which have relations do
-not change. When, therefore, they use the phrase that all relations
-"modify" their terms as equivalent to "all relations are internal,"
-they must be using "modify" in some metaphorical sense other than its
-natural one. I think, indeed, that most of them would be inclined to
-assert that in every case in which a term A comes to have to another
-term B a relation, which it did not have to B in some immediately
-preceding interval, its having of that relation to that term causes
-it to undergo some change, which it would not have undergone if it
-had not stood in precisely that relation to B and I think perhaps
-they would think that this proposition follows from some proposition
-which is true of all relations, without exception, and which is what
-they mean by saying that all relations are internal. The question
-whether the coming into a new relation does thus always cause some
-modification in the term which comes into it is one which is often
-discussed, as if it had something to do with the question whether all
-relations are internal as when, for instance, it is discussed whether
-knowledge of a thing alters the thing known. And for my part I should
-maintain that this proposition is certainly not true. But what I am
-concerned with now is not the question whether it is true, but simply
-to point out that, so far as I can see, it can have nothing to do
-with the question whether all relations are internal, for the simple
-reason that it cannot possibly follow from any proposition with regard
-to _all_ relations without exception. It asserts with regard to all
-relational properties of a certain kind, that they have a certain kind
-of _effect_; and no proposition of this sort can, I think follow from
-any universal proposition with regard to _all_ relations.
-
-We have, therefore, rejected as certainly not giving the whole meaning
-of the dogma that all relations are internal: (1) the obviously true
-proposition that no relational facts are _completely_ analysable,
-in the precise sense which I gave to that assertion; and (2) the
-obviously false proposition that all relations modify their terms,
-in the natural sense of the term "modify," in which it always has as
-part of its meaning "cause to undergo a change." And we have also seen
-that this false proposition that any relation which a term comes to
-have always causes it to undergo a change is wholly irrelevant to the
-question whether _all_ relations are internal or not. We have seen
-finally that if the assertion that all relations modify their terms is
-to be understood as equivalent to the assertion that all are internal,
-"modify" must be understood in some metaphorical sense. The question
-is: What is this metaphorical sense?
-
-And one point is, I think, pretty clear to begin with. It is obvious
-that, in the case of some relations, a given term A may have the
-relation in question, not only to one other term, but to several
-different terms. If, for instance, we consider the relation of
-fatherhood, it is obvious that a man may be father, not only of
-one, but of several different children. And those who say that all
-relations modify their terms always mean, I think, not merely that
-every different relation which a term has modifies it; but also that,
-where the relation is one which the term has to several different other
-terms, then, in the case of _each_ of these terms, it is modified by
-the fact that it has the relation in question to that particular term.
-If, for instance, A is father of three children, B, C, and D, they
-mean to assert that he is modified, not merely by being a father, but
-by being the father of B, also by being the father of C, and also by
-being the father of D. The mere assertion that all _relations_ modify
-their terms does not, of course, make it quite clear that this is what
-is meant; but I think there is no doubt that it is always meant; and
-I think we can express it more clearly by using a term, which I have
-already introduced, and saying the doctrine is that all _relational
-properties_ modify their terms, in a sense which remains to be
-defined. I think there is no difficulty in understanding what I mean
-by a _relational property._ If A is father of B, then what you assert
-of A when you say that he is so is a _relational property_--namely
-the property of being father of B; and it is quite clear that this
-property is not itself a _relation_, in the same fundamental sense
-in which the relation of fatherhood is so; and also that, if C is a
-different child from B, then the property of being father of C is a
-different relational property from that of being father of B, although
-there is only _one_ relation, that of fatherhood, from which both are
-derived. So far as I can make out, those philosophers who talk of
-all _relations_ being internal, often actually mean by "relations"
-"relational properties"; when they talk of all the "relations" of a
-given term, they mean all its relational properties, and not merely
-all the different relations, of each of which it is true that the term
-has that relation to something. It will, I think, conduce to clearness
-to use a different word for these two entirely different uses of the
-term "relation" to call "fatherhood" a relation, and "fatherhood of
-B" a "relational property." And the fundamental proposition, which is
-meant by the assertion that all relations are internal, is, I think, a
-proposition with regard to relational properties, and not with regard
-to relations properly so-called. There is no doubt that those who
-maintain this dogma mean to maintain that all relational properties are
-related in a peculiar way to the terms which possess them--that they
-modify or are internal to them, in some metaphorical sense. And once we
-have defined what this sense is in which a _relational property_ can be
-said to be internal to a term which possesses it, we can easily derive
-from it a corresponding sense in which the _relations_, strictly so
-called, from which relational properties are derived, can be said to be
-internal.
-
-Our question is then: What is the metaphorical sense of "modify" in
-which the proposition that all relations are internal is equivalent to
-the proposition that all relational properties "modify" the terms which
-possess them? I think it is clear that the term "modify" would never
-have been used at all to express the relation meant, unless there had
-been some analogy between this relation and that which we have seen is
-the proper sense of "modify," namely, _causes_ to change. And I think
-we can see where the analogy comes in by considering the statement,
-with regard to any particular term A and any relational property P
-which belongs to it, that A _would have been different from what it
-is if it had not had_ P: the statement, for instance, that Edward VII
-would have been different if he had not been father of George V. This
-is a thing which we can obviously truly say of A and P, in some sense,
-whenever it is true of P that it _modified_ A in the proper sense of
-the word: if the being held in the flame causes the sealing-wax to
-melt, we can truly say (in some sense) that the sealing-wax would not
-have been in a melted state if it had not been in the flame. But it
-seems as if it were a thing which might also be true of A and P, where
-it is _not_ true that the possession of P _caused_ A to change; since
-the mere assertion that A would have been different, if it had not
-had P, does not necessarily imply that the possession of P _caused
-A_ to have any property which it would not have had otherwise. And
-those who say that all relations are internal do sometimes tend to
-speak as if what they meant could be put in the form: In the case of
-every relational property which a thing has, it is always true that
-the thing which has it would have been different if it had not had
-that property; they sometimes say even: If P be a relational property
-and A a term which has it, then it is always true that A _would not
-have been A_ if it had not had P. This is, I think, obviously a clumsy
-way of expressing anything which could possibly be true, since, taken
-strictly, it implies the self-contradictory proposition that if A had
-not had P, it would not have been true that A did not have P. But it
-is nevertheless a more or less natural way of expressing a proposition
-which might quite well be true, namely, that, supposing A has P, then
-anything which had not had P would necessarily have been different
-from A. This is the proposition which I wish to suggest as giving the
-metaphorical meaning of "P _modifies_ A," of which we are in search.
-It is a proposition to which I think a perfectly precise meaning can
-be given, and one which does not at all imply that the possession of P
-_caused_ any change in A, but which might conceivably be true of all
-terms and all the relational properties they have, without exception.
-And it seems to me that it is not unnatural that the proposition that
-this is true of P and A, should have been expressed in the form, "P
-modifies A," since it can be more or less naturally expressed in the
-perverted form, "If A had not had P it would have been different,"--a
-form of words, which, as we saw, can also be used whenever P does, in
-the proper sense, modify A.
-
-I want to suggest, then, that one thing which is always implied by
-the dogma that, "All relations are internal," is that, in the case of
-every relational property, it can always be truly asserted of any term
-A which has that property, that any term which had not had it would
-necessarily have been different from A.
-
-This is the proposition to which I want to direct attention. And there
-are two phrases in it, which require some further explanation.
-
-The first is the phrase "would necessarily have been." And the meaning
-of this can be explained, in a preliminary way, as follows:--To say
-of a pair of properties P and Q, that any term which had had P would
-necessarily have had Q, is equivalent to saying that, in every case,
-from the proposition with regard to any given term that it has P, it
-_follows_ that that term has Q: _follows_ being understood in the sense
-in which from the proposition with regard to any term, that it is a
-right angle, it _follows_ that it is an angle, and in which from the
-proposition with regard to any term that it is red it _follows_ that
-it is coloured. There is obviously some very important sense in which
-from the proposition that a thing is a right angle, it does follow
-that it is an angle, and from the proposition that a thing is red it
-does follow that it is coloured. And what I am maintaining is that the
-metaphorical sense of "modify," in which it is maintained that all
-relational properties modify the subjects which possess them, can be
-defined by reference to this sense of "follows." The definition is: To
-say of a given relational property P that it modifies or is internal to
-a given term A which possesses it, is to say that from the proposition
-that a thing has not got P it follows that that thing is different
-from A. In other words, it is to say that the property of _not_
-possessing P, and the property of being different from A are related
-to one another in the peculiar way in which the property of being a
-right-angled triangle is related to that of being a triangle, or that
-of being red to that of being coloured.
-
-To complete the definition it is necessary, however, to define the
-sense in which "different from A" is to be understood. There are two
-different senses which the statement that A is different from B may
-bear. It may be meant merely that A is _numerically_ different from
-B, _other_ than B, not identical with B. Or it may be meant that not
-only is this the case, but also that A is related to B in a way which
-can be roughly expressed by saying that A is _qualitatively_ different
-from B. And of these two meanings, those who say "All relations make
-a _difference_ to their terms," always, I think, mean difference
-in the latter sense and not merely in the former. That is to say,
-they mean, that if P be a relational property which belongs to A,
-then the absence of P entails not only numerical difference from A,
-but qualitative difference. But, in fact, from the proposition that
-a thing is qualitatively different from A, it does follow that it
-is also numerically different. And hence they are maintaining that
-every relational property is "internal to" its terms in both of two
-different senses at the same time. They are maintaining that, if P be a
-relational property which belongs to A, then P is internal to A both in
-the sense (1) that the absence of P entails qualitative difference from
-A; and (2) that the absence of P entails numerical difference from A.
-It seems to me that neither of these propositions is true; and I will
-say something about each in turn.
-
-As for the first, I said before that I think some relational properties
-really are "internal to" their terms, though by no means all are.
-But, if we understand "internal to" in this first sense, I am not
-really sure that any are. In order to get an example of one which
-was, we should have, I think, to say that any two different qualities
-are always _qualitatively_ different from one another: that, for
-instance, it is not only the case that anything which is pure red is
-qualitatively different from anything which is pure blue, but that
-the quality "pure red" itself is qualitatively different from the
-quality "pure blue." I am not quite sure that we can say this, but I
-think we can; and if so, it is easy to get an example of a relational
-property which is internal in our first sense. The quality "orange" is
-intermediate in shade between the qualities yellow and red. This is a
-relational property, and it is quite clear that, on our assumption,
-it is an internal one. Since it is quite clear that any quality which
-were _not_ intermediate between yellow and red, would necessarily
-be _other_ than orange; and if any quality _other_ than orange must
-be _qualitatively_ different from orange, then it follows that
-"intermediate between yellow and red" is internal to "orange." That is
-to say, the absence of the relational property "intermediate between
-yellow and red," _entails_ the property "different in quality from
-orange."
-
-There is then, I think, a difficulty in being sure that _any_
-relational properties are internal in this first sense. But, if what we
-want to do is to show that some are _not,_ and that therefore the dogma
-that all relations are internal is false, I think the most conclusive
-reason for saying this is that if _all_ were internal in this first
-sense, all would necessarily be internal in the second, and that this
-is plainly false. I think, in fact, the most important consequence of
-the dogma that all relations are internal, is that it follows from it
-that all relational properties are internal in this second sense. I
-propose, therefore, at once to consider this proposition, with a view
-to bringing out quite clearly what it means and involves, and what are
-the main reasons for saying that it is false.
-
-The proposition in question is that, if P be a relational property
-and A a term to which it does in fact belong, then, no matter what
-P and A may be, it may always be truly asserted of them, that any
-term which had _not_ possessed P would necessarily have been other
-than--numerically different from--A: or in other words, that A would
-necessarily, in all conceivable circumstances, have possessed P.
-And with this sense of "internal," as distinguished from that which
-says _qualitatively different,_ it is quite easy to point out some
-relational properties which certainly are internal in this sense.
-Let us take as an example the relational property which we assert to
-belong to a visual sense-datum when we say of it that it has another
-visual sense-datum as a spatial part: the assertion, for instance,
-with regard to a coloured patch half of which is red and half yellow.
-"This whole patch contains this patch" (where "this patch" is a proper
-name for the red half). It is here, I think, quite plain that, in a
-perfectly clear and intelligible sense, we can say that any whole,
-which had not contained that red patch, could not have been identical
-with the whole in question: that from the proposition with regard to
-any term whatever that it does not contain _that_ particular patch it
-_follows_ that that term is _other_ than the whole in question--though
-_not_ necessarily that it is qualitatively different from it. _That_
-particular whole could not have existed without having that particular
-patch for a part. But it seems no less clear, at first sight, that
-there are many other relational properties of which this is not true.
-In order to get an example, we have only to consider the relation which
-the red patch has to the whole patch, instead of considering as before
-that which the whole has to it. It seems quite clear that, though the
-whole could not have existed without having the red patch for a part,
-the red patch might perfectly well have existed without being part
-of that particular whole. In other words, though every relational
-property of the form "having _this_ for a spatial part" is "internal"
-in our sense, it seems equally clear that every property of the form
-"is a spatial part of this whole" is _not_ internal, but purely
-external. Yet this last, according to me, is one of the things which
-the dogma of internal relations denies. It implies that it is just
-as necessary that anything, which is in fact a part of a particular
-whole, should be a part of that whole, as that any whole, which has
-a particular thing for a part, should have that thing for a part. It
-implies, in fact, quite generally, that any term which does in fact
-have a particular relational property, could not have existed without
-having that property. And in saying this it obviously flies in the
-face of common sense. It seems quite obvious that in the case of many
-relational properties which things have, the fact that they have them
-is _a mere matter of fact:_ that the things in question _might_ have
-existed without having them. That this, which seems obvious, is true,
-seems to me to be the most important thing that can be meant by saying
-that some relations are purely external. And the difficulty is to see
-how any philosopher could have supposed that it was not true: that, for
-instance, the relation of part to whole is no more external than that
-of whole to part. I will give at once one main reason which seems to me
-to have led to the view, that _all_ relational properties are internal
-in this sense.
-
-What I am maintaining is the common-sense view, which seems obviously
-true, that it may be true that A has in fact got P and yet also true
-that A might have existed without having P. And I say that this
-is equivalent to saying that it may be true that A has P, and yet
-_not_ true that from the proposition that a thing has _not_ got P it
-_follows_ that that thing is _other_ than A--numerically different from
-it. And one reason why this is disputed is, I think, simply because it
-is in fact true that if A has P, and _x_ has _not_, it _does_ follow
-that _x_ is other than A. These two propositions, the one which I admit
-to be true (1) that if A has P, and _x_ has not, it _does_ follow that
-_x_ is other than A, and the one which I maintain to be false (2) that
-if A has P, then from the proposition with regard to any term _x_
-that it has not got P, it _follows_ that _x_ is other than A, are, I
-think, easily confused with one another. And it is in fact the case
-that if they are not different, or if (2) follows from (1), then no
-relational properties are external. For (1) is certainly true, and (2)
-is certainly equivalent to asserting that none are. It is therefore
-absolutely essential, if we are to maintain external relations, to
-maintain that (2) does _not_ follow from (1). These two propositions
-(1) and (2), with regard to which I maintain that (1) is true, and (2)
-is false, can be put in another way, as follows: (1) asserts that if A
-has P, then any term which has not, _must_ be other than A. (2) asserts
-that if A has P, then any term which had not, _would necessarily be_
-other than A. And when they are put in this form, it is, I think, easy
-to see why they should be confused: you have only to confuse "must"
-or "is necessarily" with "would necessarily be." And their connexion
-with the question of external relations can be brought out as follows:
-To maintain external relations you have to maintain such things as
-that, though Edward VII was in fact father of George V, he _might_
-have existed without being father of George V. But to maintain this,
-you have to maintain that it is _not_ true that a person who was _not_
-father of George would necessarily have been other than Edward. Yet
-it is, in fact, the case, that any person who was not the father of
-George, _must_ have been other than Edward. Unless, therefore, you can
-maintain that from this true proposition it does _not_ follow that any
-person who was _not_ father of George _would necessarily_ have been
-other than Edward, you will have to give up the view that Edward might
-have existed without being father of George.
-
-By far the most important point in connexion with the dogma of internal
-relations seems to me to be simply to see clearly the difference
-between these two propositions (1) and (2), and that (2) does _not_
-follow from (1). If this is not understood, nothing in connexion with
-the dogma, can, I think, be understood. And perhaps the difference may
-seem so clear, that no more need be said about it. But I cannot help
-thinking it is not clear to everybody, and that it does involve the
-rejection of certain views, which are sometimes held as to the meaning
-of "follows." So I will try to put the point again in a perfectly
-strict form.
-
-Let P be a relational property, and A a term to which it does in fact
-belong. I propose to define what is meant by saying that P is internal
-to A (in the sense we are now concerned with) as meaning that from the
-proposition that a thing has not got P, it "follows" that it is _other_
-than A.
-
-That is to say, this proposition asserts that between the two
-properties "not having P" and "other than A," there holds that relation
-which holds between the property "being a right angle" and the property
-"being an angle," or between the property "red" and the property
-"coloured," and which we express by saying that, in the case of any
-thing whatever, from the proposition that that thing is a right angle
-it follows, or is deducible, that it is an angle.
-
-Let us now adopt certain conventions for expressing this proposition.
-
-We require, first of all, some term to express the _converse_ of that
-relation which we assert to hold between a particular proposition _q_
-and a particular proposition _p_, when we assert that _q follows from_
-or _is deducible from p._ Let us use the term "entails" to express the
-converse of this relation. We shall then be able to say truly that "_p_
-entails _q_," when and only when we are able to say truly that "_q_
-follows from _p_" or "is deducible from _p_," in the sense in which the
-conclusion of a syllogism in Barbara follows from the two premisses,
-taken as one conjunctive proposition; or in which the proposition
-"This is coloured" follows from "This is red." "_p_ entails _q_" will
-be related to "_q_ follows from, _p_" in the same way in which "A is
-greater than B" is related to "B is less than A."
-
-We require, next, some short and clear method of expressing the
-proposition, with regard to two properties P and Q, that _any_
-proposition which asserts of a given thing that it has the property
-P _entails_ the proposition that the thing in question also has the
-property Q. Let us express this proposition in the form
-
-_x_P entails _x_Q
-
-That is to say "_x_P entails _x_Q" is to mean the same as "Each one of
-all the various propositions, which are alike in respect of the fact
-that each asserts with regard to some given thing that that thing has
-P, entails _that one_ among the various propositions, alike in respect
-of the fact that each asserts with regard to some given thing that
-that thing has Q, which makes this assertion with regard to the _same
-thing_, with regard to which the proposition of the first class asserts
-that it has P." In other words "_x_P entails _x_Q" is to be true, if
-and only if the proposition "AP entails AQ" is true, and if also all
-propositions which resemble this, in the way in which "BP entails BQ"
-resembles it, are true also; where "AP" means the same as "A has P,"
-"AQ" the same as "A has Q" etc., etc.
-
-We require, next, some way of expressing the proposition, with regard
-to two properties P and Q, that any proposition which _denies_ of a
-given thing that it has P _entails_ the proposition, with regard to the
-thing in question, that it has Q.
-
-Let us, in the case of any proposition, _p_, express the contradictory
-of that proposition by _p_. The proposition "It is not the case that A
-has P" will then be expressed by °AP°; and it will then be natural, in
-accordance with the last convention to express the proposition that any
-proposition which _denies_ of a given thing that it has P _entails_ the
-proposition, with regard to the thing in question,
-
-that it has Q, by
-
-°_xP_° entails _xQ._
-
-And we require, finally, some short way of expressing the proposition,
-with regard to two things B and A, that B is _other_ than (or not
-identical with) A. Let us express "B is identical with A" by "B = A";
-and it will then be natural, according to the last convention, to
-express "B is not identical with A" by
-
-°B = A.°
-
-We have now got everything which is required for expressing, in a short
-symbolic form, the proposition, with regard to a given thing A and
-a given relational property P, which A in fact possesses, that P is
-_internal_ to A. The required expression is
-
-_xP_ entails (°_x_ = A°)
-
-which is to mean the same as "Every proposition which asserts of any
-given thing that it has not got P _entails_ the proposition, with
-regard to the thing in question, that it is other than A." And this
-proposition is, of course, logically equivalent to
-
-(_x_ = A) entails _x_ P
-
-where we are using "logically equivalent," in such a sense that to
-say of any proposition _p_ that it is logically equivalent to another
-proposition _q_ is to say that both _p_ entails _q_ and _q_ entails
-_p._ This last proposition again, is, so far as I can see, either
-identical with or logically equivalent to the propositions expressed
-by "anything which were identical with A would, in any conceivable
-universe, necessarily have P" or by "A could not have existed in any
-possible world without having P"; just as the proposition expressed by
-"In any possible world a right angle must be an angle" is, I take it,
-either identical with or logically equivalent to the proposition "(_x_
-is a right angle) entails (r is an angle)."
-
-We have now, therefore, got a short means of symbolising, with
-regard to any particular thing A and any particular property P, the
-proposition that P is _internal_ to A in the second of the two senses
-distinguished on p. 286. But we still require a means of symbolising
-the general proposition that _every_ relational property is internal
-to any term which possesses it--the proposition, namely, which was
-referred to on p. 287, as the most important consequence of the dogma
-of internal relations, and which was called (2) on p. 289.
-
-In order to get this, let us first get a means of expressing with
-regard to some one particular relational property P, the proposition
-that P is internal to _any_ term which possesses it. This is a
-proposition which takes the form of asserting with regard to one
-particular property, namely P, that any term which possesses that
-property also possesses another--namely the one expressed by saying
-that P is internal to it. It is, that is to say, an ordinary universal
-proposition, like "All men are mortal." But such a form of words is,
-as has often been pointed out, ambiguous. It may stand for either of
-two different propositions. It may stand merely for the proposition
-"There is nothing, which both is a man, and is not mortal"--a
-proposition which may also be expressed by "If anything is a man,
-that thing is mortal," and which is distinguished by the fact that
-it makes no assertion as to whether there are any men or not; or it
-may stand for the conjunctive proposition "If anything is a man, that
-thing is mortal, _and there are men."_ It will be sufficient for our
-purposes to deal with propositions of the first kind--those namely,
-which assert with regard to some two properties, say Q and R, that
-there is nothing which both does possess Q and does not possess R,
-without asserting that anything does possess Q. Such a proposition is
-obviously equivalent to the assertion that _any_ pair of propositions
-which resembles the pair "AQ" and "AR," in respect of the fact that
-one of them asserts of some particular thing that it has Q and the
-other, of the same thing, that it has R, stand to one another in a
-certain relation: the relation, namely, which, in the case of "AQ"
-and "AR," can be expressed by saying that "It is not the case both
-that A has Q and that A has not got R." When we say "There is nothing
-which does possess Q and does not possess R" we are obviously saying
-something which is either identical with or logically equivalent to the
-proposition "In the case of every such pair of propositions it is not
-the case both that the one which asserts a particular thing to have
-Q is true, and that the one which asserts it to have R is false." We
-require, therefore, a short way of expressing the relation between two
-propositions _p_ and _q,_ which can be expressed by "It is not the case
-that _p_ is true and _q_ false." And I am going, quite arbitrarily to
-express this relation by writing
-
-_p_ * _q_
-
-for "It is not the case that _p_ is true and _q_ false."
-
-The relation in question is one which logicians have sometimes
-expressed by "_p_ implies _q_." It is, for instance, the one which
-Mr. Russell in the _'Principles of Mathematics_ calls "material
-implication," and which he and Dr. Whitehead in _Principia Mathematica_
-call simply "implication." And if we do use "implication" to stand for
-this relation, we, of course, got the apparently paradoxical results
-that every false proposition implies every other proposition, both
-true and false, and that every true proposition implies every other
-true proposition: since it is quite clear that if _p_ is false then,
-whatever _q_ may be, "it is not the case that _p_ is true and _q_
-false," and quite clear also, that if _p_ and _q_ are both true, then
-also "it is not the case that _p_ is true and _q_ false." And these
-results, it seems to me, appear to be paradoxical, solely because,
-if we use "implies" in any ordinary sense, they are quite certainly
-false. Why logicians should have thus chosen to use the word "implies"
-as a name for a relation, for which it never is used by any one else,
-I do not know. It is partly, no doubt, because the relation for which
-they do use it--that expressed by saying "It is not the case that _p_
-is true and _q_ false"--is one for which it is very important that
-they should have a short name, because it is a relation which is very
-fundamental and about which they need constantly to talk, while (so far
-as I can discover) it simply has no short name in ordinary life. And
-it is partly, perhaps, for a reason which leads us back to our present
-reason for giving some name to this relation. It is, in fact, natural
-to use "_p_ implies _q_" to mean the same as "If _p,_ then _q."_ And
-though "If _p_ then _q_" is hardly ever, if ever, used to mean the
-same as "It is not the case that _p_ is true and _q_ false"; yet the
-expression "If _anything_ has Q, _it_ has R" may, I think, be naturally
-used to express the proposition that, in the case of _every_ pair of
-propositions which resembles the pair A Q and A R in respect of the
-fact that the first of the pair asserts of some particular thing that
-it has Q and the second, of the same thing, that it has R, it is not
-the case that the first is true and the second false. That is to say,
-if (as I propose to do) we express "It is not the case both that AQ is
-true and AR false" by
-
-AQ * AR,
-
-and if, further (on the analogy of the similar case with regard
-to "entails)," we express the proposition that of _every_ pair of
-propositions which resemble A Q and A R in the respect just mentioned,
-it is true that the first has the relation * to the second by
-
-_x_Q * _x_R
-
-then, it _is_ natural to express _x_Q * _x_R, by "If _anything_ has
-Q, then _that thing_ has R." And logicians may, I think, have falsely
-inferred that _since_ it is natural to express "_x_Q * _x_R" by "If
-_anything_ has Q, then _that thing_ has R," it _must_ be natural to
-express "AQ * AR" by "If AQ, then AR," and therefore also by "AQ
-implies AR." If this has been their reason for expressing "_p * q_"
-by "_p_ implies _q_" then obviously their reason is a fallacy. And,
-whatever the reason may have been, it seems to me quite certain that
-"AQ * AR" cannot be properly expressed either by "AQ implies AR" or by
-"If AQ, then AR," although "_r_Q * _x_R" can be properly expressed by
-"If anything has Q, then that thing has R."
-
-I am going, then, to express the universal proposition, with regard to
-two particular properties Q and R, which asserts that "Whatever has
-Q, has R" or "If anything has Q, it has R," without asserting that
-anything has Q, by
-
-_x_Q * _x_R
-
---a means of expressing it, which since we have adopted the convention
-that "_p_ * _q_" is to mean the same as "It is not the case that
-_p_ is true and _q_ false," brings out the important fact that this
-proposition is either identical with or logically equivalent to the
-proposition that of _every_ such pair of propositions as AQ and AR,
-it is true that it is not the case that the first is true and the
-second false. And having adopted this convention, we can now see how,
-in accordance with it, the proposition, with regard to a particular
-property P, that P is _internal_ to _everything_ which possesses it, is
-to be expressed. We saw that P is _internal_ to A is to be expressed by
-
-°_xP_° entails (°_x_ = A°)
-
-or by the logically equivalent proposition
-
-(_x =_ A) entails _xP_
-
-And we have now only to express the proposition that _anything_ that
-has P, has also the property that P is _internal_ to it. The required
-expression is obviously as follows. Just as "Anything that has Q, has
-R" is to be expressed by
-
-_x_Q * _x_R
-
-so "Anything that has P, has also the property that P is internal to
-it" will be expressed by
-
-_x_P * {°_y_P° entails (°_y x_°)}
-
-or by
-
-_x_P * {(_v x_) entails _y_P}.
-
-We have thus got, in the case of any particular property P, a means
-of expressing the proposition that it is _internal_ to _every_ term
-that possesses it, which is both short and brings out clearly the
-notions that are involved in it. And we do not need, I think, any
-further special convention for symbolising the proposition that _every_
-relational property is internal to any term which possesses it--the
-proposition, namely, which I called (2) above (pp. 289, 290), and which
-on p. 287, I called the most important consequence of the dogma of
-internal relations. We can express it simply enough as follows:--
-
-(2) = "What we assert of P when we say _xP_ * {°_y_P° entails (°_y =
-x_°)} can be truly asserted of every relational property."
-
-And now, for the purpose of comparing (2) with (1), and seeing exactly
-what is involved in my assertion that (2) does not follow from (1), let
-us try to express (1) by means of the same conventions.
-
-Let us first take the assertion with regard to a particular thing A
-and a particular relational property P that, from the proposition that
-A has P it _follows_ that nothing which has not got P is identical
-with A. This is an assertion which is quite certainly true; since, if
-anything which had not got P were identical with A, it would follow
-that °AP°; and from the proposition AP, it certainly _follows_ that
-°AP° is false, and therefore also that "Something which has not got P
-is identical with A" is false, or that "Nothing which has not got P is
-identical with A" is true. And this assertion, in accordance with the
-conventions we have adopted, will be expressed
-
-by
-
-AP entails {°_x_P° * (°_x_ = A°)}
-
-We want, next, in order to express (1), a means of expressing with
-regard to a particular relational property P, the assertion that, from
-the proposition, with regard to _anything_ whatever, that that thing
-has got P, it _follows_ that nothing which has not got P is identical
-with the thing in question. This also is an assertion which is quite
-certainly true; since it merely asserts (what is obviously true) that
-what
-
-AP entails {°_x_P° * (°_x_ = A°)}
-
-asserts of A, can be truly asserted of anything whatever. And this
-assertion, in accordance with the conventions we have adopted, will be
-expressed by
-
-_x_P entails {°_y_P° * (°_y_ = x°)}.
-
-The proposition, which I meant to call (1), but which I expressed
-before rather clumsily, can now be expressed by
-
-(1) = "What we assert of P, when we say,
-
-_x_P entails {°_y_P° * (°y = _x_°)}
-
-can be truly asserted of every relational property." This is a
-proposition which is again quite certainly true; and, in order to
-compare it with (2), there is, I think, no need to adopt any further
-convention for expressing it, since the questions whether it is or is
-not different from (2), and whether (2) does or does not follow from
-it, will obviously depend on the same questions with regard to the two
-propositions, with regard to the particular relational property, P,
-
-_x_P entails {°_y_P° * (°_y = x_°)}
-
-and
-
-_x_P * {_y_P entails (_y = x_)}
-
-Now what I maintain with regard to (1) and (2) is that, whereas (1) is
-true, (2) is false. I maintain, that is to say, that the proposition
-"What we assert of P, when we say
-
-_x_P * {°_y_P° entails (°_y = x_°)}.
-
-is true of _every_ relational property" is false, though I admit that
-what we here assert of P is true of _some_ relational properties.
-Those of which it is true, I propose to call _internal_ relational
-properties, those of which it is false _external_ relational
-properties. The dogma of internal relations, on the other hand, implies
-that (2) is true; that is to say, that _every_ relational property is
-_internal_ and that there are no _external_ relational properties. And
-what I suggest is that the dogma of internal relations has been held
-only because (2) has been falsely thought to follow from (1).
-
-And that (2) does not follow from (1), can, I think, be easily seen as
-follows. It can follow from (1) only if from any proposition of the form
-
-_p_ entails (_q_ * _r_)
-
-there follows the corresponding proposition of the form
-
-_p_ * (_q_ entails _r_),
-
-And that this is not the case can, I think, be easily seen by
-considering the following three propositions. Let _p_ = "All the books
-on this shelf are blue," let _q_ = "My copy of the _Principles of
-Mathematics_ is a book on this shelf," and let _r_ = "My copy of the
-_Principles of Mathematics_ is blue." Now _p_ here does absolutely
-_entail_ (_q * r_). That is to say, it absolutely follows from _p_
-that "My copy of the _Principles_ is on this shelf," and "My copy of
-the _Principles_ is _not_ blue," are not, as a matter of fact, both
-true. But it by no means follows from this that _p_ * (_q_ entails
-_r_). For what this latter proposition means is "It is not the case
-both that _p_ is true and that (_q_ entails _r_) is false." And, as a
-matter of fact, (_q_ entails _r_) is quite certainly false; for from
-the proposition "My copy of the _Principles_ is on this shelf" the
-proposition "My copy of the _Principles_ is blue" does _not_ follow. It
-is simply not the case that the second of these two propositions can be
-deduced from the first _by itself:_ it is simply not the case that it
-stands to it in the relation in which it does stand to the conjunctive
-proposition "All the books on this shelf are blue _and,_ my copy of the
-_Principles_ is on this shelf." This conjunctive proposition really
-does _entail_ "My copy of the _Principles_ is blue." But "My copy of
-the _Principles_ is on this shelf," _by itself_ quite certainly does
-not entail "My copy of the Principles is blue." It is simply not the
-case that my copy of the Principles _couldn't_ have been on this shelf
-without being blue, (_q_ entails _r_) is, therefore, false. And hence
-"_p_ * (_q_ entails _r_)," can only follow from "_p_ entails (_q_ *
-_r_)," if from this latter proposition °_p_° follows. But _p_ quite
-certainly does not follow from this proposition: from the fact that (_q
-* r_) is deducible from _p_, it does not in the least follow that °_p_°
-is true. It is, therefore, clearly not the case that every proposition
-of the form
-
-_p_ entails (_q * r_)
-
-entails the corresponding proposition of the form
-
-_p_ * {_q_ entails _r_},
-
-since we have found one particular proposition of the first form which
-does _not_ entail the corresponding proposition of the second.
-
-To maintain, therefore, that (2) follows from (1) is mere confusion.
-And one source of the confusion is, I think, pretty plain. (1) does
-allow you to assert that, if AP is true, then the proposition "°_y_P°
-* {°(_y_ = A°)}" _must_ be true. What the "must" here expresses is
-merely that this proposition follows from AP, not that it is in itself
-a necessary proposition. But it is supposed, through confusion, that
-what is asserted is that it is not the case both that AP is true
-and that "°_y_P° * (°_y_ = A°)" is not, _in itself,_ a necessary
-proposition; that is to say, it is supposed that what is asserted is
-"AP + {°_y_P° entails (°_y_ = A°)}"; since to say that "°_y_P° * (°_y_
-= A°)" is, _in itself_, a necessary proposition is the same thing as to
-say that "°_y_P° entails (°_y_ = A°)" is also true. In fact it seems
-to me pretty plain that what is meant by saying of propositions of
-the form "_x_P * _x_Q" that they are _necessary_ (or "apodeictic")
-propositions, is merely that the corresponding proposition of the
-form "_x_P entails _x_Q" is also true, "_x_P _entails_ _x_Q" is not
-_itself_ a necessary proposition; but, if "_x_P entails _x_Q" is
-_true,_ then "_x_P * _x_Q" is a necessary proposition--and a necessary
-truth, since no false propositions are necessary in themselves. Thus
-what is meant by saying that "Whatever is a right angle, is also an
-angle" is a necessary truth, is, so far as I can see, simply that the
-proposition "(_x_ is a right angle) entails (_x_ is an angle)" is
-also true. This seems to me to give what has, in fact, been generally
-meant in philosophy by "necessary truths," _e.g._ by Leibniz; and
-to point out the distinction between them and those true universal
-propositions which are "mere matters of fact." And if we want to extend
-the meaning of the name "necessary truth" in such a way that some
-singular propositions may also be said to be "necessary truths," we
-can, I think, easily do it as follows. We can say that AP is itself
-a necessary truth, if and only if the universal proposition "(_x_ =
-A) * _x_P" (which, as we have seen, follows from AP) is a necessary
-truth: that is to say, if and only if (_x_ = A) entails _x_P. With
-this definition, what the dogma of internal relations asserts is that
-in every case in which a given thing actually has a given relational
-property, the fact that it has that property is a necessary truth;
-whereas what I am asserting is that, if the property in question is
-an "internal" property, then the fact in question will be a necessary
-truth, whereas if the property in question is "external," then the fact
-in question will be a mere "matter of fact."
-
-So much for the distinction between (1) which is true, and (2), or
-the dogma of internal relations, which I hold to be false. But I said
-above, in passing, that my contention that (2) does not follow from
-(1), involves the rejection of certain views that have sometimes been
-held as to the meaning of "follows"; and I think it is worth while to
-say something about this.
-
-It is obvious that the possibility of maintaining that (2) does not
-follow from (1), depends upon its being true that from "_x_P * _x_Q"
-the proposition "_x_P entails _x_Q" does not follow. And this has
-sometimes been disputed, and is, I think, often not clearly seen.
-
-To begin with, Mr. Russell, in the _Principles of Mathematics_ (p. 34),
-treats the phrase "_q_ can be deduced from _p_" as if it meant exactly
-the same thing as "_p * q_" or "_p_ materially implies _q_"; and has
-repeated the same error elsewhere, _e.g._ in _Philosophical Essays_
-(p. 166), where he is discussing what _he_ calls the axiom of internal
-relations. And I am afraid a good many people have been led to suppose
-that, since Mr. Russell has said this, it must be true. If it were
-true, then, of course, it would be impossible to distinguish between
-(1) and (2), and it would follow that, since (1) certainly is true,
-what I am calling the dogma of internal relations is true too. But I
-imagine that Mr. Russell himself would now be willing to admit that, so
-far from being true, the statement that "_q_ can be deduced from _p_"
-means the same as "_p_ * _q_" is simply an enormous "howler"; and I do
-not think I need spend any time in trying to show that it is so.
-
-But it may be held that, though "_p_ entails _q_" does not mean the
-same as "_p * q_," yet nevertheless from "_x_P * _x_Q" the proposition
-"_x_P entails _x_Q" does follow, for a somewhat more subtle reason;
-and, if this were so, it would again follow that what I am calling the
-dogma of internal relations must be true. It may be held, namely, that
-though "AP entails AQ" does not mean simply "AP * AQ" yet what it does
-mean is simply the conjunction "AP * AQ _and_ this proposition is an
-instance of a true formal implication" (the phrase "formal implication"
-being understood in Mr. Russell's sense, in which "_x_P * _x_Q" asserts
-a formal implication). This view as to what "AP entails AQ" means,
-has, for instance, if I understand him rightly, been asserted by Mr.
-O. Strachey in _Mind,_ N.S., 93. And the same view has been frequently
-suggested (though I do not know that he has actually asserted it) by
-Mr. Russell himself (_e.g., Principia Mathematica,_ p. 21). If this
-view were true, then, though "_x_P entails _x_Q" would not be identical
-in meaning with "_x_P * _x_Q," yet it would follow from it; since, if
-
-_x_P * _x_Q
-
-were true, then every particular assertion of the form AP * AQ, would
-not only be true, but would be an instance of a true formal implication
-(namely "_x_P * _x_Q") and this, according to the proposed definition,
-is all that "_x_P entails _x_Q" asserts. If, therefore, it were true,
-it would again follow that all relational properties must be internal.
-But that this view also is untrue appears to me perfectly obvious. The
-proposition that I am in this room does "materially imply" that I am
-more than five years old, since both are true; and the assertion that
-it does is also an instance of a true formal implication, since it is
-in fact true that all the persons in this room are more than five years
-old; but nothing appears to me more obvious than that the second of
-these two propositions can _not_ be deduced from the first--that the
-kind of relation which holds between the premisses and conclusion of
-a syllogism in _Barbara_ does _not_ hold between them. To put it in
-another way: it seems to me quite obvious that the properties "being
-a person in this room" and "being more than five years old" are not
-related in the kind of way in which "being a right angle" _is_ related
-to "being an angle," and which we express by saying that, in the case
-of every term, the proposition that that term is an angle can be
-deduced from the proposition that it is a right angle.
-
-These are the only two suggestions as to the meaning of "_p_ entails
-_q_" known to me, which, if true, would yield the result that (2)
-does follow from (1), and that therefore all relational properties
-are internal; and both of these, it seems to me, are obviously
-false. All other suggested meanings, so far as I know, would leave
-it true that (2) does not follow from (1), and therefore that I may
-possibly be right in maintaining that some relational properties are
-external. It might, for instance, be suggested that the last proposed
-definition should be amended as follows--that we should say: "_p_
-entails _q_" means "_p * q and_ this proposition is an instance of a
-formal implication, which is not merely true but _self-evident,_ like
-the laws of Formal Logic." This proposed definition would avoid the
-paradoxes involved in Mr. Strachey's definition, since such true formal
-implications as "all the persons in this room are more than five years
-old" are certainly not self-evident; and, so far as I. can see, it may
-state something which is in fact true of _p_ and _q,_ whenever and only
-when _p_ entails _q._ I do not myself think that it gives the _meaning_
-of "_p_ entails _q,_" since the kind of relation which I see to hold
-between the premisses and conclusion of a syllogism seems to me to be
-one which is purely "objective" in the sense that no psychological
-term, such as is involved in the meaning of "self-evident," is involved
-in its definition (if it has one). I am not, however, concerned to
-dispute that some such definition of "_p_ entails _q_" as this may be
-true. Since it is evident that, even if it were, my proposition that
-"_x_P entails _x_Q" does _not_ follow from "_x_P * _x_Q," would still
-be true; and hence also my contention that (2) does not follow from (1).
-
-So much by way of arguing that we are not bound to hold that all
-relational properties are internal in the particular sense, with which
-we are now concerned, in which to say that they are means that in every
-case in which a thing A has a relational property, it follows from the
-proposition that a term has _not_ got that property that the term in
-question is _other_ than A. But I have gone further and asserted that
-some relational properties certainly are _not_ internal. And in defence
-of this proposition I do not know that I have anything to say but that
-it seems to me evident in many cases that a term which _has_ a certain
-relational property _might_ quite well not have had it: that, for
-instance, from the mere proposition that this is this, it by no means
-follows that this has to other things all the relations which it in
-fact has. Everybody, of course, must admit that if all the propositions
-which assert of it that it has these properties, do in fact follow from
-the proposition that this is this, we cannot see that they do. And so
-far as I can see, there is no reason of any kind for asserting that
-they do, except the confusion which I have exposed. But it seems to me
-further that we can see in many cases that the proposition that this
-has that relation does _not_ follow from the fact that it is this:
-that, for instance, the proposition that Edward VII was father of
-George V _is_ a _mere_ matter of fact.
-
-I want now to return for a moment to that other meaning of "internal,"
-(p. 286) in which to say that P is internal to A means not merely that
-anything which had not P would necessarily be _other_ than A, but that
-it would necessarily be _qualitatively_ different. I said that this
-was the meaning of "internal" in which the dogma of internal relations
-holds that all relational properties are "internal"; and that one of
-the most important consequences which followed from it, was that all
-relational properties are "internal" in the less extreme sense that
-we have just been considering. But, if I am not mistaken, there is
-another important consequence which also follows from it, namely, the
-Identity of Indiscernibles. For if it be true, in the case of every
-relational property, that any term which had net that property would
-necessarily be qualitatively different from any which had, it follows
-of course that, in the case of two terms one of which has a relational
-property, which the other has not the two are qualitatively different.
-But, from the proposition that _x_ is other than _y,_ it _does_ follow
-that _x_ has some relational property which _y_ has not; and hence,
-if the dogma of internal relations be true, it will follow that if
-_x_ is other than _y, x_ is always also qualitatively different from
-_y,_ which is the principle of Identity of Indiscernibles. This is, of
-course, a further objection to the dogma of internal relations, since I
-think it is obvious that the principle of Identity of Indiscernibles is
-not true. Indeed, so far as I can see, the dogma of internal relations
-essentially consists in the joint assertion of two indefensible
-propositions: (1) the proposition that in the case of no relational
-property is it true of any term which has got that property, that it
-_might_ not have had it and (2) the Identity of Indiscernibles.
-
-I want, finally, to say something about the phrase which Mr. Russell
-uses in the _Philosophical Essays_ to express the dogma of internal
-relations. He says it may be expressed in the form "Every relation is
-grounded in the natures of the related terms" (p. 160). And it can be
-easily seen, if the account which I have given be true, in what precise
-sense it does hold this. Mr. Russell is uncertain as to whether by "the
-nature" of a term is to be understood the term itself or something
-else. For my part it seems to me that by a term's nature is meant, not
-the term itself, but what may roughly be called all its qualities as
-distinguished from its relational properties. But whichever meaning
-we take, it will follow from what I have said, that the dogma of
-internal relations does imply that every relational property which a
-term has is, in a perfectly precise sense, _grounded_ in its nature.
-It will follow that every such property is _grounded_ in _the term,_
-in the sense that, in the case of every such property, it _follows_
-from the mere proposition that that term is that term that it has the
-property in question. And it will also follow that any such property
-is grounded in the qualities which the term has, in the sense, that if
-you take _all_ the qualities which the term has, it will again follow
-in the case of each relational property, from the proposition that the
-term has _all_ those qualities that it has the relational property in
-question; since this is implied by the proposition that in the case of
-any such property, any term which had not had it would necessarily have
-been different in quality from the term in question. In both of these
-two senses, then, the dogma of internal relations does, I think, imply
-that every relational property is grounded in the nature of every term
-which possesses it; and in this sense that proposition is false. Yet
-it is worth noting, I think, that there is another sense of "grounded"
-in which it may quite well be true that every relational property _is_
-grounded in the nature of any term which possesses it. Namely that, in
-the case of every such property, the term in question has some quality
-_without_ which it could not have had the property. In other words that
-the relational property _entails_ some quality in the term, though no
-quality in the term _entails_ the relational property.
-
-
-
-
-THE NATURE OF MORAL PHILOSOPHY
-
-
-I should like, if I can, to interest you to-night in one particular
-question about Moral Philosophy. It is a question which resembles most
-philosophical questions, in respect of the fact that philosophers are
-by no means agreed as to what is the right answer to it: some seem to
-be very strongly convinced that one answer is correct, while others are
-equally strongly convinced of the opposite. For my own part I do feel
-some doubt as to which answer is the right one, although, as you will
-see, I incline rather strongly to one of the two alternatives. I should
-like very much, if I could, to find some considerations which seemed to
-me absolutely convincing on the one side or the other; for the question
-seems to me in itself to be an exceedingly interesting one.
-
-I have said that the question is a question _about_ Moral Philosophy;
-and it seems to me in fact to be a very large and general question
-which affects the whole of Moral Philosophy. In asking it, we are doing
-no less than asking what it is that people are doing when they study
-Moral Philosophy at all: we are asking what sort of questions it is
-which it is the business of Moral Philosophy to discuss and try to
-find the right answer to. But I intend, for the sake of simplicity,
-to confine myself to asking it in two particular instances. Moral
-Philosophy has, in fact, to discuss a good many different ideas;
-and though I think this same question may be raised with regard to
-them all, I intend to pick out two, which seem to me particularly
-fundamental, and to ask it with regard to them only.
-
-My first business must be to explain what these two ideas are.
-
-The name Moral Philosophy naturally suggests that what is meant is a
-department of philosophy which has something to do with morality. And
-we all understand roughly what is meant by morality. We are accustomed
-to the distinction between moral good and evil, on the one hand, and
-what is sometimes called physical good and evil on the other. We all
-make the distinction between a man's moral character, on the one hand,
-and his agreeableness or intellectual endowments, on the other. We feel
-that to accuse a man of immoral conduct is quite a different thing from
-accusing him merely of bad taste or bad manners, or from accusing him
-merely of stupidity or ignorance. And no less clearly we distinguish
-between the idea of being under a moral obligation to do a thing, and
-the idea of being merely under a legal obligation to do it. It is a
-commonplace that the sphere of morality is much wider than the sphere
-of law: that we are morally bound to do and avoid many things, which
-are not enjoined or forbidden by the laws of our country; and it is
-also sometimes held that, if a particular law is unjust or immoral, it
-may even be a moral duty to disobey it--that is to say that there may
-be a positive conflict between moral and legal obligation; and the mere
-fact that this is held, whether truly or falsely, shows, at all events,
-that the one idea is quite distinct from the other.
-
-The name Moral Philosophy, then, naturally suggests that it is a
-department of philosophy concerned with morality in this common sense.
-And it is, in fact, true that one large department of Moral Philosophy
-is so concerned. But it would be a mistake to think that the whole
-subject is _only_ concerned with morality. Another important department
-of it is, as I shall try to show, concerned with ideas which are _not_
-moral ideas, in this ordinary sense, though, no doubt, they may have
-something to do with them. And of the two ideas which I propose to
-pick out for discussion, while one of them is a moral idea, the other
-belongs to that department of Moral Philosophy, which is not concerned
-solely with morality, and is not, I think, properly speaking, a moral
-idea at all.
-
-Let us begin with the one of the two, which is a moral idea.
-
-The particular moral idea which I propose to pick out for discussion
-is the one which I have called above the idea of moral obligation--the
-idea of being morally bound to act in a particular way on a particular
-occasion. But what is, so far as I can see, precisely the same idea
-is also called by several other names. To say that I am under a moral
-obligation to do a certain thing is, I think, clearly to say the same
-thing as what we commonly express by saying that I ought to do it,
-or that it is my duty to do it. That is to say, the idea of moral
-obligation is identical with the idea of the moral "ought" and with the
-idea of duty. And it also seems at first sight as if we might make yet
-another identification.
-
-The assertion that I ought to do a certain thing seems as if it meant
-much the same as the assertion that it would be wrong of me _not_ to do
-the thing in question: at all events it is quite clear that, whenever
-it is my duty to do anything, it would be wrong of me not to do it,
-and that whenever it would be wrong of me to do anything, then it is
-my duty to refrain from doing it. In the case of these two ideas, the
-idea of what is wrong, and the idea of what is my duty or what I ought
-to do, different views may be taken as to whether the one is more
-fundamental than the other, or whether both are equally so; and on
-the question: _If_ one of the two is more fundamental than the other,
-which of the two is so? Thus some people would say, that the idea of
-"wrong" is the more fundamental, and that the idea of "duty" is to be
-defined in terms of it: that, in fact, the statement "It is my duty to
-keep that promise" merely means "It would be wrong of me not to keep
-it"; and the statement "It is my duty not to tell a lie" merely means
-"It would be wrong of me to tell one." Others again would apparently
-say just the opposite: that duty is the more fundamental notion, and
-"wrong" is to be defined in terms of it. While others perhaps would
-hold that neither is more fundamental than the other; that both are
-equally fundamental, and that the statement "it would be wrong to do so
-and so" is only equivalent to, not identical in meaning with, "I ought
-not to do it." But whichever of these three views be the true one,
-there is, I think, no doubt whatever about the equivalence notion of
-the two ideas; and no doubt, therefore, that whatever answer be given
-to the question I am going to raise about the one, the same answer must
-be given to the corresponding question about the other.
-
-The moral idea, then, which I propose to discuss, is the idea of duty
-or moral obligation, or, what comes to the same thing, the idea of what
-is wrong--morally wrong. Everybody would agree that this idea--or, to
-speak more accurately, one or both of these two ideas--is among the
-most fundamental of our moral ideas, whether or not they would admit
-that all others, for example the ideas of moral goodness, involve a
-reference to this one in their definition, or would hold that we have
-some others which are independent of it, and equally fundamental with
-it.
-
-But there is a good deal of difficulty in getting clear as to what this
-idea of moral obligation itself is. Is there in fact only one idea
-which we call by this name? Or is it possible that on some occasions
-when we say that so and so is a duty, we mean something different by
-this expression from what we do on others? And that similarly when
-we say that so and so is morally wrong, we sometimes use this name
-"morally wrong" for one idea and sometimes for another; so that one
-and the same thing may be "morally wrong" in one sense of the word,
-and yet _not_ morally wrong in another? I think, in fact, there are
-two different senses in which we use these terms; and to point out the
-difference between them, will help to bring out clearly more the nature
-of each. And I think perhaps the difference can be brought out most
-clearly by considering the sort of moral rules with which we are all of
-us familiar.
-
-Everybody knows that moral teachers are largely concerned in laying
-down moral rules, and in disputing the truth of rules which have been
-previously accepted. And moral rules seem to consist, to a very large
-extent, in assertions to the effect that it is always wrong to do
-certain actions or to refrain from doing certain others; or (what comes
-to the same thing) that it is always your duty to refrain from certain
-actions, and positively to do certain others. The Ten Commandments for
-example, are instances of moral rules; and most of them are examples
-of what are called negative rules--that is to say rules which assert
-merely that it is wrong to do certain positive actions, and therefore
-our duty to refrain from these actions; instead of rules which assert
-of certain positive actions, that it is our duty to do them and
-therefore wrong to refrain from doing them. The fifth commandment,
-which tells us to honour our father and mother, is apparently an
-exception; it seems to be a positive rule. It is not, like the others,
-expressed in the negative form "Thou shalt _not_ do so and so," and
-it is apparently really meant to assert that we ought to do certain
-positive actions, not merely that there are some positive action from
-which we ought to refrain. The difference between this one and the
-rest will thus serve as an example of the difference between positive
-and negative moral rules, a difference which is sometimes treated as
-if it were of great importance. And I do not wish to deny that there
-may be some important difference between seeing only that certain
-positive actions are wrong, and seeing also that, in certain cases, to
-refrain from doing certain actions is just as wrong as positively to
-do certain others. But this distinction between positive and negative
-rules is certainly of much less importance than another which is, I
-think, liable to be confused with it. So far as this distinction goes
-it is only a distinction between an assertion that it is wrong to do a
-positive action and an assertion that it is wrong to refrain from doing
-one: and each of these assertions is equivalent to one which asserts
-a duty--the first with an assertion that it is a duty to refrain, the
-second with an assertion that a positive action is a duty. But there is
-another distinction between some moral rules and others, which is of
-much greater importance than this one, and which does, I think, give a
-reason for thinking that the term "moral obligation" is actually used
-in different senses on different occasions.
-
-I have said that moral rules seem to consist, _to a large extent_,
-in assertions to the effect that it is always wrong to do certain
-_actions_ or to refrain from doing certain others, or the equivalent
-assertions in terms of duty. But there is a large class of moral
-rules, with which we are all of us very familiar, which do not come
-under this definition. They are rules which are concerned not with our
-_actions_, in the natural sense of the word, but with our feelings,
-thoughts and desires. An illustration of this kind of rule can again
-be given from the Ten Commandments. Most of the ten, as we all know,
-are concerned merely with actions; but the tenth at least is clearly
-an exception. The tenth says "Thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's
-house, nor his wife, nor his servant, nor his ox, nor his ass, nor
-anything that is his," and, unless "covet" is merely a mistranslation
-of a word which stands for some kind of action, we plainly have here a
-rule which is concerned with our _feelings_ and not with our actions.
-And one reason which makes the distinction between rules of this kind
-and rules concerned with actions important, is that our feelings are
-not, as a rule, directly within the control of our will in the sense in
-which many of our actions are. I cannot, for instance, by any single
-act of will directly prevent from arising in my mind a desire for
-something that belongs to some one else, even if, when once the desire
-has arrived, I can by my will prevent its continuance; and even this
-last I can hardly do _directly_ but only by forcing myself to attend
-to other considerations which may extinguish the desire. But though
-I thus cannot prevent myself altogether from coveting my neighbour's
-possessions, I can altogether prevent myself from stealing them. The
-action of stealing, and the feeling of covetousness, are clearly on a
-very different level in this respect. The action is _directly_ within
-the control of my will, whereas the feeling is not. _If_ I will not
-to take the thing (though of course some people may find a great
-difficulty in willing this) it does in general follow directly that I
-do not take it; whereas, it I will not to desire it, it emphatically
-does not, even in general, follow directly that no desire for it will
-be there. This distinction between the way in which our feelings and
-our actions are under the control of our wills is, I think, a very
-real one indeed; we cannot help constantly recognising that it exists.
-And it has an important bearing on the distinction between those moral
-rules which deal with actions and those which deal with feelings, for
-the following reason. The philosopher Kant laid down a well-known
-proposition to the effect that "ought" implies "can": that is to say,
-that it cannot be true that you "ought" to do a thing, unless it is
-true that you _could_ do it, _if_ you chose. And as regards one of
-the senses in which we commonly use the words "ought" and "duty," I
-think this rule is plainly true. When we say absolutely of ourselves
-or others, "I ought to do so and so" or "you ought to," we imply,
-I think, very often that the thing in question is a thing which we
-_could_ do, _if_ we chose; though of course it may often be a thing
-which it is very difficult to choose to do. Thus it is clear that I
-cannot truly say of anyone that he ought to do a certain thing, if it
-is a thing which it is physically impossible for him to do, however
-desirable it may be that the thing should be done. And in this sense it
-is clear that it cannot be truly said of me that I ought not to have a
-certain feeling, or that I ought not to have had it, if it is a feeling
-which I could not, by any effort of my will, prevent myself from
-having. The having or the prevention of a certain feeling is not, of
-course, strictly ever a _physical_ impossibility, but it is very often
-impossible, in exactly the same sense, in which actions are physically
-impossible--that is to say that I could not possibly get it or prevent
-it, even if I would. But this being so, it is plain that such a
-moral rule as that I ought not to covet my neighbour's possessions
-is, if it means to assert that I ought not, in that sense in which
-"ought" implies "can," a rule which cannot possibly be true. What it
-appears to assert is, absolutely universally, of _every_ feeling of
-covetousness, that the feeling in question is one which the person who
-felt it _ought_ not to have felt. But in fact a very large proportion
-of such feelings (I am inclined to say the vast majority) are feelings
-which the person who felt them could not have prevented feeling, if he
-would: they were beyond the control of his will. And hence it is quite
-emphatically _not_ true that none of these feelings _ought_ to have
-been felt, if we are using "ought" in the sense which implies that the
-person who felt them _could_ have avoided them. So far from its being
-true that absolutely _none_ of them ought to have been felt, this is
-only true of those among them, probably a small minority, which the
-person who felt them _could_ have avoided feeling. If, therefore, moral
-rules with regard to feelings are to have a chance of being _nearly_
-true, we must understand the "ought" which occurs in them in some
-other sense. But with moral rules that refer to actions the case is
-very different. Take stealing for example. Here again what the Eighth
-Commandment appears to imply is that absolutely every theft which has
-ever occurred was an act which the agent ought not to have done; and,
-if the "ought" is the one which implies "can," it implies, therefore,
-that every theft was an act which the agent, if he had chosen, could
-have avoided. And this statement that every theft which has been
-committed was an act which the thief, _if_ he had so willed, could
-have avoided, though it may be doubted if it is absolutely universally
-true, is not a statement which is clearly absurd, like the statement
-that every covetous desire could have been avoided by the will of the
-person who felt it. It is probable that the vast majority of acts of
-theft have been acts which it was in the power of the thief to avoid,
-if he had willed to do so; whereas this is clearly not true of the vast
-majority of covetous desires. It is, therefore, quite possible that
-those who believe we ought never to steal are using "ought" in a sense
-which implies that stealing always _could_ have been avoided; whereas
-it is I think quite certain that many of those who believe that we
-ought to avoid all covetous desires, do not believe for a moment that
-every covetous desire that has ever been felt was a desire which the
-person who felt it could have avoided feeling, if he had chosen. And
-yet they certainly do believe, in some sense or other, that no covetous
-desire _ought_ ever to have been felt. The conclusion is, therefore,
-it seems to me, unavoidable that we do use "ought," the moral "ought,"
-in two different senses; the one a sense in which to say that I ought
-to have done so and so does really imply that I could have done it,
-if I had chosen, and the other a sense in which it carries with it no
-such implication. I think perhaps the difference between the two can be
-expressed in this way. If we express the meaning of the first "ought,"
-the one which does imply "can," by saying that "I ought to have done
-so and so" means "It actually _was_ my duty to do it"; we can express
-the meaning of the second by saying that _e.g._ "I ought not to have
-felt so and so" means _not_ "it _was_ my duty to avoid that feeling,"
-but "it _would_ have been my duty to avoid it, _if_ I had been able."
-And corresponding to these two meanings of "ought" we should, I think,
-probably distinguish two different sorts of moral rules, which though
-expressed in the same language, do in fact mean very different things.
-The one is a set of rules which assert (whether truly or falsely)
-that it always actually _is_ a duty to do or to refrain from certain
-actions, and assert therefore that it always is in the power of the
-agent's will to do or to refrain from them; whereas the other sort only
-assert that so and so _would_ be a duty, if it _were_ within our power,
-without at all asserting that it always is within our power.
-
-We may, perhaps, give a name to the distinction I mean, by calling the
-first kind of rules--those which do assert that something actually is
-a duty--"rules of duty," and by calling the second kind--those which
-recommend or condemn something not in the control of our wills--"ideal
-rules": choosing this latter name because they can be said to inculcate
-a moral "ideal"--something the attainment of which is not directly
-within the power of our wills. As a further example of the difference
-between ideal rules and rules of duty we may take the famous passage
-from the New Testament (Luke 6, 27) "Love your enemies, do good to
-them that hate you, bless them that curse you, pray for them that
-despitefully use you." Of these four rules, the three last may be
-rules of duty, because they refer to things which are plainly, as a
-rule, at least, in the power of your will; but the first, if "love"
-be understood in its natural sense as referring to your feelings, is
-plainly only an "ideal" rule, since such feelings are obviously not
-directly under our own control, in the same way in which such actions
-as doing good to, blessing or praying for a person are so. To love
-certain people, or to feel no anger against them, is a thing which
-it is quite impossible to attain directly by will, or perhaps ever
-to attain completely at all. Whereas your behaviour towards them is
-a matter within your own control: even if you hate a person, or feel
-angry with him, you can so control yourself as not to do him harm, and
-even to confer benefits upon him. To do good to your enemies may, then,
-really be your duty; but it cannot, in the strict sense, be your duty
-not to have evil feelings towards them: all that can possibly be true
-is that it would be your duty if you were able. Yet I think there can
-be no doubt that what Christ meant to condemn was the occurrence of
-such feelings altogether; and since, if what he meant to assert about
-them in condemning them, would have been certainly false, if he had
-meant to say that you _could_ avoid ever feeling them, I think it is
-clear that what he meant to assert was _not_ this, or not this only,
-but something else, which may quite possibly be true. That is to say,
-he was asserting an ideal rule, not merely a rule of duty.
-
-It will be seen that this distinction which I am making coincides,
-roughly at all events, with the distinction which is often expressed
-as the distinction between rules which tell you what you ought to
-_be_ and rules which tell you merely what you ought to _do_; or as
-the distinction between rules which are concerned with your inner
-life--with your thoughts and feelings--and those which are concerned
-only with your external actions. The rules which are concerned with
-what you ought to _be_ or with your inner life are, for the most part
-at all events, "ideal" rules; while those which are concerned with what
-you ought to do or your external actions are very often, at least,
-rules of duty. And it is often said that one great difference between
-the New Testament and the Old is its comparatively greater insistence
-on "ideal" rules--upon a change of heart--as opposed to mere rules of
-duty. And that there is a comparatively greater insistence on ideal
-rules I do not wish to deny. But that there are plenty of ideal rules
-in the Old Testament too must not be forgotten. I have already given an
-example from the Ten Commandments: namely the rule which says you ought
-not to covet anything which belongs to your neighbour. And another
-is supplied by the Old Testament commandment, "Love thy neighbour as
-thyself," if by "love" is here meant a feeling which is not within our
-own control, and not merely that the Jew is to _help_ other Jews by his
-external actions. Indeed, however great may be the difference between
-the Old Testament and the New in respect of comparative insistence on
-ideal rules rather than rules of duty, I am inclined to think that
-there is at least as great a difference, illustrated by this very rule,
-in another, quite different, respect--namely in the kind of rules,
-_both ideal and of duty,_ which are insisted on. For whereas by "thy
-neighbour" in the Old Testament there is plainly meant only other Jews,
-and it is not conceived either that it is the duty of a Jew to help
-foreigners in general, or an ideal for him to love them; in the New
-Testament, where the same words are used, "my neighbour" plainly is
-meant to include all mankind. And this distinction between the view
-that beneficent action and benevolent feelings should be confined to
-those of our own nation, and the view that both should be extended
-equally to all mankind,--a distinction which has nothing to do with
-the distinction between being and doing, between inner and outer, but
-affects both equally--is, I am inclined to think, at least as important
-a difference between New Testament and Old, as the comparatively
-greater insistence on "ideal" rules. However, the point upon which I
-want at present to insist is the distinction between ideal rules and
-rules of duty. Both kinds are commonly included among moral rules,
-and, as my examples have shown, are often mentioned together as if no
-great difference were seen between them. What I want to insist on is
-that there is a great difference between them: that whereas rules of
-duty do directly assert of the idea of duty, in the sense in which to
-say that something is your duty implies that you _can_ do it, that
-certain things are duties, the "ideal" rules do _not_ assert this, but
-something different. Yet the "ideal" rules certainly do, in a sense,
-assert a "moral obligation." And hence we have to recognise that the
-phrase "moral obligation" is not merely a name for one idea only, but
-for two very different ideas; and the same will, of course, be true of
-the corresponding phrase "morally wrong."
-
-When, therefore, I say that the idea of "moral obligation" is one of
-the fundamental ideas with which Moral Philosophy is concerned, I think
-we must admit that this one name really stands for two different ideas.
-But it does not matter for my purpose which of the two you take. Each
-of them is undoubtedly a moral idea, and whatever answer be given to
-the question we are going to raise about the one, will also certainly
-apply to the other.
-
-But it is now time to turn to the other idea, with which I said that
-Moral Philosophy has been largely concerned, though it is not, strictly
-speaking, a moral idea, at all.
-
-And I think, perhaps, a good way of bringing out what this idea is,
-is to refer to the Ethics of Aristotle. Everybody would admit that
-the fundamental idea, with which Aristotle's Ethics is concerned, is
-an idea which it is the business of Moral Philosophy to discuss; and
-yet I think it is quite plain that this idea is not a moral idea at
-all. Aristotle does not set out from' the idea of moral obligation
-or duty (indeed throughout his treatise he only mentions this idea
-quite incidentally); nor even from the idea of moral goodness or moral
-excellence, though he has a good deal more to say about that; but
-from the idea of what he calls "the human good," or "good for man."
-He starts by raising the question what the good for man _is,_ and his
-whole book is arranged in the form of giving a detailed answer to that
-question. And I think we can gather pretty well what the idea is, which
-he calls by this name, by considering what he says about it. There
-are two points, in particular, which he insists upon from the outset:
-first, that nothing can be good, in the sense he means, unless it is
-something which is worth having for its own sake, and not merely for
-the sake of something else; it must be good _in itself_; it must not,
-like wealth (to use one example which he gives) be worth having merely
-for the sake of what you can do with it; it must be a thing which is
-worth having even if nothing further comes of it. And secondly (what
-partly covers the former, but also, I think, says something more) it
-must, he says, be something that is "self-sufficient": something which,
-even if you had nothing else would make your life worth having. And
-further light is thrown upon his meaning when he comes to tell you
-what he thinks the good for man is: the good, he says, is "mental,
-activity--where such activity is of an excellent kind, or, if there
-are several different kinds of excellent mental activity, that which
-has the best and most perfect kind of excellence; and also" (he
-significantly adds) "mental activity which lasts through a sufficiently
-long life." The word which I have here translated "excellence" is what
-is commonly translated "virtue"; but it does not mean quite the same
-as we mean by "virtue," and that in a very important respect. "Virtue"
-has come to mean exclusively _moral_ excellence; and if that were all
-Aristotle meant, you might think that what he means by "good" came
-very near being a moral idea. But it turns out that he includes among
-"excellences," intellectual excellence, and even that he thinks that
-the best and most perfect excellence of which he speaks is a particular
-kind of intellectual excellence, which no one would think of calling a
-moral quality, namely, the sort of excellence which makes a man a good
-philosopher. And as for the word which I have translated "activity,"
-the meaning of this can be best brought out by mentioning the reason
-which Aristotle himself gives for saying that mere excellence itself is
-not (as some of the Greeks had said) the good for man. He says, truly
-enough, that a man may possess the greatest excellence--he may be a
-very excellent man--even when he is asleep, or is doing nothing; and
-he points out that the possession of excellence when you are asleep
-is not a thing that is desirable _for its own sake_--obviously only
-for the sake of the effects it may produce when you wake up. It is not
-therefore, he thinks, mere mental excellence, but the _active exercise_
-of mental excellence--the state of a man's mind, when he not only
-possesses excellent faculties, moral or intellectual, but is actively
-engaged in using them, which really constitutes the human good.
-
-Now, when Aristotle talks of "the good for man," there is, I think, as
-my quotation is sufficient to show, a certain confusion in his mind
-between what is _good_ for man and what is _best_ for man. What he
-really holds is that _any_ mental activity which exhibits excellence
-and is pleasurable is _a_ good; and when he adds that, if there are
-many excellences, _the_ good must be mental activity which exhibits
-the _best_ of them, and that it must last through a sufficiently long
-life, he only means that this is necessary if a man is to get the
-_best_ he can get, not that this is the _only_ good he can get. And
-the idea which I wish to insist on is not, therefore, the idea of
-"_the_ human good," but the more fundamental idea of "good "; the idea,
-with regard to which he holds that the working of our minds in some
-excellent fashion is the only good thing that any of us can possess;
-and the idea of which "better" is the comparative, when he says that
-mental activity which exhibits some sorts of excellence is _better_
-than mental activity which exhibits others, though both are good, and
-that excellent mental activity continued over a longer time is _better_
-than the same continued for a shorter. This idea of what is "good," in
-the sense in which Aristotle uses it in these cases, is an idea which
-we all of us constantly use, and which is certainly an idea which it
-is the business of Moral Philosophy to discuss, though it is not a
-moral idea. The main difficulty with regard to it is to distinguish it
-clearly from other senses in which we use the same word. For, when we
-say that a thing is "good," or one thing "better" than another, we by
-no means always mean that it is better in this sense. Often, when we
-call a thing good we are not attributing to it any characteristic which
-it would possess _if it existed quite alone,_ and if nothing further
-were to come of it; but are merely saying of it that it is a sort of
-thing from which other good things do in fact come, or which is such
-that, when accompanied by other things, the whole thus formed is "good"
-in Aristotle's sense, although, by itself, it is not. Thus a man may
-be "good," and his character may be "good," and yet neither are "good"
-in this fundamental sense, in which goodness is a characteristic which
-a thing would possess, if it existed quite alone. For, as Aristotle
-says, a good man may exist, and may have a good character, even when
-he is fast asleep; and yet if there were nothing in the Universe but
-good men, with good characters, all fast asleep, there would be nothing
-in it which was "good" in the fundamental sense with which we are
-concerned. Thus "moral goodness," in the sense of good character, as
-distinguished from the actual working of a good character in various
-forms of mental activity, is certainly not "good" in the sense in which
-good means "good for its own sake." And even with regard to the actual
-exercise of certain forms of moral excellence, it seems to me that in
-estimating the value of such exercise relatively to other things, we
-are apt to take into account, not merely its intrinsic value--the sort
-of value which it would possess, if it existed quite alone--but also
-its effects: we rate it higher than we should do if we were considering
-only its intrinsic value, because we take into account the other good
-things which we know are apt to flow from it. Certain things which
-have intrinsic value are distinguished from others, by the fact that
-more good consequences are apt to flow from them; and where this is
-the case, we are apt, I think, quite unjustly, to think that their
-intrinsic value must be higher too. One thing, I think, is clear about
-intrinsic value--goodness in Aristotle's sense--namely that it is only
-actual occurrences, actual states of things over a certain period of
-time--not such things as men, or characters, or material things, that
-can have any intrinsic value at all. But even this is not sufficient to
-distinguish intrinsic value clearly from other sorts of goodness: since
-even in the case of actual occurrences, we often call them good or bad
-for the sake of their effects or their promise of effects. Thus we
-all hope that the state of things in England, as a whole, will really
-be better some day than it has been in the past--that there will be
-progress and improvement: we hope, for instance, that, if we consider
-the whole of the lives lived in England during some year in the next
-century, it may turn out that the state of things, as a whole, during
-that year will be really better than it ever has been in any past year.
-And when we use "better" in this way--in the sense in which progress
-or improvement means a change to a _better_ state of things--we are
-certainly thinking partly of a state of things which has a greater
-intrinsic value. And we certainly do not mean by improvement merely
-_moral_ improvement. An improvement in moral conditions, other things
-being equal, may no doubt be a gain in intrinsic value; but we should
-certainly hold that, moral conditions being equal, there is yet room
-for improvement in other ways--in the diminution of misery and purely
-physical evils, for example. But in considering the degree of a real
-change for the better in intrinsic value, there is certainly danger of
-confusion between the degree in which the actual lives lived are really
-intrinsically better, and the degree in which there is improvement
-merely in the _means_ for living a good life. If we want to estimate
-rightly what would constitute an intrinsic improvement in the state
-of things in our imagined year next century, and whether it would on
-the whole be really "good" at all, we have to consider what value it
-would have if it were to be the last year of life upon this planet;
-if the world were going to come to an end, as soon as it was over;
-and therefore to discount entirely all the promises it might contain
-of future goods. This criterion for distinguishing whether the kind
-of goodness which we are attributing to anything is really intrinsic
-value or not, the criterion which consists in considering whether it
-is a characteristic which the thing would possess, if it were to have
-absolutely no further consequences or accompaniments, seems to me to
-be one which it is very necessary to apply if we wish to distinguish
-clearly between different meanings of the word "good." And it is only
-the idea of what is good, where by "good" is meant a characteristic
-which has this mark, that I want now to consider.
-
-The two ideas, then, with regard to which I want to raise a question,
-are first the moral idea of "moral obligation" or "duty," and secondly
-the non-moral idea of "good" in this special sense.
-
-And the question with regard to them, which I want to raise, is this.
-With regard to both ideas many philosophers have thought and still
-think--not only _think_, but seem to be absolutely convinced, that when
-we apply them to anything--when we assert of any action that it ought
-not to have been done, or of any state of things that it was or would
-be good or better than another, then it _must_ be the case that _all_
-that we are asserting of the thing or things in question is simply
-and solely that some person or set of persons actually does have, or
-has a tendency to have a certain sort of feeling towards the thing or
-things in question: that there is absolutely no more in it than this.
-While others seem to be convinced, no less strongly, that there _is_
-more in it than this: that when we judge that an action is a duty or
-is really wrong, we are _not_ merely making a judgment to the effect
-that some person or set of persons, have, or tend to have a certain
-sort of feeling, when they witness or think of such actions, and that
-similarly when we judge that a certain state of things was or would be
-better than another, we are _not_ merely making a judgment about the
-feelings which some person or set of persons would have, in witnessing
-or thinking of the two states of things, or in comparing them together.
-The question at issue between these two views is often expressed in
-other less clear forms. It is often expressed as the question whether
-the ideas of duty and of good or value, are or are not, "objective"
-ideas: as the problem as to the "objectivity" of duty and intrinsic
-value. The first set of philosophers would maintain that the notion of
-the "objectivity" of duty and of value is a mere chimera; while the
-second would maintain that these ideas really are "objective." And
-others express it as the question whether the ideas of duty and of good
-are "absolute" or purely "relative": whether there is any such thing
-as an absolute duty or an absolute good, or whether good and duty are
-purely relative to human feelings and desires. But both these ways
-of expressing it are, I think, apt to lead to confusion. And another
-even less clear way in which it is put is by asking the question: Is
-the assertion that such and such a thing is a duty, or has intrinsic
-value, ever _a dictate of reason?_ But so far as I can gather, the
-question really at issue, and expressed in these obscure ways, is the
-one which I have tried to state. It is the question whether when we
-judge (whether truly or falsely) that an action is a duty or a state
-of things good, _all_ that we are thinking about the action or the
-state of things in question, is simply and solely that we ourselves
-or others have or tend to have a certain feeling towards it when we
-contemplate or think of it. And the question seems to me to be of great
-interest, because, if this is all, then it is evident that all the
-ideas with which Moral Philosophy is concerned are merely psychological
-ideas; and all moral rules, and statements as to what is intrinsically
-valuable, merely true or false psychological statements; so that
-the whole of Moral Philosophy and Ethics will be merely departments
-of Psychology. Whereas, if the contrary is the case, then these two
-ideas of moral obligation and intrinsic value, will be no more purely
-psychological ideas than are the ideas of shape or size or number; and
-Moral Philosophy will be concerned with characteristics of actions
-and feelings and states of affairs, which these actions and feelings
-and states of affairs would or might have possessed, even if human
-psychology had been quite different from what it is.
-
-Which, then, of these two views is the true one? Are these two ideas
-merely psychological ideas in the sense which I have tried to explain,
-or are they not?
-
-As I have said, I feel some doubts myself whether they are or not: it
-does not seem to me to be a matter to dogmatize upon. But I am strongly
-inclined to think that they are not merely psychological; that Moral
-Philosophy and Ethics are not mere departments of Psychology. In favour
-of the view that the two ideas in question are merely psychological,
-there is, so far as I am aware, nothing whatever to be said, except
-that so many philosophers have been absolutely convinced that they are.
-None of them seem to me to have succeeded in bringing forward a single
-argument in favour of their view. And against the view that they are,
-there seem to me to be some quite definite arguments, though I am not
-satisfied that any of these arguments are absolutely conclusive. I will
-try to state briefly and clearly what seem to me the main arguments
-against the view that these are merely psychological ideas; although,
-in doing so, I am faced with a certain difficulty. For though, as I
-have said, many philosophers are absolutely convinced, that "duty"
-and "good" do merely stand for psychological ideas, they are by no
-means agreed _what_ the psychological ideas are for which they stand.
-Different philosophers have hit on very different ideas as being the
-ideas for which they stand; and this very fact that, if they _are_
-psychological ideas at all, it is so difficult to agree as to _what_
-ideas they are, seems to me in itself to be an argument against the
-view that they are so.
-
-Let me take each of the two ideas separately, and try to exhibit the
-sort of objection there seems to be to the view that it is merely a
-psychological idea.
-
-Take first the idea of moral obligation. What purely psychological
-assertion can I be making about an action, when I assert that it was
-"wrong," that it ought not to have been done?
-
-In this case, one view, which is in some ways the most plausible that
-can be taken, is that in every case I am merely making an assertion
-about my own psychology. But what assertion about my own psychology can
-I be making? Let us take as an example, the view of Prof. Westermarck,
-which is as plausible a view of this type as any that I know of. He
-holds that what I am judging when I judge an action to be wrong, is
-merely that it is of a sort which _tends_ to excite in me a peculiar
-kind of feeling--the feeling of moral indignation or disapproval. He
-does not say that what I am judging is that the action in question _is
-actually_ exciting this feeling in me. For it is obviously not true
-that, when I judge an action to be much more wrong than another, I am
-always actually feeling much indignation at the thought of either, or
-much more indignation at the thought of the one than at that of the
-other; and it is inconceivable that I should constantly be making so
-great a mistake as to my own psychology, as to think that I am actually
-feeling great indignation when I am not. But he thinks it is plausible
-to say that I am making a judgment as to the _tendency_ of such actions
-to excite indignation in me; that, for instance, when I judge that one
-is much more wrong than the other, I am merely asserting the fact,
-taught me by my past experience, that, if I were to witness the two
-actions, under similar circumstances, I should feel a much more intense
-indignation at the one than at the other.[1]
-
-But there is one very serious objection to such a view, which I think
-that those who take it are apt not fully to realise. If this view be
-true, then when I judge an action to be wrong, I am merely making a
-judgment about my own feelings towards it; and when you judge it to
-be wrong, you are merely making a judgment about yours. And hence the
-word "wrong" in my mouth, means something entirely different from
-what it does in yours; just as the word "I" in my mouth stands for an
-entirely different person from what it does in yours--in mine it stands
-for me, in yours it stands for you. That is to say when I judge of a
-given action that it was wrong, and you perhaps of the very same action
-that it was not, we are not in fact differing in opinion about it at
-all; any more than we are differing in opinion if I make the judgment
-"I came from Cambridge to-day" and you make the judgment "_I_ did not
-come from Cambridge to-day." When _I_ say "That was wrong" I am merely
-saying "That sort of action excites indignation in me, when I see it";
-and when you say "No; it was not wrong" you are merely saying "It
-does not excite indignation in _me,_ when _I_ see it." And obviously
-both judgments may perfectly well be true together; just as my judgment
-that I did come from Cambridge to-day and yours that you did not, may
-perfectly well be true together. In other words, and this is what I
-want to insist on, if this view be true, then there is absolutely
-no such thing as a difference of opinion upon moral questions. If
-two persons think they differ in opinion on a moral question (and it
-certainly seems as if they sometimes _think_ so), they are always,
-on this view, making a mistake, and a mistake so gross that it seems
-hardly possible that they should make it: a mistake as gross as that
-which would be involved in thinking that when you say "I did not come
-from Cambridge to-day" you are denying what I say when I say "I did."
-And this seems to me to be a very serious objection to the view.
-Don't people, in fact, sometimes really differ in opinion on a moral
-question? Certainly all appearances are in favour of the view that they
-do: and yet, if they do, that can only be if when I think a thing to
-be wrong, and you think it not to be wrong, I mean by "wrong" the very
-_same_ characteristic which you mean, and am thinking that the action
-possesses this characteristic while you are thinking it does not. It
-must be the very _same_ characteristic which we both mean; it cannot
-be, as this view says it is, merely that I am thinking that it has to
-my feelings the very same relation, which you are thinking that it
-has not got to yours; since, if this were all, then there would be no
-difference of opinion between us.
-
-And this view that when we talk of wrong or duty, we are not
-merely, each of us, making a statement about the relation of the
-thing in question to our own feelings, may be reinforced by another
-consideration. It is commonly believed that some moral rules exhibit a
-_higher_ morality than others: that, for instance a person who believes
-that it is our duty to do good to our enemies, has a higher moral
-belief, than one who believes that he has no such duty, but only a duty
-to do good to his friends or fellow-countrymen. And Westermarck himself
-believes that, some moral beliefs, "mark a stage of higher refinement
-in the evolution of the moral consciousness."[2] But what, on his view
-can be meant by saying that one moral belief is higher than another? If
-A believes that it is his duty to do good to his enemies and B believes
-that it is not, in what sense can A's belief be higher than B's? Not,
-on this view, in the sense that what A believes is true, and what B
-believes is not; for what A is believing is merely that the idea of not
-doing good to your enemies tends to excite in him a feeling of moral
-indignation, and what B believes is merely that it does not tend to
-excite this feeling in _him_: and both beliefs may perfectly well be
-true; it may really be true that the same actions do excite the feeling
-in A, and that they don't in B. What then, could Westermarck mean by
-saying that A's morality is higher than B's? So far as I can see, what,
-on his own views, he would have to mean is merely that he himself,
-Westermarck, shares A's morality and does not share B's: that it is
-true of him, as of A, that neglecting to do good to enemies excites
-his feelings of moral indignation and not true of him as it is of B,
-that it does _not_ excite such feelings in him. In short he would have
-to say that what he means by calling A's morality the higher is merely
-"A's morality is _my_ morality, and B's is not." But it seems to me
-quite clear that when we say one morality is higher than another, we do
-not merely mean that it is our own. We are not merely asserting that it
-has a certain relation to our own feelings, but are asserting, if I may
-say so, that the person who has it has a better moral taste than the
-person who has not. And whether or not this means merely, as I think,
-that what the one believes is true, and what the other believes is
-false, it is at all events inconsistent with the view that in all cases
-we are merely making a statement about our own feelings.
-
-For these reasons it seems to me extremely difficult to believe that
-when we judge things to be wrong, each of us is merely making a
-judgment about _his own_ psychology. But if not about our own, then
-about whose? I have already said that the view that, if the judgment
-is merely a psychological one at all, it is a judgment about our
-own psychology, is in some ways more plausible than any other view.
-And I think we can now see that any other view is _not_ plausible.
-The alternatives are that I should be making a judgment about the
-psychology of all mankind, or about that of some particular section
-of it. And that the first alternative is not true, is, I think,
-evident from the fact that, when I judge an action to be wrong, I
-may emphatically _not_ believe that it is true of all mankind that
-they would regard it with feelings of moral disapproval. I may know
-perfectly well that some would not. Most philosophers, therefore, have
-not ventured to say that this is the judgment I am making; they say,
-for instance, that I am making a judgment about the feelings of the
-particular society to which I belong--about, for instance, the feelings
-of an impartial spectator in that society. But, if this view be taken,
-it is open to the same objections as the view that I am merely making a
-judgment about my own feelings. If we could say that every man, when he
-judges a thing to be wrong, was making a statement about the feelings
-of all mankind, then when A says "This is wrong" and B says "No, it
-isn't," they would really be differing in opinion, since A would be
-saying that all mankind feel in a certain way towards the action, and
-B would be saying that they don't. But if A is referring merely to his
-society and B to his, and their societies are different, then obviously
-they are not differing in opinion at all: it may perfectly well be true
-both that an impartial spectator in A's society does have a certain
-sort of feeling towards actions of the sort in question, and that an
-impartial spectator in B's does not. This view, therefore, implies that
-it is impossible for two men belonging to different societies ever to
-differ in opinion on a moral question. And this is a view which I find
-it almost as hard to accept as the view that _no_ two men ever differ
-in opinion on one.
-
-For these reasons I think there are serious objections to the view
-that the idea of moral obligation is merely a psychological idea.
-
-But now let us briefly consider the idea of "good," in Aristotle's
-sense, or intrinsic value.
-
-As regards this idea, there is again a difference of opinion among
-those who hold that it is a psychological idea, as to _what_ idea it
-is. The majority seem to hold that it is to be defined, somehow, in
-terms of desire; while others have held that what we are judging when
-we judge that one state of things is or would be intrinsically better
-than another, is rather that the belief that the one was going to be
-realized would, under certain circumstances, give more pleasure to some
-man or set of men, than the belief that the other was. But the same
-objections seem to me to apply whichever of these two views be taken.
-
-Let us take desire. About whose desires am I making a judgment, when I
-judge that one state of things would be better than another?
-
-Here again, it may be said, first of all, that I am merely making a
-judgment about my own. But in this case the view that my judgment is
-merely about my own psychology is, I think, exposed to an obvious
-objection to which Westermarck's view that my judgments of moral
-obligation are about my own psychology was not exposed. The obvious
-objection is that it is evidently not true that I do in fact always
-desire more, what I judge to be better: I may judge one state of things
-to be better than another, even when I know perfectly well not only
-that I don't desire it more, but that I have no tendency to do so. It
-is a notorious fact that men's strongest desires are, as a rule, for
-things in which they themselves have some personal concern; and yet
-the fact that this is so, and that they know it to be so, does not
-prevent them from judging that changes, which would not affect them
-personally, would constitute a very much greater improvement in the
-world's condition, than changes which would. For this reason alone the
-view that when I judge one state of things to be better than another I
-am merely making a judgment about my own psychology, must, I think, be
-given up: it is incredible that we should all be making such mistakes
-about our feelings, as, on this view, we should constantly be doing.
-And there is, of course, besides, the same objection, as applied in
-the case of moral obligation: namely that, if this view were true, no
-two men could ever differ in opinion as to which of two states was the
-better, whereas it appears that they certainly sometimes do differ in
-opinion on such an issue.
-
-My judgment, then, is not merely a judgment about my own psychology:
-but, if so, about whose psychology is it a judgment? It cannot be a
-judgment that all men desire the one state more than the other; because
-that would include the judgment that I myself do so, which, as we have
-seen, I often know to be false, even while I judge that the one state
-really is better. And it cannot, I think, be a judgment merely about
-the feelings or desires of an impartial spectator in my own society;
-since that would involve the paradox that men belonging to different
-societies could never differ in opinion as to what was better. But we
-have here to consider an alternative, which did not arise in the case
-of moral obligation. It is a notorious fact that the satisfaction of
-some of our desires is incompatible with the satisfaction of others,
-and the satisfaction of those of some men with the satisfaction of
-those of others. And this fact has suggested to some philosophers that
-what we mean by saying that one state of things would be better than
-another, is merely that it is a state in which more of the desires, of
-those who were in it, would be satisfied at once, than would be the
-case with the other. But to this view the fundamental objection seems
-to me to be that whether the one state was better than the other would
-depend not merely upon the number of desires that were simultaneously
-satisfied in it, but upon what the desires were desires for. I can
-imagine a state of things in which all desires were satisfied, and yet
-can judge of it that it would not be so good as another in which some
-were left unsatisfied. And for this reason I cannot assent to the view
-that my judgment, that one state of things is better than another is
-merely a judgment about the psychology of the people concerned in it.
-
-This is why I find it hard to believe that either the idea of moral
-obligation or the idea of intrinsic value is merely a psychological
-idea. It seems to me that Moral Philosophy cannot be merely a
-department of Psychology. But no doubt there may be arguments on the
-other side to which I have not done justice.
-
-
-[1] E Westermarck, _The Origin and Development of Moral Ideas_, Vol. I,
-pp. 4, 13, 17-18, 100-101. On p. 105, however, Westermarck suggests a
-view inconsistent with this one; namely that, when I judge an action to
-be wrong, I am not _merely_ asserting that it has a tendency to excite
-moral indignation in me, but am also asserting that other people _would
-be_ convinced that it has a tendency to excite moral indignation in
-them, if they "knew the act and all its attendant circumstances as well
-as [I do], and if, at the same time their emotions were as refined as
-[mine]."
-
-[2] Ibid. p. 89.
-
-
-THE END
-
-
-
-
- INDEX
-
-
- Abstractions, "illegitimate"
- Agnosticism
- "Analytic" truths
- Apprehension, direct
- Aristotle's Ethics
- Attention
- Awareness
-
- "Being" and "Reality"
- Berkeley
- Bradley
- Causal connection
- necessity
- Consciousness
- "Content"
-
- Deduction
- Difference,
- numerical and qualitative
- intrinsic
- Direct apprehension
- observation
- perception
- Duty and Wrong
- "objectivity" of
-
- Entails
- and "implies"
- _Esse_ and _percipi,_
- Existence
- and "reality"
- of physical objects
- "Experience," ambiguity of
- External objects and facts
- relations
-
- Fact, matters of
- "Follows"
-
- "Given," ambiguity of
- "Good," ambiguity of
- objectivity of
- "for man"
-
- Hegel
- Hume
-
- "I."
- Idealism
- Ideas
- Identity of Indiscernibles
- "Implication,"
- Indiscernibles, Identity of
- Induction,
- conditions necessary for
- Internal relations,
- dogma of
- two senses of
- Intrinsic difference
- nature
- predicates
- value
-
- James, William
- Joachim, H. H.
-
- Kant
- Knowledge
- and belief
- by description
-
- Leibniz
-
- "Manifestation of"
- Material objects or things
- Mill. J. S.
- Minds, "in our"
- "Modify"
- Moral rules, two kinds of
-
- Necessary truths
- Necessity, three senses of
- logical
- unconditional
-
- "Objectivity," ambiguity of
- of kinds of value
-
- Objects,
- external
- material
- physical, and sensibles
-
- Observation
- Organic unities
- "Ought," two meanings of
- objectivity of
- and "wrong"
-
- Part, physical
- and whole
-
- "Perception," ambiguity of
- direct
- _Percipi_ and _esse_
- Physical objects and sensibles
- Pickwickian senses
- "Possible," three senses of
- Pragmatist theory of truth
- "Presented," ambiguity of
-
- Reality
- Reason, "dictates of"
- Reasons
- Reid, T.
- Relational properties
- Relations,
- dogma of internal
- external
- internal
- Right, objectivity of
- Russell, B.
-
- "See," ambiguity of
- "Seems"
- Sensations
- proper
- Sense-data
- Sensibles
- Solipsism
- Spiritual
- Strachey, O.
- "Subjective"
- "Synthetic" truths
-
- Taylor, A. E., 8
- "Time"
- Truth,
- and mutability
- pragmatist theory of
- and utility
- and verification
- of words
- Truths, "analytic" and "synthetic"
- "man-made"
- necessary
-
- Value, intrinsic
- objectivity of
-
- Westermarck, E.
- "Wrong," objectivity of
- and "ought"
-
-
-
-
-
-End of Project Gutenberg's Philosophical Studies, by George Edward Moore
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-The Project Gutenberg EBook of Philosophical Studies, by George Edward Moore
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-
-
-<div class="figcenter" style="width: 500px;">
-<img src="images/cover.jpg" width="500" alt="" />
-</div>
-
-<h1>PHILOSOPHICAL STUDIES</h1>
-
-<h3>By</h3>
-
-<h2>G. E. MOORE, Litt.D.</h2>
-
-<h4><i>Hon. LL.D. (St. Andrews), F.B.A.</i></h4>
-
-<h4><i>Lecturer in Moral Science in the University of Cambridge<br />
-Author of "Principia Ethica"</i></h4>
-
-<h5>LONDON</h5>
-
-<h5>ROUTLEDGE &amp; KEGAN PAUL LTD</h5>
-
-<h5>BROADWAY HOUSE: 68-74 CARTER LANE, E.C.4</h5>
-
-<h5>1922</h5>
-
-<hr class="full" />
-
-
-<p class="caption" style="margin-left: 15%; font-size: 0.8em;">CONTENTS</p>
-
-<table border="0" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0" summary="" style="font-size: 0.8em;">
-<tr><td align="left"></td><td align="right">I.</td><td align="left">THE REFUTATION OF IDEALISM</td> <td align="right"><a href="#Page_1">1</a></td></tr>
-<tr><td align="left"></td><td align="right">II.</td><td align="left">THE NATURE AND REALITY OF OBJECTS OF PERCEPTION&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;</td><td align="right"><a href="#Page_31">31</a></td></tr>
-<tr><td align="left"></td><td align="right">III.</td><td align="left">WILLIAM JAMES' "PRAGMATISM"</td><td align="right"><a href="#Page_97">97</a></td></tr>
-<tr><td align="left"></td><td align="right">IV.</td><td align="left">HUME'S PHILOSOPHY</td><td align="right"><a href="#Page_147">147</a></td></tr>
-<tr><td align="left"></td><td align="right">V.</td><td align="left">THE STATUS OF SENSE-DATA</td><td align="right"><a href="#Page_168">168</a></td></tr>
-<tr><td align="left"></td><td align="right">VI.</td><td align="left">THE CONCEPTION OF REALITY</td><td align="right"><a href="#Page_197">197</a></td></tr>
-<tr><td align="left"></td><td align="right">VII.</td><td align="left">SOME JUDGMENTS OF PERCEPTION</td><td align="right"><a href="#Page_220">220</a></td></tr>
-<tr><td align="left"></td><td align="right">VIII.</td><td align="left">THE CONCEPTION OF INTRINSIC VALUE</td><td align="right"><a href="#Page_253">253</a></td></tr>
-<tr><td align="left"></td><td align="right">IX.</td><td align="left">EXTERNAL AND INTERNAL RELATIONS</td><td align="right"><a href="#Page_276">276</a></td></tr>
-<tr><td align="left"></td><td align="right">X.</td><td align="left">THE NATURE OF MORAL PHILOSOPHY</td><td align="right"><a href="#Page_310">310</a></td></tr>
-</table>
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><i>Those of the papers in this volume, which have been previously
-published, originally appeared as follows</i>:&mdash;</p>
-
-<p>I. "The Refutation of Idealism" in <i>Mind,</i> N.S. Vol. xii, 1903.</p>
-
-<p>II. "The Nature and Reality of Objects of Perception" in <i>Proceedings
-of the Aristotelian Society,</i> 1905-6.</p>
-
-<p>III. "Professor James' 'Pragmatism'" in <i>Proceedings of the
-Aristotelian Society,</i> 1907-8.</p>
-
-<p>IV. "Hume's Philosophy" in <i>The New Quarterly,</i> November, 1909.</p>
-
-<p>V. "The Status of Sense-Data" in <i>Proceedings of the Aristotelian
-Society,</i> 1913-14.</p>
-
-<p>VI. "The Conception of Reality" in <i>Proceedings of the Aristotelian
-Society,</i> 1917-18.</p>
-
-<p>VII. "Some Judgments of Perception" in <i>Proceedings of the Aristotelian
-Society,</i> 1918-19.</p>
-
-<p>IX. "External and Internal Relations" in <i>Proceedings of the
-Aristotelian Society,</i> 1919-20.</p>
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_vii" id="Page_vii">[Pg vii]</a></span></p>
-
-
-<h4>PREFACE</h4>
-
-
-<p>All the papers contained in this volume, except the two ethical ones
-(VIII and X), have been previously published; and of those which have
-been previously published all, except that on "External and Internal
-Relations" (IX), are here re-printed without change. They were written
-at various dates between 1903 and 1921, and all are here printed in the
-order in which they were written, except that VIII on "The Conception
-of Intrinsic Value," which was written earlier than VI and VII, has
-been moved out of its proper place in order to bring it nearer to IX
-and X, to both of which it is closely related in subject.</p>
-
-<p>All, except IV and X, were primarily intended for an audience
-familiar with the writings of philosophers; but I hope that they may
-nevertheless prove intelligible even to those who have read little or
-no philosophy, since I make little use of technical terms, and, where I
-have done so, have done my best to explain in ordinary language exactly
-what I mean by them. The tone of X is somewhat different from that
-of the rest, because it was written as a lecture for the <i>Leicester
-Philosophical Society</i>, with regard to which I was informed that I must
-not assume any previous acquaintance with philosophy in most of the
-audience. It accordingly bears marks throughout of the kind of audience
-for which it was intended.</p>
-
-<p>An attentive reader will easily discover that some of the views
-expressed in some of the papers are inconsistent with views expressed
-in others. The fact is that some of the views expressed in some of the
-earlier ones are views with which I no longer agree; and I feel that
-some apology is needed for nevertheless republishing them exactly as
-they stood. In all cases, except one, my excuse is that the mistaken
-views in question are so embedded in the form and substance of the
-papers in which they occur, that it would have been impossible to
-correct them without practically substituting new papers for the old
-ones; and that, in spite of these mistakes, the old papers, as they
-stand, still seem to me, on the whole, to say things which are worth
-saying in a form which, however defective it may<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_viii" id="Page_viii">[Pg viii]</a></span> be, I doubt my
-own ability to improve upon. The only case in which I doubt whether
-this excuse applies is that of the first paper&mdash;"The Refutation of
-Idealism." This paper now appears to me to be very confused, as well
-as to embody a good many down-right mistakes; so I am doubtful whether
-I ought to have included it. But in this case I have another excuse:
-namely that it is a paper to which a good many allusions have been made
-by contemporary writers on philosophy; and I was told that, for some
-readers at all events, it would be a convenience that it should be
-re-printed along with the rest, if only for the sake of reference.</p>
-
-<p>I said above that the only one of the previously published papers,
-in which changes have been made, is IX on "External and Internal
-Relations." In this case the changes are not due to any change in my
-views, but to the fact that, in that part of the paper in which symbols
-are used, I tried, when it was first published in the <i>Proceedings of
-the Aristotelian Society,</i> to use the symbols adopted by Whitehead and
-Russell in <i>Principia Mathematica,</i> and used them also without giving
-an explanation of their meaning which would be sufficient for readers
-not acquainted with that work. The symbols in question are symbols
-which it is difficult for printers to reproduce; and I have, therefore,
-thought it better, on this occasion, to use another set of symbols,
-which seem to me to be adequate for the limited purpose I had in view.
-I have tried to give an explanation of their meaning, which will
-enable anyone to understand them; and I have taken the opportunity of
-rewriting some of the parts of the paper in which they occur in a way
-which will, I hope, make some points clearer than they originally were.</p>
-
-<p>I have to thank the Committee of the Aristotelian Society for
-permission to reprint the large number of papers (viz., II, III, V,
-VI, VII and IX), which originally appeared in the <i>Proceedings</i> of
-that Society; and the Editor of the <i>New Quarterly</i> for permission to
-reprint the article on Hume's Philosophy (IV), which appeared in that
-Journal in November, 1909.</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 70%; font-size: 0.8em;">G. E. MOORE.</p>
-
-<p><span style="font-size: 0.8em;">CAMBRIDGE</span>,<br />
-<span style="margin-left: 10%;"><i>January</i>, 1922.</span></p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_1" id="Page_1">[Pg 1]</a></span></p>
-
-
-
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-<h3>Philosophical Studies</h3>
-
-
-
-<hr class="tb" />
-<h4><a name="THE_REFUTATION_OF_IDEALISM" id="THE_REFUTATION_OF_IDEALISM">THE REFUTATION OF IDEALISM</a></h4>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<p>Modern Idealism, if it asserts any general conclusion about the
-universe at all, asserts that it is <i>spiritual.</i> There are two points
-about this assertion to which I wish to call attention. These points
-are that, whatever be its exact meaning, it is certainly meant to
-assert (1) that the universe is very different indeed from what it
-seems, and (2) that it has quite a large number of properties which it
-does not seem to have. Chairs and tables and mountains <i>seem</i> to be
-very different from us; but, when the whole universe is declared to
-be spiritual, it is certainly meant to assert that they are far more
-like us than we think. The idealist means to assert that they are <i>in
-some sense</i> neither lifeless nor unconscious, as they certainly seem
-to be; and I do not think his language is so grossly deceptive, but
-that we may assume him to believe that they really are very different
-indeed from what they seem. And secondly when he declares that they
-are <i>spiritual,</i> he means to include in that term quite a large number
-of different properties. When the whole universe is declared to be
-spiritual, it is meant not only that it is in some sense <i>conscious,</i>
-but that it has what we recognise in ourselves as the <i>higher</i> forms of
-consciousness. That it is intelligent; that it is purposeful; that it
-is not<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_2" id="Page_2">[Pg 2]</a></span> mechanical; all these different things are commonly asserted
-of it. In general, it may be said, this phrase 'reality is spiritual'
-excites and expresses the belief that the <i>whole</i> universe possesses
-<i>all the qualities</i> the possession of which is held to make us so
-superior to things which seem to be inanimate: at least, if it does not
-possess exactly those which we possess, it possesses not one only, but
-several others, which, by the same ethical standard, would be judged
-equal to or better than our own. When we say it is <i>spiritual</i> we mean
-to say that it has quite a number of excellent qualities, different
-from any which we commonly attribute either to stars or planets or to
-cups and saucers.</p>
-
-<p>Now why I mention these two points is that when engaged in the
-intricacies of philosophic discussion, we are apt to overlook the
-vastness of the difference between this idealistic view and the
-ordinary view of the world, and to overlook the number of <i>different</i>
-propositions which the idealist must prove. It is, I think, owing to
-the vastness of this difference and owing to the number of different
-excellences which Idealists attribute to the universe, that it seems
-such an interesting and important question whether Idealism be true or
-not. But, when we begin to argue about it, I think we are apt to forget
-what a vast number of arguments this interesting question must involve:
-we are apt to assume, that if one or two points be made on either side,
-the whole case is won. I say this lest it should be thought that any of
-the arguments which will be advanced in this paper would be sufficient
-to disprove, or any refutation of them sufficient to prove, the truly
-interesting and important proposition that reality is spiritual. For my
-own part I wish it to be clearly understood that I do not suppose that
-anything I shall say has the smallest tendency to prove that reality
-is not<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_3" id="Page_3">[Pg 3]</a></span> spiritual: I do not believe it possible to refute a single one
-of the many important propositions contained in the assertion that it
-is so. Reality may be spiritual, for all I know; and I devoutly hope
-it is. But I take 'Idealism' to be a wide term and to include not
-only this interesting conclusion but a number of arguments which are
-supposed to be, if not sufficient, at least <i>necessary,</i> to prove it.
-Indeed I take it that modern Idealists are chiefly distinguished by
-certain arguments which they have in common. That reality is spiritual
-has, I believe, been the tenet of many theologians; and yet, for
-believing that alone, they should hardly be called Idealists. There
-are besides, I believe, many persons, not improperly called Idealists,
-who hold certain characteristic propositions, without venturing to
-think them quite sufficient to prove so grand a conclusion. It is,
-therefore, only with Idealistic <i>arguments</i> that I am concerned; and
-if any Idealist holds that <i>no</i> argument is necessary to prove that
-reality is spiritual, I shall certainly not have refuted him. I shall,
-however, attack at least one argument, which, to the best of my belief,
-is considered necessary to their position by <i>all</i> Idealists. And
-I wish to point out a certain advantage which this procedure gives
-me&mdash;an advantage which justifies the assertion that, if my arguments
-are sound, they will have refuted Idealism. If I can refute a single
-proposition which is a necessary and essential step in all Idealistic
-arguments, then, no matter how good the rest of these arguments may be,
-I shall have proved that Idealists have <i>no reason whatever</i> for their
-conclusion.</p>
-
-<p>Suppose we have a chain of argument which takes the form: Since A is
-B, and B is C, and C is D, it follows A is D. In such an argument,
-though 'B is C' and 'C is D' may both be perfectly true,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_4" id="Page_4">[Pg 4]</a></span> yet if 'A
-is B' be false, we have no more reason for asserting A is D than if
-all three were false. It does not, indeed, follow that A is D is
-false; nor does it follow that no other arguments would prove it to
-be true. But it does follow that, so far as this argument goes, it is
-the barest supposition, without the least bit of evidence. I propose
-to attack a proposition which seems to me to stand in this relation
-to the conclusion 'Reality is spiritual.' I do not propose to dispute
-that 'Reality is spiritual;' I do not deny that there may be reasons
-for thinking that it is: but I do propose to show that one reason upon
-which, to the best of my judgment, all other arguments ever used by
-Idealists depend is <i>false.</i> These other arguments may, for all I shall
-say, be eminently ingenious and true; they are very many and various,
-and different Idealists use the most different arguments to prove the
-same most important conclusions. Some of these <i>may</i> be sufficient to
-prove that B is C and C is D; but if, as I shall try to show, their 'A
-is B' is false the conclusion A is D remains a pleasant supposition.
-I do not deny that to suggest pleasant and plausible suppositions may
-be the proper function of philosophy: but I am assuming that the name
-Idealism can only be properly applied where there is a certain amount
-of argument, intended to be cogent.</p>
-
-<p>The subject of this paper is, therefore, quite uninteresting. Even
-if I prove my point, I shall have proved nothing about the Universe
-in general. Upon the important question whether Reality is or is not
-spiritual my argument will not have the remotest bearing. I shall only
-attempt to arrive at the truth about a matter, which is in itself quite
-trivial and insignificant, and from which, so far as I can see and
-certainly so far as I shall say, no conclusions can be drawn about any
-of the subjects<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_5" id="Page_5">[Pg 5]</a></span> about which we most want to know. The only importance
-I can claim for the subject I shall investigate is that it seems to me
-to be a matter upon which not Idealists only, but all philosophers and
-psychologists also, have been in error, and from their erroneous view
-of which they have inferred (validly or invalidly) their most striking
-and interesting conclusions. And that it has even this importance I
-cannot hope to prove. If it has this importance, it will indeed follow
-that all the most striking results of philosophy&mdash;Sensationalism.
-Agnosticism and Idealism alike&mdash;have, for all that has hitherto been
-urged in their favour, no more foundation than the supposition that
-a chimera lives in the moon. It will follow that, unless new reasons
-never urged hitherto can be found, all the most important philosophic
-doctrines have as little claim to assent as the most superstitious
-beliefs of the lowest savages. Upon the question what we have <i>reason</i>
-to believe in the most interesting matters, I do therefore think that
-my results will have an important bearing; but I cannot too clearly
-insist that upon the question whether these beliefs are true they will
-have none whatever.</p>
-
-<p>The trivial proposition which I propose to dispute is this: that <i>esse</i>
-is <i>percipi.</i> This is a very ambiguous proposition, but, in some sense
-or other, it has been very widely held. That it is, in some sense,
-essential to Idealism, I must for the present merely assume. What I
-propose to show is that, in all the senses ever given to it, it is
-false.</p>
-
-<p>But, first of all, it may be useful to point out briefly in what
-relation I conceive it to stand to Idealistic arguments. That wherever
-you can truly predicate <i>esse</i> you can truly predicate <i>percipi</i>, in
-some sense or other, is, I take it, a necessary step In all arguments,
-properly to be called Idealistic, and, what is more, in all arguments
-hitherto offered<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_6" id="Page_6">[Pg 6]</a></span> for the Idealistic conclusion. If <i>esse</i> is
-<i>percipi,</i> this is at once equivalent to saying that whatever is, is
-experienced; and this, again, is equivalent, in a sense, to saying that
-whatever is, is something mental. But this is not the sense in which
-the Idealist <i>conclusion</i> must maintain that Reality is <i>mental.</i> The
-Idealist <i>conclusion</i> is that <i>esse</i> is <i>percipere</i>; and hence, whether
-<i>esse</i> be <i>percipi</i> or not, a further and different discussion is
-needed to show whether or not it is also <i>percipere.</i> And again, even
-if <i>esse</i> be <i>percipere</i>, we need a vast quantity of further argument
-to show that what has <i>esse</i> has also those higher mental qualities
-which are denoted by spiritual. This is why I said that the question
-I should discuss, namely, whether or not <i>esse is percipi</i>, must be
-utterly insufficient either to prove or to disprove that reality is
-spiritual. But, on the other hand, I believe that every argument ever
-used to show that reality is spiritual has inferred this (validly or
-invalidly) from '<i>esse</i> is <i>percipere'</i> as one of its premisses; and
-that this again has never been pretended to be proved except by use of
-the premiss that <i>esse</i> is <i>percipi.</i> The type of argument used for the
-latter purpose is familiar enough. It is said that since whatever is,
-is experienced, and since some things are which are not experienced by
-the individual, these must at least form part of some experience. Or
-again that, since an object necessarily implies a subject, and since
-the whole world must be an object, we must conceive it to belong to
-some subject or subjects, in the same sense in which whatever is the
-object of our experience belongs to us. Or again, that, since thought
-enters into the essence of all reality, we must conceive behind it, in
-it, or as its essence, a spirit akin to ours, who think: that 'spirit
-greets spirit' in its object. Into the validity of these inferences
-I do not propose to enter: they obviously require a great deal of
-discussion. I<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_7" id="Page_7">[Pg 7]</a></span> only desire to point out that, however correct they may
-be, yet if <i>esse</i> is not <i>percipi,</i> they leave us as far from a proof
-that reality is spiritual, as if they were all false too.</p>
-
-<p>But now: Is <i>esse percipi?</i> There are three very ambiguous terms in
-this proposition, and I must begin by distinguishing the different
-things that may be meant by some of them.</p>
-
-<p>And first with regard to <i>percipi.</i> This term need not trouble us
-long at present. It was, perhaps, originally used to mean 'sensation'
-only; but I am not going to be so unfair to modern Idealists&mdash;the
-only Idealists to whom the term should now be applied without
-qualification&mdash;as to hold that, if they say <i>esse</i> is <i>percipi</i>, they
-mean by <i>percipi</i> sensation only. On the contrary I quite agree with
-them that, if <i>esse</i> be <i>percipi</i> at all, <i>percipi</i> must be understood
-to include not sensation only, but that other type of mental fact,
-which is called 'thought '; and, whether <i>esse</i> be <i>percipi</i> or not, I
-consider it to be the main service of the philosophic school, to which
-modern Idealists belong, that they have insisted on distinguishing
-'sensation' and 'thought' and on emphasising the importance of the
-latter. Against Sensationalism and Empiricism they have maintained the
-true view. But the distinction between sensation and thought need not
-detain us here. For, in whatever respects they differ, they have at
-least this in common, that they are both forms of consciousness or, to
-use a term that seems to be more in fashion just now, they are both
-ways of experiencing. Accordingly, whatever <i>esse</i> is <i>percipi</i> may
-mean, it does <i>at least</i> assert that whatever is, is <i>experienced.</i>
-And since what I wish to maintain is, that even this is untrue, the
-question whether it be experienced by way of sensation or thought or
-both is for my purpose quite irrelevant. If it be not experienced at
-all, it<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_8" id="Page_8">[Pg 8]</a></span> cannot be either an object of thought or an object of sense.
-It is only if being involves 'experience' that the question, whether
-it involves sensation or thought or both, becomes important. I beg,
-therefore, that <i>percipi</i> may be understood, in what follows, to refer
-merely to what is <i>common</i> to sensation and thought. A very recent
-article states the meaning of <i>esse</i> is <i>percipi</i> with all desirable
-clearness in so far as <i>percipi</i> is concerned.</p>
-
-<p>'I will undertake to show,' says Mr. Taylor,<a name="FNanchor_1_1" id="FNanchor_1_1"></a><a href="#Footnote_1_1" class="fnanchor">[1]</a> 'that what makes [any
-piece of fact] real can be nothing but its presence as an inseparable
-aspect of <i>a sentient experience</i>.' I am glad to think that Mr. Taylor
-has been in time to supply me with so definite a statement that this
-is the ultimate premiss of Idealism. My paper will at least refute
-Mr. Taylor's Idealism, if it refutes anything at all: for I <i>shall</i>
-undertake to show that what makes a thing real cannot possibly be its
-presence as an inseparable aspect of a senient experience.</p>
-
-<p>But Mr. Taylor's statement though clear, I think, with regard to
-the meaning of <i>percipi</i> is highly ambiguous in other respects. I
-will leave it for the present to consider the next ambiguity in the
-statement: <i>Esse</i> is <i>percipi.</i> What does the copula mean? What can be
-meant by saying that Esse <i>is</i> percipi? There are just three meanings,
-one or other of which such a statement <i>must</i> have, if it is to be
-true; and of these there is only one which it can have, if it is to
-be important. (1) The statement may be meant to assert that the word
-'esse' is used to signify nothing either more or less than the word
-'percipi': that the two words are precise synonyms: that they are
-merely different names for one and the same thing: that what is meant
-by <i>esse</i> is absolutely identical with what is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_9" id="Page_9">[Pg 9]</a></span> meant by <i>percipi.</i>
-I think I need not prove that the principle <i>esse</i> is <i>percipi</i> is
-<i>not</i> thus intended merely to define a word; nor yet that, if it were,
-it would be an extremely bad definition. But if it does <i>not</i> mean
-this, only two alternatives remain. The second is (2) that what is
-meant by <i>esse,</i> though not absolutely identical with what is meant by
-<i>percipi</i>, yet <i>includes</i> the latter as a <i>part</i> of its meaning. If
-this were the meaning of 'esse is percipi,' then to say that a thing
-was real would not be the same thing as to say that it was experienced.
-That it was <i>real</i> would mean that it was experienced and <i>something
-else besides</i>: 'being experienced' would be <i>analytically essential</i>
-to reality, but would not be the whole meaning of the term. From the
-fact that a thing was real we should be able to infer, by the law of
-contradiction, that it was experienced; since the latter would be
-<i>part</i> of what is meant by the former. But, on the other hand, from the
-fact a thing was experienced we should <i>not</i> be able to infer that it
-was real; since it would not follow from the fact that it had one of
-the attributes essential to reality, that it <i>also</i> had the other or
-others. Now, if we understand <i>esse</i> is <i>percipi</i> in this second sense,
-we must distinguish <i>three</i> different things which it asserts. First of
-all, it gives a definition of the word 'reality,' asserting that word
-stands for a complex whole, of which what is meant by 'percipi' forms
-a part. And secondly it asserts that 'being experienced' forms a part
-of a certain whole. Both these propositions may be true, and at all
-events I do not wish to dispute them. I do not, indeed, think that the
-word 'reality' is commonly used to include 'percipi': but I do not wish
-to argue about the meaning of words. And that many things which are
-experienced are also something else&mdash;that to be experienced forms part
-of certain wholes, is, of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_10" id="Page_10">[Pg 10]</a></span> course, indisputable. But what I wish to
-point out is, that neither of these propositions is of any importance,
-unless we add to them a <i>third.</i> That 'real' is a convenient name for a
-union of attributes which <i>sometimes</i> occurs, it could not be worth any
-one's while to assert: no inferences of any importance could be drawn
-from such an assertion. Our principle could only mean that when a thing
-happens to have <i>percipi</i> as well as the other qualities included under
-<i>esse,</i> it has <i>percipi</i>: and we should never be able to <i>infer</i> that
-it was experienced, except from a proposition which already asserted
-that it was both experienced and something else. Accordingly, if the
-assertion that <i>percipi</i> forms part of the whole meant by reality is
-to have any importance, it must mean that the whole is organic, at
-least in this sense, that the other constituent or constituents of it
-<i>cannot</i> occur without percipi, even if percipi can occur without them.
-Let us call these other constituents <i>x.</i> The proposition that <i>esse</i>
-includes <i>percipi,</i> and that therefore from <i>esse percipi</i> can be
-inferred, can only be important if it is meant to assert that <i>percipi</i>
-can be inferred from <i>x.</i> The only importance of the question whether
-the whole <i>esse</i> includes the part <i>percipi</i> rests therefore on the
-question whether the part <i>x</i> is necessarily connected with the part
-<i>percipi.</i> And this is (3) the third possible meaning of the assertion
-<i>esse is percipi:</i> and, as we now see, the only important one. <i>Esse</i>
-is <i>percipi</i> asserts that wherever you have <i>x</i> you also have <i>percipi</i>
-that whatever has the property <i>x</i> also has the property that it is
-<i>experienced.</i> And this being so, it will be convenient if, for the
-future, I may be allowed to use the term '<i>esse</i>' to denote <i>x alone.</i>
-I do not wish thereby to beg the question whether what we commonly mean
-by the word 'real' does or does not include <i>percipi</i> as well as <i>x.</i> I
-am quite content<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_11" id="Page_11">[Pg 11]</a></span> that my definition of 'esse' to denote <i>x</i>, should be
-regarded merely as an arbitrary verbal definition. Whether it is so or
-not, the only question of interest is whether from <i>x percipi</i> can be
-inferred, and I should prefer to be able to express this in the form:
-can <i>percipi</i> be inferred from <i>esse?</i> Only let it be understood that
-when I say <i>esse,</i> that term will not for the future <i>include percipi</i>:
-it denotes only that <i>x,</i> which Idealists, perhaps rightly, include
-<i>along with percipi</i> under <i>their</i> term <i>esse.</i> That there is such an
-<i>x</i> they must admit on pain of making the proposition an <i>absolute</i>
-tautology; and that from this <i>x percipi</i> can be inferred they must
-admit, on pain of making it a perfectly barren analytic proposition.
-Whether <i>x</i> done should or should not be called <i>esse</i> is not worth
-a dispute: what is worth dispute is whether <i>percipi</i> is necessarily
-connected with <i>x.</i></p>
-
-<p>We have therefore discovered the ambiguity of the copula in <i>esse</i> is
-<i>percipi,</i> so far as to see that this principle asserts two distinct
-terms to be so related, that whatever has the <i>one,</i> which I call
-<i>esse,</i> has <i>also</i> the property that it is experienced. It asserts a
-necessary connexion between <i>esse</i> on the one hand and <i>percipi</i> on
-the other; these two words denoting each a distinct term, and <i>esse</i>
-denoting a term in which that denoted by <i>percipi</i> is not included. We
-have, then in <i>esse</i> is <i>percipi,</i> a <i>necessary synthetic</i> proposition
-which I have undertaken to refute. And I may say at once that,
-understood as such, it cannot be refuted. If the Idealist chooses to
-assert that it is merely a self-evident truth, I have only to say that
-it does not appear to me to be so. But I believe that no Idealist ever
-has maintained it to be so. Although this&mdash;that two distinct terms are
-necessarily related&mdash;is the only sense which 'esse is percipi' can have
-if it is to be true and important, it <i>can</i> have another sense, if it<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_12" id="Page_12">[Pg 12]</a></span>
-is to be an important falsehood. I believe that Idealists all hold this
-important falsehood. They do not perceive that <i>Esse</i> is <i>percipi</i>
-must, if true, be <i>merely</i> a self-evident synthetic truth: they either
-identify with it or give as a reason for it another proposition which
-must be false because it is self-contradictory. Unless they did so,
-they would have to admit that it was a perfectly unfounded assumption;
-and if they recognised that it was <i>unfounded,</i> I do not think they
-would maintain its truth to be evident. <i>Esse</i> is <i>percipi,</i> in the
-sense I have found for it, <i>may</i> indeed be true; I cannot, refute it:
-but if this sense were clearly apprehended, no one, I think, would
-<i>believe</i> that it was true.</p>
-
-<p>Idealists, we have seen, must assert that whatever is experienced,
-is <i>necessarily</i> so. And this doctrine they commonly express by
-saying that 'the object of experience is inconceivable apart from the
-subject.' I have hitherto been concerned with pointing out what meaning
-this assertion must have, if it is to be an important truth. I now
-propose to show that it may have an important meaning, which must be
-false, because it is self-contradictory.</p>
-
-<p>It is a well-known fact in the history of philosophy that <i>necessary</i>
-truths in general, but especially those of which it is said that
-the opposite is inconceivable, have been commonly supposed to be
-<i>analytic,</i> in the sense that the proposition denying them was
-self-contradictory. It was in this way, commonly supposed, before Kant,
-that many truths could be proved by the law of contradiction alone.
-This is, therefore, a mistake which it is plainly easy for the best
-philosophers to make. Even since Kant many have continued to assert
-it; but I am aware that among those Idealists, who most properly
-deserve the name, it has become more fashionable to assert that truths
-are <i>both</i> analytic and synthetic. Now<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_13" id="Page_13">[Pg 13]</a></span> with many of their reasons
-for asserting this I am not concerned: it is possible that in some
-connexions the assertion may bear a useful and true sense. But if we
-understand 'analytic' in the sense just defined, namely, what is proved
-by the law of contradiction <i>alone</i>, it is plain that, if 'synthetic'
-means what is <i>not</i> proved by this alone, no truth can be both analytic
-and synthetic. Now it seems to me that those who do maintain truths to
-be both, do nevertheless maintain that they are so in this as well as
-in other senses. It is, indeed, extremely unlikely that so essential
-a part of the historical meaning of 'analytic' and 'synthetic' should
-have been entirely discarded, especially since we find no express
-recognition that it is discarded. In that case it is fair to suppose
-that modern Idealists have been influenced by the view that certain
-truths can be proved by the law of contradiction alone. I admit they
-also expressly declare that they can <i>not:</i> but this is by no means
-sufficient to prove that they do not also think they are; since it is
-very easy to hold two mutually contradictory opinions. What I suggest
-then is that Idealists hold the particular doctrine in question,
-concerning the relation of subject and object in experience, because
-they think it is an analytic truth in this restricted sense that it is
-proved by the law of contradiction alone.</p>
-
-<p>I am suggesting that the Idealist maintains that object and subject are
-necessarily connected, mainly because he fails to see that they are
-<i>distinct</i>, that they are <i>two,</i> at all. When he thinks of 'yellow'
-and when he thinks of the 'sensation of yellow,' he fails to see that
-there is anything whatever in the latter which is not in the former.
-This being so, to deny that yellow can ever <i>be</i> apart from the
-sensation of yellow is merely to deny that yellow can ever be other
-than it is; since yellow and the<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_14" id="Page_14">[Pg 14]</a></span> sensation of yellow are absolutely
-identical. To assert that yellow is necessarily an object of experience
-is to assert that yellow is necessarily yellow&mdash;a purely identical
-proposition, and therefore proved by the law of contradiction alone.
-Of course, the proposition also implies that experience is, after all,
-something distinct from yellow&mdash;else there would be no reason for
-insisting that yellow is a sensation: and that the argument thus both
-affirms and denies that yellow and sensation of yellow are distinct,
-is what sufficiently refutes it. But this contradiction can easily
-be overlooked, because though we are convinced, in other connexions,
-that 'experience' does mean something and something most important,
-yet we are never distinctly aware <i>what</i> it means, and thus in every
-particular case we do not notice its presence. The facts present
-themselves as a kind of antinomy:</p>
-
-<p>(1) Experience <i>is</i> something unique and different from anything else;
-(2) Experience of green is entirely indistinguishable from green; two
-propositions which cannot both be true. Idealists, holding both, can
-only take refuge in arguing from the one in some connexions and from
-the other in others.</p>
-
-<p>But I am well aware that there are many Idealists who would repel it
-as an utterly unfounded charge that they fail to distinguish between
-a sensation or idea and what I will call its object. And there are, I
-admit, many who not only imply, as we all do, that green is distinct
-from the sensation of green, but expressly insist upon the distinction
-as an important part of their system. They would perhaps only assert
-that the two form an inseparable unity. But I wish to point out that
-many, who use this phrase, and who do admit the distinction, are not
-thereby absolved from the charge that they deny it. For there is a
-certain doctrine, very<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_15" id="Page_15">[Pg 15]</a></span> prevalent among philosophers nowadays, which by
-a very simple reduction may be seen to assert that two distinct things
-both are and are not distinct. A distinction is asserted; but it is
-<i>also</i> asserted that the things distinguished form an 'organic unity,'
-But, forming such a unity, it is held, each would not be what it is
-<i>apart from its relation to the other.</i> Hence to consider either by
-itself is to make an <i>illegitimate abstraction.</i> The recognition that
-there are 'organic unities' and 'illegitimate abstractions' in this
-sense is regarded as one of the chief conquests of modern philosophy.
-But what is the sense attached to these terms? An abstraction is
-illegitimate, when and only when we attempt to assert of <i>a part</i>&mdash;of
-something abstracted&mdash;that which is true only of the <i>whole</i> to which
-it belongs: and it may perhaps be useful to point out that this should
-not be done. But the application actually made of this principle,
-and what perhaps would be expressly acknowledged as its meaning, is
-something much the reverse of useful. The principle is used to assert
-that certain abstractions are <i>in all cases</i> illegitimate; that
-whenever you try to assert <i>anything whatever</i> of that which is <i>part</i>
-of an organic whole, what you assert can only be true of the whole.
-And this principle, so far from being a useful truth, is necessarily
-false. For if the whole can, nay <i>must,</i> be substituted for the part
-in all propositions and for all purposes, this can only be because the
-whole is absolutely identical with the part. When, therefore, we are
-told that green and the sensation of green are certainly distinct but
-yet are not separable, or that it is an illegitimate abstraction to
-consider the one apart from the other, what these provisos are used
-to assert is, that though the two things are distinct yet you not
-only can but must treat them as if they were not. Many philosophers,
-therefore, when they admit a distinction,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_16" id="Page_16">[Pg 16]</a></span> yet (following the lead
-of Hegel) boldly assert their right, in a slightly more obscure form
-of words, <i>also</i> to deny it. The principle of organic unities, like
-that of combined analysis and synthesis, is mainly used to defend the
-practice of holding <i>both</i> of two contradictory propositions, wherever
-this may seem convenient. In this, as in other matters, Hegel's main
-service to philosophy has consisted in giving a name to and erecting
-into a principle, a type of fallacy to which experience had shown
-philosophers, along with the rest of mankind, to be addicted. No wonder
-that he has followers and admirers.</p>
-
-<p>I have shown then, so far, that when the Idealist asserts the important
-principle 'Esse is <i>percipi'</i> he must, if it is to be true, mean by
-this that: Whatever is experienced also <i>must</i> be experienced. And
-I have also shown that he <i>may</i> identify with, or give as a reason
-for, this proposition, one which must be false, because it is self
-contradictory. But at this point I propose to make a complete break
-in my argument. '<i>Esse</i> is <i>percipi</i>,' we have seen, asserts of two
-terms, as distinct from one another as 'green' and 'sweet,' that
-whatever has the one has also the other: it asserts that 'being' and
-'being experienced' are necessarily connected: that whatever <i>is</i> is
-<i>also</i> experienced. And this, I admit, cannot be directly refuted.
-But I believe it to be false; and I have asserted that anybody who
-saw that '<i>esse</i> and <i>percipi</i>' <i>were</i> as distinct as 'green' and
-'sweet' would be no more ready to believe that whatever <i>is</i> is <i>also</i>
-experienced, than to believe that whatever is green is also sweet. I
-have asserted that no one would believe that '<i>esse</i> is <i>percipi</i>'
-if they saw how different <i>esse</i> is from <i>percipi:</i> but <i>this</i> I
-shall not try to prove. I have asserted that all who do believe that
-'<i>esse</i> is <i>percipi</i>' identify with it or take as a reason for it a<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_17" id="Page_17">[Pg 17]</a></span>
-self-contradictory proposition: but this I shall not try to prove. I
-shall only try to show that certain propositions which I assert to be
-believed, are false. That they are believed, and that without this
-belief '<i>esse</i> is <i>percipi'</i> would not be believed either, I must leave
-without a proof.</p>
-
-<p>I pass, then, from the uninteresting question 'Is <i>'esse percipi?'</i> to
-the still more uninteresting and apparently irrelevant question 'What
-is a sensation or idea?'</p>
-
-<p>We all know that the sensation of blue differs from that of green. But
-it is plain that if both are <i>sensations</i> they also have some point in
-common. What is it that they have in common? And how is this common
-element related to the points in which they differ?</p>
-
-<p>I will call the common element 'consciousness' without yet attempting
-to say what the thing I so call <i>is.</i> We have then in every sensation
-two distinct terms, (1) 'consciousness,' in respect of which all
-sensations are alike; and (2) something else, in respect of which one
-sensation differs from another. It will be convenient if I may be
-allowed to call this second term the 'object' of a sensation: this also
-without yet attempting to say what I mean by the word.</p>
-
-<p>We have then in every sensation two distinct elements, one which I call
-consciousness, and another which I call the object of consciousness.
-This must be so if the sensation of blue and the sensation of green,
-though different in one respect, are alike in another: blue is one
-object of sensation and green is another, and consciousness, which both
-sensations have in common, is different from either.</p>
-
-<p>But, further, sometimes the sensation of blue exists in my mind and
-sometimes it does not; and knowing, as we now do, that the sensation of
-blue includes two different elements, namely consciousness<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_18" id="Page_18">[Pg 18]</a></span> and blue,
-the question arises whether, when the sensation of blue exists, it is
-the consciousness which exists, or the blue which exists, or both.
-And one point at least is plain: namely that these three alternatives
-are all different from one another. So that, if any one tells us that
-to say 'Blue exists' is the <i>same</i> thing as to say that 'Both blue
-and consciousness exist,' he makes a mistake and a self-contradictory
-mistake.</p>
-
-<p>But another point is also plain, namely, that when the sensation
-exists, the consciousness, at least, certainly does exist; for when I
-say that the sensations of blue and of green both exist, I certainly
-mean that what is common to both and in virtue of which both are
-called sensations, exists in each case. The only alternative left,
-then, is that <i>either</i> both exist or the consciousness exists alone.
-If, therefore, any one tells us that the existence of blue is the same
-thing as the existence of the sensation of blue he makes a mistake and
-a self-contradictory mistake, for he asserts <i>either</i> that blue is the
-same thing as blue together with consciousness, <i>or</i> that it is the
-same thing as consciousness alone.</p>
-
-<p>Accordingly to identify either "blue" or any other of what I have
-called "<i>objects</i>" of sensation, with the corresponding sensation is
-in every case, a self-contradictory error. It is to identify a part
-either with the whole of which it is a part or else with the other part
-of the same whole. If we are told that the assertion "Blue exists" is
-<i>meaningless</i> unless we mean by it that "The sensation of blue exists,"
-we are told what is certainly false and self-contradictory. If we
-are told that the existence of blue is inconceivable apart from the
-existence of the sensation, the speaker <i>probably</i> means to convey to
-us, by this ambiguous expression, what is a self-contradictory error.
-For we can and must conceive<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_19" id="Page_19">[Pg 19]</a></span> the existence of blue as something quite
-distinct from the existence of the sensation. We can and must conceive
-that blue might exist and yet the sensation of blue not exist. For my
-own part I not only conceive this, but conceive it to be true. Either
-therefore this terrific assertion of inconceivability means what is
-false and self-contradictory or else it means only that <i>as a matter of
-fact</i> blue never can exist unless the sensation of it exists also.</p>
-
-<p>And at this point I need not conceal my opinion that no philosopher
-has ever yet succeeded in avoiding this self-contradictory error: that
-the most striking results both of Idealism and of Agnosticism are only
-obtained by identifying blue with the sensation of blue: that <i>esse</i>
-is held to be <i>percipi,</i> solely because <i>what is experienced</i> is held
-to be identical with <i>the experience of it.</i> That Berkeley and Mill
-committed this error will, perhaps, be granted: that modern Idealists
-make it will, I hope, appear more probable later. But that my opinion
-is plausible, I will now offer two pieces of evidence. The first is
-that language offers us no means of referring to such objects as "blue"
-and "green" and "sweet," except by calling them sensations: it is an
-obvious violation of language to call them "things" or "objects" or
-"terms." And similarly we have no natural means of referring to such
-objects as "causality" or "likeness" or "identity," except by calling
-them "ideas" or "notions" or "conceptions." But it is hardly likely
-that if philosophers had clearly distinguished in the past between a
-sensation or idea and what I have called its object, there should have
-been no separate name for the latter. They have always used the same
-name for these two different "things" (if I may call them so): and
-hence there is some probability that they have supposed these "things"<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_20" id="Page_20">[Pg 20]</a></span>
-<i>not</i> to be two and different, but one and the same. And, secondly,
-there is a very good reason why they should have supposed so, in the
-fact that when we refer to introspection and try to discover what the
-sensation of blue is, it is very easy to suppose that we have before
-us only a single term. The term "blue" is easy enough to distinguish,
-but the other element which I have called "consciousness"&mdash;that which
-sensation of blue has in common with sensation of green&mdash;is extremely
-difficult to fix. That many people fail to distinguish it at all is
-sufficiently shown by the fact that there are materialists. And, in
-general, that which makes the sensation of blue a mental fact seems to
-escape us: it seems, if I may use a metaphor, to be transparent&mdash;we
-look through it and see nothing but the blue; we may be convinced that
-there <i>is something</i> but <i>what</i> it is no philosopher, I think, has yet
-clearly recognised.</p>
-
-<p>But this was a digression. The point I had established so far was
-that in every sensation or idea we must distinguish two elements,
-(1) the "object," or that in which one differs from another; and (2)
-"consciousness," or that which all have in common&mdash;that which makes
-them sensations or mental facts. This being so, it followed that when
-a sensation or idea exists, we have to choose between the alternatives
-that either object alone, or consciousness alone, or both, exist;
-and I showed that of these alternatives one, namely that the object
-only exists, is excluded by the fact that what we mean to assert is
-certainly the existence of a mental fact. There remains the question:
-Do both exist? Or does the consciousness alone? And to this question
-one answer has hitherto been given universally: That both exist.</p>
-
-<p>This answer follows from the analysis hitherto accepted of the relation
-of what I have called<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_21" id="Page_21">[Pg 21]</a></span> "object" to "consciousness" in any sensation or
-idea. It is held that what I call the object is merely the "content" of
-a sensation or idea. It is held that in each case we can distinguish
-two elements and two only, (1) the fact that there is feeling or
-experience, and (2) <i>what</i> is felt or experienced; the sensation or
-idea, it is said, forms a whole, in which we must distinguish two
-"inseparable aspects," "content" and "existence." I shall try to show
-that this analysis is false; and for that purpose I must ask what may
-seem an extraordinary question: namely what is meant by saying that one
-thing is "content" of another? It is not usual to ask this question;
-the term is used as if everybody must understand it. But since I am
-going to maintain that "blue" is <i>not</i> the content of the sensation of
-blue, and what is more important, that, even if it were this analysis
-would leave out the most important element in the sensation of blue, it
-is necessary that I should try to explain precisely what it is that I
-shall deny.</p>
-
-<p>What then is meant by saying that one thing is the "content" of
-another? First of all I wish to point out that "blue" is rightly
-and properly said to be part of the content of a blue flower. If,
-therefore, we also assert that it is part of the content of the
-sensation of blue, we assert that it has to the other parts (if any)
-of this whole the same relation which it has to the other parts of
-a blue flower&mdash;and we assert only this: we cannot mean to assert
-that it has to the sensation of blue any relation which it does not
-have to the blue flower. And we have seen that the sensation of blue
-contains at least one other element beside blue&mdash;namely, what I call
-"consciousness," which makes it a sensation. So far then as we assert
-that blue is the content of the sensation, we assert that it has to
-this "consciousness" the same relation which it has to the other<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_22" id="Page_22">[Pg 22]</a></span> parts
-of a blue flower: we do assert this, and we assert no more than this.
-Into the question what exactly the relation is between blue and a blue
-flower in virtue of which we call the former part of its "content" I
-do not propose to enter. It is sufficient for my purpose to point out
-that it is the general relation most commonly meant when we talk of a
-thing and its qualities; and that this relation is such that to say the
-thing exists implies that the qualities also exist. The <i>content</i> of
-the thing is <i>what</i> we assert to exist, when we assert <i>that</i> the thing
-exists.</p>
-
-<p>When, therefore, blue is said to be part of the content of the
-"sensation of blue," the latter is treated as if it were a whole
-constituted in exactly the same way as any other "thing." The
-"sensation of blue," on this view, differs from a blue bead or a blue
-beard, in exactly the same way in which the two latter differ from one
-another: the blue bead differs from the blue beard, in that while the
-former contains glass, the latter contains hair; and the "sensation
-of blue" differs from both in that, instead of glass or hair, it
-contains consciousness. The relation of the blue to the consciousness
-is conceived to be exactly the same as that of the blue to the glass or
-hair: it is in all three cases the <i>quality</i> of a <i>thing.</i></p>
-
-<p>But I said just now that the sensation of blue was analysed into
-"content" and "existence," and that blue was said to be <i>the</i> content
-of the idea of blue. There is an ambiguity in this and a possible
-error, which I must note in passing. The term "content" may be used
-in two senses. If we use "content" as equivalent to what Mr. Bradley
-calls the "<i>what</i>"&mdash;if we mean by it the <i>whole</i> of what is said to
-exist, when the thing is said to exist, then blue is certainly not
-<i>the</i> content of the sensation of blue: part of the <i>content</i> of the
-sensation is, in this sense<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_23" id="Page_23">[Pg 23]</a></span> of the term, that other element which I
-have called consciousness. The analysis of this sensation into the
-"content" "blue," on the one hand, and mere existence on the other, is
-therefore certainly false; in it we have again the self-contradictory
-identification of "Blue exists" with "The sensation of blue exists,"
-But there is another sense in which "blue" might properly be said to be
-<i>the</i> content of the sensation&mdash;namely, the sense in which "content,"
-like <i>εἴδος</i> is opposed to "substance" or "matter." For the element
-"consciousness," being common to all sensations, may be and certainly
-is regarded as in some sense their "substance," and by the "content"
-of each is only meant that in respect of which one differs from
-another. In this sense then "blue" might be said to be <i>the</i> content
-of the sensation; but, in that case, the analysis into "content" and
-"existence" is, at least, misleading, since under "existence" must be
-included "<i>what</i> exists" in the sensation other than blue.</p>
-
-<p>We have it, then, as a universally received opinion that blue is
-related to the sensation or idea of blue, as its <i>content</i>, and
-that this view, if it is to be true, must mean that blue is part of
-<i>what</i> is said to exist when we say that the sensation exists. To say
-that the sensation exists is to say both that blue exists and that
-"consciousness," whether we call it the substance of which blue is
-<i>the</i> content or call it another part of the content, exists too. Any
-sensation or idea is a "<i>thing,</i>" and what I have called its object is
-the quality of this thing. Such a "thing" is what we think of when we
-think of a <i>mental image.</i> A mental image is conceived as if it were
-related to that of which it is the image (if there be any such thing)
-in exactly the same way as the image in a looking-glass is related to
-that of which it is the reflection; in both cases there is identity
-of content, and the image in the looking-glass differs<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_24" id="Page_24">[Pg 24]</a></span> from that
-in the mind solely in respect of the fact that in the one case the
-other constituent of the image is "glass" and in the other case it is
-consciousness. If the image is of blue, it is not conceived that this
-"content" has any relation to the consciousness but what it has to the
-glass: it Is conceived <i>merely</i> to be its <i>content.</i> And owing to the
-fact that sensations and ideas are all considered to be <i>wholes</i> of
-this description&mdash;things in the mind&mdash;the question: What do we know?
-is considered to be identical with the question: What reason have we
-for supposing that there are things outside the mind <i>corresponding</i> to
-these that are inside it?</p>
-
-<p>What I wish to point out is (1) that we have no reason for supposing
-that there are such things as mental images at all&mdash;for supposing that
-blue <i>is</i> part of the content of the sensation of blue, and (2) that
-even if there are mental images, no mental image and no sensation or
-idea is <i>merely</i> a thing of this kind: that 'blue,' even if it is
-part of the content of the image or sensation or idea of blue, is
-always <i>also</i> related to it in quite another way, and that this other
-relation, omitted in the traditional analysis, is the <i>only</i> one which
-makes the sensation of blue a mental fact at all.</p>
-
-<p>The true analysis of a sensation or idea is as follows. The element
-that is common to them all, and which I have called "consciousness,"
-really <i>is</i> consciousness. A sensation is, in reality, a case of
-'knowing' or 'being aware of' or 'experiencing' something. When we
-know that the sensation of blue exists, the fact we know is that
-there exists an awareness of blue. And this awareness is not merely,
-as we have hitherto seen it must be, itself something distinct and
-unique, utterly different from blue: it also has a perfectly distinct
-and unique relation to blue, a relation which is <i>not</i> that of thing
-or substance to content, nor of one part of content<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_25" id="Page_25">[Pg 25]</a></span> to another part
-of content. This relation is just that which we mean in every case
-by 'knowing.' To have in your mind 'knowledge' of blue, is <i>not</i> to
-have in your mind a 'thing' or 'image' of which blue is the content.
-To be aware of the sensation of blue is <i>not</i> to be aware of a
-mental image&mdash;of a "thing," of which 'blue' and some other element
-are constituent parts in the same sense in which blue and glass are
-constituents of a blue bead. It is to be aware of an awareness of
-blue; awareness being used, in both cases, in exactly the same sense.
-This element, we have seen, is certainly neglected by the 'content'
-theory: that theory entirely fails to express the fact that there is,
-in the sensation of blue, this unique relation between blue and the
-other constituent. And what I contend is that this omission is <i>not</i>
-mere negligence of expression, but is due to the fact that though
-philosophers have recognised that <i>something</i> distinct is meant by
-consciousness, they have never yet had a clear conception of <i>what</i>
-that something is. They have not been able to hold <i>it</i> and <i>blue</i>
-before their minds and to compare them, in the same way in which they
-can compare <i>blue</i> and <i>green.</i> And this for the reason I gave above:
-namely that the moment we try to fix our attention upon consciousness
-and to see <i>what</i>, distinctly, it is, it seems to vanish: it seems as
-if we had before us a mere emptiness. When we try to introspect the
-sensation of blue, all we can see is the blue: the other element is
-as if it were diaphanous. Yet it <i>can</i> be distinguished if we look
-attentively enough, and if we know that there is something to look for.
-My main object in this paragraph has been to try to make the reader
-<i>see</i> it; but I fear I shall have succeeded very ill.</p>
-
-<p>It being the case, then, that the sensation of blue includes in its
-analysis, beside blue, <i>both</i> a unique element 'awareness' <i>and</i> a
-unique relation of this<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_26" id="Page_26">[Pg 26]</a></span> element to blue, I can make plain what I meant
-by asserting, as two distinct propositions, (1) that blue is probably
-not part of the content of the sensation at all, and (2) that, even it
-were, the sensation would nevertheless not be the sensation <i>of</i> blue,
-if blue had only this relation to it. The first hypothesis may now be
-expressed by saying that, if it were true, then, when the sensation of
-blue exists, there exists a <i>blue awareness</i>: offence may be taken at
-the expression, but yet it expresses just what should be and is meant
-by saying that blue is, in this case, a <i>content</i> of consciousness
-or experience. Whether or not, when I have the sensation of blue, my
-consciousness or awareness is thus blue, my introspection does not
-enable me to decide with certainty: I only see no reason for thinking
-that it is. But whether it is or not, the point is unimportant, for
-introspection <i>does</i> enable me to decide that something else is also
-true: namely that I am aware <i>of</i> blue, and by this I mean, that my
-awareness has to blue a quite different and distinct relation. It is
-possible, I admit, that my awareness is blue <i>as well</i> as being <i>of</i>
-blue: but what I am quite sure of is that it is <i>of</i> blue; that it has
-to blue the simple and unique relation the existence of which alone
-justifies us in distinguishing knowledge of a thing from the thing
-known, indeed in distinguishing mind from matter. And this result I may
-express by saying that what is called the <i>content</i> of a sensation is
-in very truth what I originally called it&mdash;the sensation's <i>object.</i></p>
-
-<p>But, if all this be true, what follows?</p>
-
-<p>Idealists admit that some things really exist of which they are not
-aware: there are some things, they hold, which are not inseparable
-aspects of <i>their</i> experience, even if they be inseparable aspects of
-some experience. They further hold that some of the things of which
-they are sometimes aware do<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_27" id="Page_27">[Pg 27]</a></span> really exist, even when they are not aware
-of them: they hold for instance that they are sometimes aware of other
-minds, which continue to exist even when they are not aware of them.
-They are, therefore, sometimes aware of something which is <i>not</i> an
-inseparable aspect of their own experience. They do <i>know some</i> things
-which are <i>not</i> a mere part or content of their experience. And what
-my analysis of sensation has been designed to show is, that whenever
-I have a mere sensation or idea, the fact is that I am then aware of
-something which is equally and in the same sense <i>not</i> an inseparable
-aspect of my experience. The awareness which I have maintained to be
-included in sensation is the very same unique fact which constitutes
-every kind of knowledge: "blue" is as much an object, and as little
-a mere content, of my experience, when I experience it, as the most
-exalted and independent real thing of which I am ever aware. There is,
-therefore, no question of how we are to "get outside the circle of our
-own ideas and sensations." Merely to have a sensation is already to
-<i>be</i> outside that circle. It is to know something which is as truly and
-really <i>not</i> a part of <i>my</i> experience, as anything which I can ever
-know.</p>
-
-<p>Now I think I am not mistaken in asserting that the reason why
-Idealists suppose that everything which <i>is</i> must be an inseparable
-aspect of some experience, is that they suppose some things, at least,
-to be inseparable aspects of <i>their</i> experience. And there is certainly
-nothing which they are so firmly convinced to be an inseparable aspect
-of their experience as what they call the <i>content</i> of their ideas and
-sensations. If, therefore, <i>this</i> turns out in every case, whether it
-be also the content or not, to be at least <i>not</i> an inseparable aspect
-of the experience of it, it will be readily admitted that nothing else
-which <i>we</i> experience ever is such an<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_28" id="Page_28">[Pg 28]</a></span> inseparable aspect. But if we
-never experience anything but what is <i>not</i> an inseparable aspect of
-<i>that</i> experience, how can we infer that anything whatever, let alone
-<i>everything,</i> is an inseparable aspect of <i>any</i> experience? How utterly
-unfounded is the assumption that "<i>esse</i> is <i>percipi"</i> appears in the
-clearest light.</p>
-
-<p>But further I think it may be seen that if the object of an Idealist's
-sensation were, as he supposes, <i>not</i> the object but merely the content
-of that sensation, if, that is to say, it really were an inseparable
-aspect of his experience, each Idealist could never be aware either of
-himself or of any other real thing. For the relation of a sensation
-to its object is certainly the same as that of any other instance of
-experience to its object; and this, I think, is generally admitted even
-by Idealists: they state as readily that <i>what</i> is judged or thought or
-perceived is the <i>content</i> of that judgment or thought or perception,
-as that blue Is the content of the sensation of blue. But, if so, then
-when any Idealist thinks he is <i>aware</i> of himself or of any one else,
-this cannot really be the case. The fact Is, on his own theory, that
-himself and that other person are in reality mere <i>contents</i> of an
-awareness, which is aware <i>of</i> nothing whatever. All that can be said
-is that there is an awareness in him, <i>with</i> a certain content: it can
-never be true that there is in him a consciousness <i>of</i> anything. And
-similarly he is never aware either of the fact that he exists or that
-reality is spiritual. The real fact, which he describes in those terms,
-is that his existence and the spirituality of reality are <i>contents</i> of
-an awareness, which is aware of nothing&mdash;certainly not, then, of it own
-content.</p>
-
-<p>And further if everything, of which he thinks he is aware, is in
-reality merely a content of his own experience he has certainly no
-<i>reason</i> for holding<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_29" id="Page_29">[Pg 29]</a></span> that anything does exist except himself: it will,
-of course, be possible that other persons do exist; solipsism will not
-be necessarily true; but he cannot possibly infer from anything he
-holds that it is not true. That he himself exists will of course follow
-from his premiss that many things are contents of <i>his</i> experience.
-But since everything, of which he thinks himself aware, is in reality
-merely an inseparable aspect of that awareness; this premiss allows no
-inference that any of these contents, far less any other consciousness,
-exists at all except as an inseparable aspect of his awareness, that
-is, as part of himself.</p>
-
-<p>Such, and not those which he takes to follow from it, are the
-consequences which <i>do</i> follow from the Idealist's supposition that the
-object of an experience is in reality merely a content or inseparable
-aspect of that experience. If, on the other hand, we clearly recognise
-the nature of that peculiar relation which I have called "awareness of
-anything"; if we see that <i>this</i> is involved equally in the analysis
-of <i>every</i> experience&mdash;from the merest sensation to the most developed
-perception or reflexion, and that <i>this</i> is in fact the only essential
-element in an experience&mdash;the only thing that is both common and
-peculiar to all experiences&mdash;the only thing which gives us reason to
-call any fact mental; if, further, we recognise that this awareness is
-and must be in all cases of such a nature that its object, when we are
-aware of it, is precisely what it would be, if we were not aware: then
-it becomes plain that the existence of a table in space is related to
-my experience of <i>it</i> in precisely the same way as the existence of
-my own experience is related to my experience of <i>that.</i> Of both we
-are merely aware: if we are aware that the one exists, we are aware
-in precisely the same sense that the other exists; and if it is true
-that my<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_30" id="Page_30">[Pg 30]</a></span> experience can exist, even when I do not happen to be aware of
-its existence, we have exactly the same reason for supposing that the
-table can do so also. When, therefore, Berkeley, supposed that the only
-thing of which I am directly aware is my own sensations and ideas, he
-supposed what was false; and when Kant supposed that the objectivity of
-things in space <i>consisted</i> in the fact that they were "Vorstellungen"
-having to one another different relations from those which the
-same "Vorstellungen" have to one another in subjective experience,
-he supposed what was equally false. I am as directly aware of the
-existence of material things in space as of my own sensations; and
-<i>what</i> I am aware of with regard to each is exactly the same&mdash;namely
-that in one case the material thing, and in the other case my sensation
-does really exist. The question requiring to be asked about material
-things is thus not: What reason have we for supposing that anything
-exists <i>corresponding</i> to our sensations? but: What reason have we for
-supposing that material things do <i>not</i> exist, since <i>their</i> existence
-has precisely the same evidence as that of our sensations? That either
-exist <i>may</i> be false; but if it is a reason for doubting the existence
-of matter, that it is an inseparable aspect of our experience, the same
-reasoning will prove conclusively that our experience does not exist
-either, since that must also be an inseparable aspect of our experience
-of <i>it.</i> The only <i>reasonable</i> alternative to the admission that matter
-exists <i>as well as</i> spirit, is absolute Scepticism&mdash;that, as likely as
-not <i>nothing</i> exists at all. All other suppositions&mdash;the Agnostic's,
-that something, at all events, does exist, as much as the Idealist's,
-that spirit does&mdash;are, if we have no reason for believing in matter, as
-baseless as the grossest superstitions.</p>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<div class="footnote">
-
-<p><a name="Footnote_1_1" id="Footnote_1_1"></a><a href="#FNanchor_1_1"><span class="label">[1]</span></a> <i>International Journal of Ethics,</i> October, 1902.</p>
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_31" id="Page_31">[Pg 31]</a></span></p></div>
-
-
-
-
-<h4><a name="THE_NATURE_AND_REALITY_OF_OBJECTS_OF_PERCEPTION" id="THE_NATURE_AND_REALITY_OF_OBJECTS_OF_PERCEPTION">THE NATURE AND REALITY OF OBJECTS OF PERCEPTION</a></h4>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<p>There are two beliefs in which almost all philosophers, and almost all
-ordinary people are agreed. Almost everyone believes that he himself
-and what he directly perceives do not constitute the whole of reality:
-he believes that <i>something</i> other than himself and what he directly
-perceives <i>exists</i> or is <i>real.</i> I do not mean to say that almost
-everyone believes that what he directly perceives is real: I only mean
-that he does believe that, whether what he directly perceives is real
-or not, something other than it and other than himself certainly is so.
-And not only does each of us thus agree in believing that <i>something</i>
-other than himself and what he directly perceives is real: almost
-everyone also believes that <i>among</i> the real things, other than himself
-and what he directly perceives, are other persons who have thoughts
-and perceptions in some respects similar to his own. That most people
-believe this I think I need scarcely try to show. But since a good many
-philosophers may appear to have held views contradictory of this one, I
-will briefly point out my reason for asserting that most philosophers,
-even among those (if any) who have believed the contradictory of this,
-have yet held this as well. Almost all philosophers tell us something
-about the nature of <i>human</i> knowledge and <i>human</i> perception. They tell
-us that <i>we</i> perceive so and<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_32" id="Page_32">[Pg 32]</a></span> so; that the nature or origin of <i>our</i>
-perceptions is such and such; or (as I have just been telling you) that
-men in general have such and such beliefs. It might, indeed, be said
-that we are not to interpret such language too strictly: that, though
-a philosopher talks about <i>human</i> knowledge and <i>our</i> perceptions,
-he only means to talk about his own. But in many cases a philosopher
-will leave no doubt upon this point, by expressly assuming that there
-are other perceptions, which differ in some respects from his own:
-such, for instance, is the case when (as is so common nowadays) a
-philosopher introduces psycho-genetic considerations into his arguments
-&mdash;considerations concerning the nature of the perceptions of men who
-existed before and at a much lower stage of culture than himself.
-Any philosopher, who uses such arguments, obviously assumes that
-perceptions other than his own have existed or been real. And even
-those philosophers who think themselves justified in the conclusion
-that neither their own perceptions nor any perceptions like theirs are
-<i>ultimately</i> real, would, I think admit, that <i>phenomenally</i>, at least,
-they <i>are</i> real, and are certainly <i>more</i> real than some other things.</p>
-
-<p>Almost everyone, then, does believe that some perceptions other than
-his own, and which he himself does not directly perceive, are real; and
-believing this, he believes that something other than himself and what
-he directly perceives is real. But how do we know that anything exists
-except our own perceptions, and what we directly perceive? How do we
-know that there are any other people, who have perceptions in some
-respects similar to our own?</p>
-
-<p>I believe that these two questions express very exactly the nature of
-the problem which it is my chief object, in this paper, to discuss.
-When I say these words to you, they will at once suggest to<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_33" id="Page_33">[Pg 33]</a></span> your minds
-the very question, to which I desire to find an answer; they will
-convey to you the very same meaning which I have before my mind, when I
-use the words. You will understand at once what question it is that I
-mean to ask. But, for all that, the words which I have used are highly
-ambiguous. If you begin to ask yourselves what I do mean by them, you
-will find that there are several quite different things which I might
-mean. And there is, I think, great danger of confusing these different
-meanings with one another. I think that philosophers, when they have
-asked this question in one sense, have often answered it in quite a
-different sense; and yet have supposed that the answer which they have
-given is an answer to the very same question which they originally
-asked. It is precisely because there is this ambiguity&mdash;this danger of
-confusion, in the words which I have used, that I have chosen to use
-them. I wish to point out as clearly as I can, not only what I do mean
-by them, but also some things which I do <i>not</i> mean; and I wish to make
-it clear that the questions which I do <i>not</i> mean to ask, are different
-questions from that which I do mean to ask.</p>
-
-<p>I will take the second of my two questions, since there is in the other
-an additional ambiguity to which I do not now wish to call attention.
-My second question was: How do we know that there exist any other
-people who have perceptions in some respects similar to our own? What
-does this question mean?</p>
-
-<p>Now I think you may have noticed that when you make a statement to
-another person, and he answers "How do you know that that is so?" he
-very often means to suggest that you do <i>not</i> know it. And yet, though
-he means to suggest that you do not <i>know</i> it, he may not for a moment
-wish to suggest that you do not <i>believe</i> it, nor even that you<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_34" id="Page_34">[Pg 34]</a></span> have
-not that degree or kind of conviction, which goes beyond mere belief,
-and which may be taken to be essential to anything which can properly
-be called knowledge. He does not mean to suggest for a moment that you
-are saying something which you do not believe to be true, or even that
-you are not thoroughly convinced of its truth. What he does mean to
-suggest is that what you asserted was not <i>true</i>, even though you may
-not only have believed it but felt sure that it was true. He suggests
-that you don't <i>know</i> it, in the sense that what you believe or feel
-sure of is not true.</p>
-
-<p>Now I point this out, not because I myself mean to suggest that we
-don't know the existence of other persons, but merely in order to show
-that the word "know" is sometimes used in a sense in which it is not
-merely equivalent to "believe" or "feel sure of." When the question
-"How do you <i>know</i> that?" is asked, the questioner does not merely
-mean to ask "how do you come to believe that, or to be convinced of
-it?" He sometimes, and I think generally, means to ask a question with
-regard to the <i>truth</i>, and not with regard to the <i>existence</i> of your
-belief. And similarly when I ask the question "How do we know that
-other people exist?" I do <i>not</i> mean to ask "How do we come to believe
-in or be convinced of their existence?" I do not intend to discuss this
-question <i>at all.</i> I shall not ask what <i>suggests</i> to us our belief in
-the existence of other persons or of an external world; I shall not
-ask whether we arrive at it by inference or by "instinct" or in any
-other manner, which ever has been or may be suggested: I shall discuss
-no question of any kind whatever with regard to its origin, or cause,
-or the way in which it arises. These psychological questions are <i>not</i>
-what I propose to discuss. When I ask the question "How do we know that
-other people exist?" I do <i>not</i> mean:</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_35" id="Page_35">[Pg 35]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>"How does our belief in their existence arise?"</p>
-
-<p>But if I do not mean this what do I mean P I have said that I mean
-to ask a question with regard to the <i>truth</i> of that belief; and the
-particular question which I mean to ask might be expressed in the
-words: <i>What reason have</i> we for our belief in the existence of other
-persons? But these are words which themselves need some explanation,
-and I will try to give it.</p>
-
-<p>In the first place, then, when I talk of "a reason," I mean <i>only</i>
-a good reason and <i>not</i> a bad one. A bad reason is, no doubt, a
-reason, in one sense of the word; but I mean to use the word "reason"
-exclusively in the sense in which it is equivalent to "good reason."
-But what, then, is meant by a good reason for a belief? I think I can
-express sufficiently accurately what I mean by it in this connection,
-as follows:&mdash;A good reason for a belief is a proposition which is
-true, and which would not be true unless the belief were also true. We
-should, I think, commonly say that when a man knows such a proposition,
-he has a good reason for his belief; and, when he knows no such
-proposition, we should say that he has no reason for it. When he knows
-such a proposition, we should say he knows something which is a reason
-for thinking his belief to be true&mdash;something from which it <i>could</i> be
-validly inferred. And if, in answer to the question "How do you know
-so and so?" he were to state such a proposition, we should, I think,
-feel that he had answered the question which we meant to ask. Suppose,
-for instance, in answer to the question "How do you know that?" he were
-to say "I saw it in the <i>Times."</i> Then, if we believed that he had
-seen it in the <i>Times</i>, and also believed that it would not have been
-in the <i>Times</i>, unless it had been true, we should admit that he had
-answered our question.<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_36" id="Page_36">[Pg 36]</a></span> We should no longer doubt that he did <i>know</i>
-what he asserted, we should no longer doubt that his belief was true.
-But if, on the other hand, we believed that he had not seen it in the
-<i>Times</i>&mdash;if, for instance, we had reason to believe that what he saw
-was not the statement which he made, but some other statement which
-he mistook for it; or if we believed that the kind of statement in
-question was one with regard to which there was no presumption that,
-being in the <i>Times</i>, it would be true: in <i>either</i> of these cases
-we should, I think, feel that he had <i>not</i> answered our question. We
-should still doubt whether what he had said was true. We should still
-doubt whether he <i>knew</i> what he asserted; and since a man cannot tell
-you how he <i>knows</i> a thing unless he does know that thing, we should
-think that, though he might have told us truly how he <i>came to believe
-it,</i> he had certainly not told us how he <i>knew</i> it. But though we
-should thus hold that he had <i>not</i> told us <i>how he knew</i> what he had
-asserted, and that he had given us no reason for believing it to be
-true; we must yet admit that he had given us a reason in a sense&mdash;a
-<i>bad</i> reason, a reason which was no reason because it had no tendency
-to show that what he believed was true; and we might also be perfectly
-convinced that he had given us <i>the reason</i> why he believed it&mdash;the
-proposition by believing which he was induced also to believe his
-original assertion.</p>
-
-<p>I mean, then, by my question, "How do we know that other people
-exist?" what, I believe, is ordinarily meant, namely, "What reason
-have we for believing that they exist?" and by this again I mean, what
-I also believe is ordinarily meant, namely, "What proposition do we
-believe, which is both true itself and is also such that it would not
-be true, unless other people existed?" And I hope it is plain that
-this question, thus explained, is quite a<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_37" id="Page_37">[Pg 37]</a></span> different question from the
-psychological question, which I said I did <i>not</i> mean to ask&mdash;from the
-question, "How does our belief in the existence of other people arise?"
-My illustration, I hope, has made this plain. For I have pointed out
-that we may quite well hold that a man has told us how a belief of
-his arises, and even what was the reason which made him adopt that
-belief, and yet may have failed to give us any <i>good reason</i> for his
-belief&mdash;any proposition which is both true itself, and also such that
-the truth of his belief follows from it. And, indeed, it is plain that
-if any one ever believes what is false, he is believing something for
-which there <i>is</i> no good reason, in the sense which I have explained,
-and for which, therefore, he cannot possibly have a good reason; and
-yet it plainly does not follow that his belief did not arise in anyway
-whatever, nor even that he had no reason for it&mdash;no bad reason. It
-is plain that false beliefs do arise in some way or other&mdash;they have
-origins and causes: and many people who hold them <i>have</i> bad reasons
-for holding them&mdash;their belief does arise (by inference or otherwise)
-from their belief in some other proposition, which is not itself true,
-or else is not a <i>good</i> reason for holding that, which they infer
-from it, or which, in some other way, it induces them to believe. I
-submit, therefore, that the question, "What good reason have we for
-believing in the existence of other people?" is different from the
-question, "How does that belief arise?" But when I say this, I must
-not be misunderstood; I must not be understood to affirm that the
-answer to both questions <i>may</i> not, in a sense, be the same. I fully
-admit that the very same fact, which suggests to us the belief in the
-existence of other people, <i>may</i> also be a good reason for believing
-that they do exist. All that I maintain is that the question whether
-it is a good reason for that belief is a different question<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_38" id="Page_38">[Pg 38]</a></span> from the
-question whether it suggests that belief: if we assert that a certain
-fact <i>both</i> suggests our belief in the existence of other persons and
-is <i>also</i> a good reason for holding that belief, we are asserting two
-different things and not one only. And hence, when I assert, as I shall
-assert, that we <i>have</i> a good reason for our belief in the existence
-of other persons, I must not be understood also to assert either that
-we infer the existence of other persons from this good reason, or that
-our belief in that good reason suggests our belief in the existence
-of other persons in any other way. It is plain, I think, that a man
-may believe two true propositions, of which the one would not be true,
-unless the other were true too, without, in any sense whatever, having
-arrived at his belief in the one <i>from</i> his belief in the other; and it
-is plain, at all events, that the question whether his belief in the
-one <i>did</i> arise from his belief in the other, is a different question
-from the question whether the truth of the one belief follows from the
-truth of the other.</p>
-
-<p>I hope, then, that I have made it a little clearer what I mean by the
-question: "What reason have we for believing in the existence of other
-people?" and that what I mean by it is at all events different from
-what is meant by the question: "How does our belief in the existence of
-other people arise?"</p>
-
-<p>But I am sorry to say that I have not yet reached the end of my
-explanations as to what my meaning is. I am afraid that the subject may
-seem very tedious. I can assure you that I have found it excessively
-tedious to try to make my meaning clear to myself. I have constantly
-found that I was confusing one question with another, and that, where
-I had thought I had a good reason for some assertion, I had in reality
-no good reason. But I may perhaps remind you that this question, "How
-do we know so and so?" "What reason have we<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_39" id="Page_39">[Pg 39]</a></span> for believing it?" is one
-of which philosophy is full; and one to which the most various answers
-have been given. Philosophy largely consists in giving reasons; and the
-question what are good reasons for a particular conclusion and what are
-bad, is one upon which philosophers have disagreed as much as on any
-other question. For one and the same conclusion different philosophers
-have given not only different, but incompatible, reasons; and
-conversely different philosophers have maintained that one and the same
-fact is a reason for incompatible conclusions. We are apt, I think,
-sometimes to pay too little attention to this fact. When we have taken,
-perhaps, no little pains to assure ourselves that our own reasoning
-is correct, and especially when we know that a great many other
-philosophers agree with us, we are apt to assume that the arguments
-of those philosophers, who have come to a contradictory conclusion,
-are scarcely worthy of serious consideration. And yet, I think, there
-is scarcely a single reasoned conclusion in philosophy, as to which
-we shall not find that some other philosopher, who has, so far as we
-know, bestowed equal pains on his reasoning, and with equal ability,
-has reached a conclusion incompatible with ours. We may be satisfied
-that we are right, and we may, in fact, be so; but it is certain that
-<i>both</i> cannot be right: either our opponent or we must have mistaken
-bad reasons for good. And this being so, however satisfied we may be
-that it is not we who have done so, I think we should at least draw the
-conclusion that it is by no means easy to avoid mistaking bad reasons
-for good; and that no process, however laborious, which is in the least
-likely to help us in avoiding this should be evaded. But it is at least
-possible that one source of error lies in mistaking one kind of reason
-for another&mdash;in supposing that, because there is, in one<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_40" id="Page_40">[Pg 40]</a></span> sense, a
-reason for a given conclusion, there is also a reason in another, or
-that because there is, in one sense, no reason for a given conclusion,
-there is, therefore, no reason at all. I believe myself that this <i>is</i>
-a very frequent source of error: but it is at least a possible one.
-And where, as disagreements show, there certainly is error on one
-side or the other, and reason, too, to suppose that the error is not
-easy to detect, I think we should spare no pains in investigating any
-source, from which it is even possible that the error may arise. For
-these reasons I think I am perhaps doing right in trying to explain as
-clearly as possible not only what reasons we have for believing in an
-external world, but also in what sense I take them to be reasons.</p>
-
-<p>I proceed, then with my explanation. And there is one thing, which, I
-think my illustration has shown that I do <i>not</i> mean. I have defined
-a reason for a belief as a true proposition, which would not be true
-unless the belief itself&mdash;what is believed&mdash;were also true; and I
-have used, as synonymous with this form of words, the expressions: A
-reason for a belief is a true proposition from which the truth of the
-belief <i>follows</i> from which it <i>could</i> be <i>validly inferred.</i> Now these
-expressions might suggest the idea that I mean to restrict the word
-"reason," to what, in the strictest sense, might be called a <i>logical</i>
-reason&mdash;to propositions from which the belief in question <i>follows,</i>
-according to the rules of inference accepted by Formal Logic. But I
-am <i>not</i> using the words "follow," "validly inferred," in this narrow
-sense; I do <i>not</i> mean to restrict the words "reason for a belief"
-to propositions from which the laws of Formal Logic state that the
-belief could be deduced. The illustration which I gave is inconsistent
-with this restricted meaning. I said that the fact that a statement
-appeared in the <i>Times</i> might be a good reason for believing that<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_41" id="Page_41">[Pg 41]</a></span>
-that statement was true. And I am using the word "reason" in the wide
-and popular sense, in which it really might be. If, for instance,
-the <i>Times</i> stated that the King was dead, we should think that was
-a good reason for believing that the King was dead; we should think
-that the <i>Times</i> would not have made such a statement as that unless
-the King really were dead. We should, indeed, not think that the
-statement in the <i>Times</i> rendered it absolutely <i>certain</i> that the
-King was dead. But it <i>is</i> extremely unlikely that the <i>Times</i> would
-make a statement of this kind unless it were true; and, in that sense,
-the fact of the statement appearing in the <i>Times</i> would render it
-<i>highly probable</i>&mdash;much more likely than not&mdash;that the King was dead.
-And I wish it to be understood that I am using the words "reason for
-a belief" in this extremely wide sense. When I look for a good reason
-for our belief in the existence of other people, I shall not reject any
-proposition merely on the ground that it only renders their existence
-probable&mdash;only shows it to be more likely than not that they exist.
-Provided that the proposition in question does render it <i>positively
-probable</i> that they exist, then, if it also conforms to the conditions
-which I am about to mention, I shall call it a "good reason."</p>
-
-<p>But it is not every proposition which renders it probable that
-other people exist, which I shall consider to be a good answer to
-my question. I have just explained that my meaning is wide in one
-direction&mdash;in admitting <i>some</i> propositions which render a belief
-merely probable; but I have now to explain that it is restricted in
-two other directions. I do mean to exclude certain propositions which
-do render that belief probable. When I ask: What reason have <i>we</i> for
-believing in the existence of other people? a certain ambiguity is
-introduced by the use of the plural "we." If each of several<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_42" id="Page_42">[Pg 42]</a></span> different
-persons has a reason for believing that he himself exists, then it is
-not merely probable, but certain, according to the rules of Formal
-Logic, that, in a sense, <i>they</i> "have a reason for believing" that
-several people exist; each has a reason for believing that he himself
-exists; and, therefore, all of them, taken together, have reasons for
-supposing that several persons exist. If, therefore, I were asking
-the question: What reason have <i>we</i> for believing in the existence
-of other persons? in this sense, it would follow that if each of us
-has a reason for believing in his own existence, these reasons, taken
-together, would be a reason for believing in the existence of all of
-us. But I am not asking the question in this sense: it is plain that
-this is not its natural sense. What I do mean to ask is: Does <i>each
-single one</i> of us know any proposition, which is a reason for believing
-that <i>others</i> exist? I am using "we," that is to say, in the sense
-of "each of us." But again I do mean <i>each</i> of us: I am not merely
-asking whether some <i>one</i> man knows a proposition which is a reason
-for believing that other men exist. It would be possible that some
-one man, or some few men, should know such a proposition, and yet the
-rest know no such proposition. But I am not asking whether this is the
-case. I am asking whether among propositions of the kind which (as we
-commonly suppose) all or almost all men know, there is any which is a
-reason for supposing that other men exist. And in asking this question
-I am not begging the question by supposing that all men do exist. My
-question might, I think, be put quite accurately as follows. There are
-certain kinds of belief which, as we commonly suppose, all or almost
-all men share. I describe this kind of belief as "our" beliefs, simply
-as an easy way of pointing out which kind of belief I mean, but without
-assuming that all men do share<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_43" id="Page_43">[Pg 43]</a></span> them. And I then ask: Supposing a
-single man to have beliefs of this kind, which among them would be a
-good reason for supposing that other men existed having like beliefs?</p>
-
-<p>This, then, is the first restriction which I put upon the meaning
-of my question. And it is, I think, a restriction which, in their
-natural meaning, the words suggest. When we ask: What reason have
-we for believing that other people exist? we naturally understand
-that question to be equivalent to: What reason has <i>each</i> of us for
-that belief? And this question again is naturally equivalent to the
-question: Which among the propositions that a single man believes, but
-which are of the kind which (rightly or wrongly) we assume all men to
-believe, are such that they would not be true unless some other person
-than that man existed? But there is another restriction which, I think,
-the words of my question also naturally suggest. If we were to ask
-anyone the question: How do you know that you did see that statement
-in the <i>Times</i>? and he were to answer "Because I did see it in the
-<i>Times</i> and in the <i>Standard</i> too," we should not think that he had
-given us a <i>reason</i> for the belief that he saw it in the <i>Times.</i> We
-should not think his answer a <i>reason</i>, because it asserts the very
-thing for which we require a reason. And similarly when I ask: How
-do we know that any thing or person exists, other than ourselves and
-what we directly perceive? What reason have we for believing this? I
-must naturally be understood to mean: What proposition, <i>other</i> than
-one which itself asserts or presupposes the existence of something
-beyond ourselves and our own perceptions, is a reason for supposing
-that such a thing exists? And this restriction obviously excludes an
-immense number of propositions of a kind which all of us do believe. We
-all of us believe an immense number of different propositions<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_44" id="Page_44">[Pg 44]</a></span> about
-the existence of things which we do not directly perceive, and many
-of these propositions are, in my sense, good reasons for believing in
-the existence of still other things. The belief in the existence of a
-statement in the <i>Times,</i> when we have not seen that statement, may,
-as I implied, be a good reason for believing that someone is dead. But
-no such proposition can be a good answer to my question, because it
-asserts the very kind of thing for which I require a reason: it asserts
-the existence of something other than myself and what I directly
-perceive. When I am asking: What reason have I for believing in the
-existence of anything but myself, my own perceptions, and what I do
-directly perceive? you would naturally understand me to mean: What
-reason, <i>other than</i> the existence of such a thing, have I for this
-belief?</p>
-
-<p>Each of us, then, we commonly assume, believes some true propositions,
-which do not themselves assert the existence of anything other than
-himself, his own perceptions, or what he directly perceives. Each of
-us, for instance, believes that he himself has and has had certain
-particular perceptions: and these propositions are propositions of
-the kind I mean&mdash;propositions which do not themselves assert the
-existence of anything <i>other than</i> himself, his own perceptions,
-and what he directly perceives: they are, I think, by no means the
-only propositions of this kind, which most of us believe: but they
-<i>are</i> propositions of this kind. But, as I say, I am not assuming
-that each of us&mdash;each of several different people&mdash;does believe
-propositions of this kind. All that I assume is that at least one man
-does believe some such propositions. And then I ask: Which among those
-true propositions, which one man believes, are such that they would
-probably not be true, unless some other man existed and had certain
-particular perceptions? Which among them are<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_45" id="Page_45">[Pg 45]</a></span> such that it <i>follows</i>
-(in the wide sense, which I have explained) from their truth, that it
-is more likely than not that some other man has perceptions? This is
-the meaning of my question, so far as I have hitherto explained it:
-and I hope this meaning is quite clear. It is in this sense that I am
-asking: What reason have we for believing that other people exist? How
-do we know that they exist? This, indeed, is not <i>all</i> that I mean by
-that question: there is one other point&mdash;the most important one&mdash;which
-remains to be explained. But this is <i>part</i> of what I mean to ask; and
-before I go on to explain what else I mean, I wish first to stop and
-enquire what is the answer to this part of my question. What is the
-answer to the question: Which among the true propositions, of a kind
-which (as we commonly assume) each of us believes, and which do not
-themselves assert the existence of anything other than that person
-himself, his own perceptions, or what he directly perceives, are such
-that they would probably not be true unless some other person existed,
-who had perceptions in some respects similar to his own?</p>
-
-<p>Now to this question the answer is very obvious. It is very obvious
-that in this sense we have reasons for believing in the existence of
-other persons, and also what some of those reasons are. But I wish
-to make it quite plain that this is so: that in this sense one man
-<i>has</i> a reason for believing that another has certain perceptions. All
-that I am asking you to grant, is, you see, that some of you would
-not be having just those perceptions which you now have, unless I,
-as I read this paper, were perceiving more or less black marks on a
-more or less white ground; or that I on the other hand, should not
-be having just those perceptions which I now have, unless some other
-persons than myself were hearing the sounds of my voice. And I am
-not asking you<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_46" id="Page_46">[Pg 46]</a></span> even to grant that this is certain&mdash;only that it is
-positively probable&mdash;more likely than not. Surely it is very obvious
-that this proposition is true. But I wish to make it quite clear
-what would be the consequences of denying that any such propositions
-are true&mdash;propositions which assert that the existence of certain
-perceptions in one man are a reason for believing in the existence of
-certain perceptions in another man&mdash;which assert that one man would
-probably not have had just those perceptions which he did have, unless
-some other man had had certain particular perceptions. It is plain, I
-think, that, unless some such propositions are true, we have no more
-reason for supposing that Alexander the Great ever saw an elephant,
-than for supposing that Sindbad the Sailor saw a Roc; we have no more
-reason for supposing that anybody saw Julius Caesar murdered in the
-Senate House at Rome, than for supposing that somebody saw him carried
-up to Heaven in a fiery chariot. It is plain, I think, that if we have
-any reason at all for supposing that in all probability Alexander the
-Great did see an elephant, and that in all probability no such person
-as Sindbad the Sailor ever saw a Roc, part of that reason consists
-in the assumption that some other person would probably not have had
-just those perceptions which he did have, unless Alexander the Great
-had seen an elephant, and unless Sindbad the Sailor had not seen a
-Roc. And most philosophers, I think, are willing to admit that we have
-some reason, in some sense or other, for such propositions as these.
-They are willing to admit not only that some persons probably did see
-Julius Caesar murdered in the Senate House; but also that some persons,
-other than those who saw it, had and have <i>some reason</i> for supposing
-that some one else probably saw it. Some sceptical philosophers might,
-indeed, deny both propositions; and<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_47" id="Page_47">[Pg 47]</a></span> to refute their views, I admit,
-other arguments are needed than any which I shall bring forward in this
-paper. But most philosophers will, I think, admit not only that facts,
-for which there is, as we say, good historical evidence, are probably
-true; but also that what we call good historical evidence really is
-in some sense a good reason for thinking them true. Accordingly I am
-going to assume that many propositions of the following kind are true.
-Propositions, namely, which assert that one man would probably not
-have certain perceptions which he does have, unless some other man had
-certain particular perceptions. That some of you, for instance, would
-probably not be having precisely the perceptions which you are having,
-unless I were having the perception of more or less black marks on a
-more or less white ground. And, in this sense, I say, we certainly have
-reasons for supposing that other people have perceptions similar, in
-some respects, to those which we sometimes have.</p>
-
-<p>But when I said I was going to ask the question: What reason have we
-for supposing that other people exist? you will certainly not have
-thought that I merely meant to ask the question which I have just
-answered. My words will have suggested to you something much more
-important than merely this. When, for instance, I said that to the
-question "How do you know that?" the answer "I saw it in the <i>Times"</i>
-would be a satisfactory answer, you may have felt, as I felt, that it
-would not in all circumstances be regarded as such. The person who
-asked the question might, in some cases, fairly reply: "That is no
-answer: how do you know that, because you saw a thing in the <i>Times</i>,
-it is therefore true?" In other words he might ask fora <i>reason</i> for
-supposing that the occurrence of a particular statement in the <i>Times</i>
-was a reason for supposing that statement true. And this is a question
-to<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_48" id="Page_48">[Pg 48]</a></span> which we all believe that there may be an answer. We believe that,
-with some kinds of statements which the <i>Times</i> makes&mdash;some kinds of
-statements with regard to Fiscal Policy for example&mdash;the fact that
-the <i>Times</i> makes them is no reason for supposing them to be true:
-whereas with regard to other kinds of statements, which it makes, such
-a statement, for instance, as that the King was dead, the fact that it
-makes them <i>is</i> a reason for supposing them true. We believe that there
-are some kinds of statements, which it is very unlikely the <i>Times</i>
-would make, unless they were true; and others which it is not at all
-unlikely that the <i>Times</i> might make, although they were not true. And
-we believe that a reason might be given for distinguishing, in this
-way, between the two different kinds of statement: for thinking that,
-in some cases (on points, for instance, which, as we should say, are
-not simple questions of fact) the <i>Times</i> is fallible, whereas in other
-cases, it is, though not absolutely infallible, very unlikely to state
-what is not true.</p>
-
-<p>Now it is precisely in this further sense that I wish to consider: what
-reason have we for believing that certain particular things, other
-than ourselves, our own perceptions, and what we directly perceive,
-are real? I have asserted that I do have certain perceptions, which it
-is very unlikely I should have, unless some other person had certain
-particular perceptions; that, for instance, it is very unlikely I
-should be having precisely those perceptions which I am now having
-unless someone else were hearing the sound of my voice. And I now
-wish to ask: What reason have I for supposing that this is unlikely?
-What reason has any of us for supposing that any such proposition is
-true? And I mean by "having a reason" precisely what I formerly meant.
-I mean: What other proposition do I know, which would not be true,
-unless my perception were connected with<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_49" id="Page_49">[Pg 49]</a></span> someone else's perception, in
-the manner in which I asserted them to be connected? Here again I am
-asking for <i>a good reason</i>; and am not asking a psychological question
-with regard to origin. Here again I am not asking for a reason, in the
-strict sense of Formal Logic; I am merely asking for a proposition
-which would probably not be true, unless what I asserted were true.
-Here again I am asking for some proposition of a kind which <i>each</i> of
-us believes; I am asking: What reason has <i>each</i> of us for believing
-that some of his perceptions are connected with particular perceptions
-of other people in the manner I asserted?&mdash;for believing that he would
-not have certain perceptions that he does have, unless some other
-person had certain particular perceptions? And here again I am asking
-for a <i>reason</i>&mdash;I am asking for some proposition <i>other</i> than one
-which itself asserts: When one man has a perception of such and such a
-particular kind, it <i>is</i> probable that another man has a perception or
-thought of this or that other kind.</p>
-
-<p>But what kind of reason can be given for believing a proposition of
-this sort? For believing a proposition which asserts that, since one
-particular thing exists, it is probable that another particular thing
-also exists? One thing I think is plain, namely that we can have no
-good reason for believing such a proposition, unless we have good
-reason for believing some <i>generalisation.</i> It is commonly believed,
-for instance, that certain so-called flint arrow-heads, which have been
-discovered, were probably made by prehistoric men; and I think it is
-plain that we have no reason for believing this unless we have reason
-to suppose that objects which resemble these in certain particular
-respects are <i>generally</i> made by men&mdash;are <i>more often</i> made by men
-than by any other agency. Unless certain<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_50" id="Page_50">[Pg 50]</a></span> particular characteristics
-which those arrow-heads have were characteristics which belonged at
-least more frequently to articles of human manufacture than to any
-articles not made by men, it would surely be just as likely as not
-that these arrowheads were <i>not</i> made by men&mdash;that they were, in fact
-not arrow-heads. That is to say, unless we have reason to assert a
-<i>generalisation</i>&mdash;the generalisation that objects of a certain kind
-are <i>generally</i> made by men, we have no reason to suppose that these
-particular objects, which are of the kind in question, <i>were</i> made
-by men. And the same, so far as I can see, is true universally. If
-we ever have any reason for asserting that, since one particular
-thing exists, another probably exists or existed or will exist also
-part of our reason, at least, must consist in reasons for asserting
-some generalisation&mdash;for asserting that the existence of things of
-a particular kind is, more often than not, accompanied or preceded
-or followed by the existence of things of another particular kind.
-It is, I think, sometimes assumed that an alternative to this theory
-may be found in the theory that the existence of one kind of thing
-"intrinsically points to," or is "intrinsically a sign or symbol of"
-the existence of another thing. It is suggested that when a thing
-which thus points to the existence of another thing exists, then it is
-at least probable that the thing "pointed to" exists also. But this
-theory, I think, offers no real alternative. For, in the first place,
-when we say that the existence of one thing A is a "sign of" or "points
-to" the existence of another thing B, we very commonly actually mean to
-say that when a thing like A exists, a thing like B <i>generally</i> exists
-too. We may, no doubt, mean something else <i>too</i>; but this we do mean.
-We say, for instance, that certain particular words, which we hear or
-read, are a "sign" that somebody has thought of the<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_51" id="Page_51">[Pg 51]</a></span> particular things
-which we call the meaning of those words. But we should certainly
-hesitate to admit that the hearing or reading of certain words could be
-called a "sign" of the existence of certain thoughts, unless it were
-true that when those words are heard or read, the thoughts in question
-<i>generally</i> have existed. If when those words were heard or read, the
-thoughts had generally <i>not</i> existed, we should say that, in one sense
-of the word at all events, the hearing of the words was <i>not</i> a sign of
-the existence of the thoughts. In this sense, therefore, to say that
-the existence of A "points to" or "is a sign of" the existence of B is
-actually to say that when A exists, B <i>generally</i> exists also. But,
-no doubt, the words "points to" "is a sign of" may be used in some
-other sense: they may, for instance, mean only that the existence of A
-<i>suggests</i> in some way the belief that B exists. And in such a case we
-certainly might know that the existence of A pointed to the existence
-of B, without knowing that when A existed B generally existed also.
-Let us suppose, then, that in some such sense A does "point to" the
-existence of B; can this fact give us a reason for supposing it even
-probable that B existed. Certainly it can, <i>provided</i> it is true that
-when A <i>does</i> point to the existence of B, B <i>generally</i> exists. But
-surely it can do so, only on this condition. If when A <i>points</i> to
-the existence of B, B, nevertheless, does <i>not</i> generally exist, then
-surely the fact that A points to the existence of B can constitute no
-probability that B does not exist: on the contrary it will then be
-probable that, even though A "points to" the existence of B, B does
-<i>not</i> exist. We have, in fact, only substituted the generalisation that
-A's <i>pointing to</i> B is generally accompanied by the existence of B, for
-the generalisation that A's <i>existence</i> is generally accompanied by the
-existence of B. If<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_52" id="Page_52">[Pg 52]</a></span> we are to have any reason for asserting that, when
-A <i>points to</i> or is a sign of the existence of B, B probably exists, we
-must still have a reason for some generalisation&mdash;for a generalisation
-which asserts that when one thing points to the existence of another,
-that other <i>generally</i> exists.</p>
-
-<p>It is plain, then, I think, that if we are to find a reason for the
-assertion that some particular perception of mine would probably not
-exist, unless someone else were having or had had a perception of a
-kind which I can name, we must find a reason for <i>some</i> generalisation.
-And it is also plain, I think, that in many cases of this kind the
-generalisation must consist in an assertion that when one man has a
-certain kind of perception, some other man generally has had some
-other perception or belief. We assume, for instance, that when we hear
-or read certain words, somebody besides ourselves has thought the
-thoughts, which constitute the meaning of those words; and it is plain,
-I think, that we have no reason for this assumption except one which
-is also a reason for the assumption that when certain words are heard
-or read, somebody generally has had certain thoughts. And my enquiry,
-therefore, at least includes the enquiry: What reasons have we for such
-generalisations as these? for generalisations which assert a connection
-between the existence of a certain kind of perception in one man, and
-that of a certain kind of perception or belief in another man?</p>
-
-<p>And to this question, I think, but one answer can be given. If we
-have any reason for such generalisations at all, some reason must
-be given, in one way or another, by observation&mdash;by observation,
-understood in the wide sense in which it includes "experiment." No
-philosopher, I think, has ever failed to assume that observation does
-give a reason for <i>some</i> generalisations&mdash;for some<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_53" id="Page_53">[Pg 53]</a></span> propositions
-which assert that when one kind of thing exists, another generally
-exists or has existed in a certain relation to it. Even those who,
-like Hume, imply that observation cannot give a <i>reason</i> for anything,
-yet constantly appeal to observation in support of generalisations of
-their own. And even those who hold that observation can give no reason
-for any generalisation about the relation of one man's perceptions to
-another's, yet hold that it <i>can</i> give a reason for generalisations
-about the relation of some to others among a man's own perceptions.
-It is, indeed, by no means agreed <i>how</i> observation can give a reason
-for any generalisation. Nobody knows what reason we have, if we have
-any, for supposing that it can. But <i>that</i> it can, everyone, I think,
-assumes. I think, therefore, most philosophers will agree, that if we
-can find any reason at all for generalisations of the kind in which
-I am interested, a reason for <i>some</i> of them at all events must be
-found in observation. And what I propose to ask is: What reason can be
-found in observation for even a single proposition of the kind I have
-described? for a proposition which asserts that when one man has one
-kind of perception, another man generally has or has had another.</p>
-
-<p>But, when it is said that observation gives us a reason for
-generalisations, two things may be meant neither of which I mean. In
-the first place, we popularly use "observation" in a sense in which
-we can be said to <i>observe</i> the perceptions, feelings and thoughts
-of other people: in which, therefore, we can be said to observe the
-very things with regard to which I am asking what reason we have for
-believing in their existence. But it is universally<a name="FNanchor_1_2" id="FNanchor_1_2"></a><a href="#Footnote_1_2" class="fnanchor">[1]</a> agreed that
-there is a sense in which no man can observe the perceptions, feelings
-or thoughts of any other man. And it is to this strict sense that
-I<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_54" id="Page_54">[Pg 54]</a></span> propose to confine the word. I shall use it in a sense, in which
-we can certainly be said to observe nothing but ourselves, our own
-perceptions, thoughts and feelings, and what we directly perceive. And
-in the second place, it may be said that observations made by another
-person may give <i>me</i> a reason for believing some generalisation. And
-it is certainly the case that for many of the generalisations in which
-we all believe, if we have a reason in observation at all, it is not
-in <i>our own</i> observation that we have it: part of our reason, at all
-events, lies in things which <i>other</i> people have observed but which we
-ourselves have not observed. But in asking this particular question,
-I am not asking for reasons of this sort. The very question that I am
-asking is: What reason has any one of us for supposing that any other
-person whatever has ever made any observations? And just as, in the
-first meaning which I gave to this question, it meant: What thing,
-that any single man observes is such that it would probably not have
-existed, unless some other man had made a particular observation?
-So now I am asking: Which among the things, which <i>one single man
-observes</i>, are such that they would probably not have existed, unless
-it were true that some of them generally stood in certain relations to
-observations of some other person? I am asking: Which among <i>my own</i>
-observations give me a reason for supposing that some of them are of
-a kind which are generally preceded or accompanied by observations
-of other people? Which, for instance, among my own observations give
-a good reason for the generalisation that when I hear certain words,
-somebody else has generally had certain particular thoughts, or that
-whenever anyone hears certain words, somebody else has generally had
-the thoughts which constitute what we call the meaning of those words?
-I am asking: Which<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_55" id="Page_55">[Pg 55]</a></span> among the vast series of observations, which any
-one individual makes during his lifetime, give a good reason for
-any generalisation <i>whatever</i> of this kind&mdash;a generalisation which
-asserts that some of them are generally preceded by certain thoughts,
-perceptions or feelings in other persons? I quite admit that there
-are some generalisations of this kind for which the observations of
-<i>some</i> particular men will <i>not</i> give a reason. All that I ask is:
-Is there even <i>one</i> generalisation of this kind, for which the kind
-of observations, which (as we commonly assume) each man, or nearly
-every man does make, do give a reason? Among observations of the kind
-which (as we commonly assume) are common to you and to me, do yours,
-by themselves, give any reason for even <i>one</i> such generalisation?
-And do mine, by themselves, give any reason for even <i>one</i> such
-generalisation? And if they do, which, among these observations, is it
-which do so?</p>
-
-<p>My question is, then: What reason do my own observations give me, for
-supposing that any perception whatever, which I have, would probably
-not occur, unless some other person had a certain kind of perception?
-What reason do my own observations give me for supposing, for instance,
-that I should not be perceiving what I do now perceive, unless
-someone were hearing the sound of my voice? What reason do your own
-observations give you for supposing that you would not be perceiving
-just what you are perceiving, unless I were perceiving more or less
-black marks on a more or less white ground? The question does, I
-think, appear to be a reasonable one; and most philosophers, I think,
-have assumed that there is an answer to it. Yet it may be said that
-there is no answer to it: that my own observations give me no reason
-whatever for any single proposition of this kind. There are certain
-philosophers (even apart from<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_56" id="Page_56">[Pg 56]</a></span> thorough sceptics, with whom, as I have
-said, I am not now arguing) who have denied that they do. There are
-certain philosophers who hold that nothing which any single one of
-us observes or can observe, gives the slightest reason for supposing
-that any of his own perceptions are generally connected with certain
-perceptions in other people. There are philosophers who hold that the
-only generalisations for which our own observations do give any warrant
-are generalisations concerning the manner in which our own perceptions,
-thoughts and feelings do and probably will succeed one another; and who
-conclude that, this being so, we have no reason whatever for believing
-in the existence of any other people. And these philosophers are, I
-think, right in drawing this conclusion from this premiss. It does
-not, indeed, follow from their premiss that we have not a reason in
-the sense which I first explained, and in which, I insisted, it must
-be admitted that we have a reason. It does not follow that some of our
-perceptions <i>are</i> not such as would probably not exist, unless some
-other person had certain perceptions. But, as I have urged, when we
-say that we have a reason for asserting the existence of something not
-perceived, we commonly mean something more than this. We mean not only
-that, since what we perceive does exist, the unperceived thing probably
-exists too; we mean also that we have some reason for asserting this
-connection between the perceived and the unperceived. And holding, as
-we do, that no reason can be given for asserting such a connection,
-except observation, we should say that, if observation gives no reason
-for asserting it, we have <i>no</i> reason for asserting it; and having no
-reason for asserting this connection between the perceived and the
-unperceived, we should say that we have none either for asserting the
-even probable existence of the<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_57" id="Page_57">[Pg 57]</a></span> unperceived. This, I think, is what
-we commonly mean by saying that we have no reason to believe in the
-existence of a particular thing which we do not perceive. And hence,
-I think, those philosophers who hold that our own observations give
-us no reason whatever for any generalisation whatever concerning
-the connection of any of them with those of other people, are quite
-right in concluding that we have no reason to assert that any other
-person ever did have any particular thought or perception whatever. I
-think that the words of this conclusion, understood in their natural
-meaning, express precisely what the premiss asserts. We need not,
-indeed, conclude, as many of these philosophers are inclined to do,
-that, because we have no reason for believing in the existence of other
-people, it is therefore highly doubtful whether they do exist. The
-philosophers who advocate this opinion commonly refute themselves by
-assigning the existence of other people as part of their reason for
-believing that it is very doubtful whether any other people exist. That
-for which we have no reason may, nevertheless, be certainly true. And,
-indeed, one of the philosophers who hold most clearly and expressly
-that we do know not only the existence of other people but also that
-of material objects, is also one of those who deny most emphatically
-that our own observations can give any reason for believing either
-in the one or in the other. I refer to Thomas Reid. Reid, indeed,
-allows himself to use not only the word "observe," but even the word
-"perceive," in that wide sense in which it might be said that we
-observe or perceive the thoughts and feelings of others: and I think
-that the fact that he uses the words in this sense, has misled him into
-thinking that his view is more plausible and more in accordance with
-Common Sense than it really is: by using the words in this sense he is
-able to plead<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_58" id="Page_58">[Pg 58]</a></span> that "observation" really does give a reason for some of
-those generalisations, for which Common Sense holds that "observation"
-(in a narrower sense) does give a reason. But with regard to what we
-observe or perceive, in the strict sense to which 1 am confining those
-words, he asserts quite explicitly that it gives us no reason either
-for believing in the existence of material objects or for believing
-in the existence of other minds. Berkeley, he says, has proved
-incontrovertibly that it gives us no reason for the one, and Hume that
-it gives us no reason for the other.</p>
-
-<p>Now these philosophers may be right in holding this. It may, perhaps,
-be true that, in this sense, my own observations give me no reason
-whatever for believing that any other person ever has or will perceive
-anything like or unlike what I perceive. But I think it is desirable
-we should realise how paradoxical are the consequences which must be
-admitted, if this is true. It must then be admitted that the very
-large part of our knowledge, which we suppose to have some basis in
-experience, is by no means based upon experience, in the sense, and
-to the extent, which we suppose. We do for instance, commonly suppose
-that there is some basis in experience for the assertion that some
-people, whom we call Germans, use one set of words to express much the
-same meaning which we express by using a different set of words. But,
-if this view be correct, we must admit that no person's experience
-gives him any reason whatever for supposing that, when he hears certain
-words, any one else has ever heard or thought of the same words, or
-meant anything by them. The view admits, indeed, that I do know that
-when I hear certain words, somebody else has generally had thoughts
-more or less similar to those which I suppose him to have had: but it
-denies that my own observations could<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_59" id="Page_59">[Pg 59]</a></span> ever give me the least reason
-for supposing that this is so. It admits that my own observations may
-give me reason for supposing that <i>if</i> anyone has ever had perceptions
-like mine in some respects, he will also have had other perceptions
-like others of mine: but it denies that they give me any reason for
-supposing that any one else has had a perception like one of mine. It
-admits that my own observations may give me reason for supposing that
-certain perceptions and thoughts in <i>one</i> person (<i>if</i> they exist) will
-be followed or preceded by certain other perceptions and thoughts in
-that person: but it denies that they give me any reason whatever for
-<i>any</i> similar generalisation concerning the connection of a certain
-kind of perception in one person with a certain kind of perception in
-another. It admits that I should not have certain perceptions, which
-I do have, unless someone else had had certain other perceptions; but
-it denies that my own observations can give me any reason for saying
-so&mdash;for saying that I should not have had this perception, unless
-someone else had had that. No observations of mine, it holds, can ever
-render it probable that such a generalisation is true; no observation
-of mine can ever confirm or verify such a generalisation. If we are to
-say that any such generalisation whatever is based upon observation,
-we can only mean, what Reid means, that it is based on a series of
-assumptions. When I observe this particular thing, I assume that <i>that</i>
-particular thing, which I do not observe, exists; when I observe
-another particular thing, I again assume that a second particular
-thing, which I do not observe, exists; when I observe a third
-particular thing, I again assume that a third particular thing, which I
-do not observe, exists. These assumed facts&mdash;the assumed fact that one
-observation of mine is accompanied by the existence of one particular
-kind<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_60" id="Page_60">[Pg 60]</a></span> of thing, and that another observation of mine is accompanied by
-the existence of a different particular kind of thing, will then give
-me a reason for different generalisations concerning the connection of
-different perceptions of mine with different external objects&mdash;objects
-which I do not perceive. But (it is maintained) nothing but a mass of
-such assumptions will give me a reason for any such generalisation.</p>
-
-<p>Now I think it must be admitted that there is something paradoxical
-in such a view. I think it may be admitted that, in holding it, the
-philosopher of Common Sense departs from Common Sense at least as far
-in one direction as his opponents had done in another. But I think
-that there is some excuse for those who hold it: I think that, in one
-respect, they are more in the right than those who do not hold it&mdash;than
-those who hold that my own observations do give me a reason for
-believing in the existence of other people. For those who hold that my
-observations do give me a reason, have, I believe, universally supposed
-that the reason lies in a part of my observations, in which no such
-reason is to be found. This is why I have chosen to ask the question:
-<i>What</i> reason do my observations give me for believing that any other
-person has any particular perceptions or beliefs? I wish to consider
-<i>which</i> among the things which I observe will give such a reason. For
-this is a question to which no answer, that I have ever seen, appears
-to me to be correct. Those who have asked it have, so far as I know,
-answered it <i>either</i> by denying that my observations give me any reason
-<i>or</i> by pointing to a part of my observations, which, as it seems to
-me, really do give none. Those who deny are, it seems to me, right in
-holding that the reason given by those who affirm is no reason. And
-their correct opinion on this point will, I think, partly serve to<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_61" id="Page_61">[Pg 61]</a></span>
-explain their denial. They have supposed that if our observations give
-us any reason at all for asserting the existence of other people, that
-reason must lie where it has been supposed to lie by those who hold
-that they do give a reason. And then, finding that this assigned reason
-is no reason, they have assumed that there is no other.</p>
-
-<p>I am proposing then to ask: Which among the observations, which I make,
-and which (as we commonly suppose) are similar in kind to those which
-all or almost all men make, will give a reason for supposing that the
-existence of any of them is generally connected with the existence of
-certain kinds of perception or belief in other people? And in order to
-answer this question, it is obvious we must first consider two others.
-We must consider, in the first place: Of what nature must observations
-be, if they are to give a reason for any generalisation asserting that
-the existence of one kind of thing is generally connected with that of
-another? And we must consider in the second place: What kinds of things
-do we observe?</p>
-
-<p>Now to the first of these questions I am not going to attempt to give
-a complete answer. The question concerning the rules of Inductive
-Logic, which is the question at issue, is an immensely difficult and
-intricate question. And I am not going to attempt to say, what kind of
-observations are <i>sufficient</i> to justify a generalisation. But it is
-comparatively easy to point out that a certain kind of observations are
-<i>necessary</i> to justify a generalisation: and this is all that I propose
-to do. I wish to point out certain conditions which observations must
-satisfy, if they are to justify a generalisation; without in any way
-implying that all observations which do satisfy these conditions,
-<i>will</i> justify a generalisation. The conditions, I shall mention, are
-ones which are certainly <i>not</i> sufficient to justify<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_62" id="Page_62">[Pg 62]</a></span> a generalisation;
-but they are, I think, conditions, without which no generalisation can
-be justified. If a particular kind of observations do <i>not</i> satisfy
-these conditions, we can say with certainty that those observations
-give us <i>no</i> reason for believing in the existence of other people;
-though, with regard to observations which <i>do</i> satisfy them, we shall
-only be able to say that they <i>may</i> give a reason.</p>
-
-<p>What conditions, then, must observations satisfy, if they are to
-justify a generalisation? Let us suppose that the generalisation to
-be justified is one which asserts that the existence of a kind of
-object, which we will call A, is generally preceded, accompanied, or
-followed by the existence of a kind of object, which we call B. A, for
-instance, might be the hearing of a certain word by one person, and B
-the thought of that which we call the meaning of the word, in another
-person; and the generalisation to be justified might be that when one
-person hears a word, not spoken by himself, someone else has generally
-thought of the meaning of that word. What must I have observed, if the
-generalisation that the existence of A is generally preceded by the
-existence of B, is to be justified by my observations? One first point,
-I think, is plain. I must have observed both some object, which is in
-some respects like A, and which I will call <i>α</i>, and also some object
-in some respects like B which I will call <i>β</i>: I must have observed
-both <i>α</i> and <i>β</i>, and also I must have observed <i>β</i> preceding <i>α.</i>
-This, at least, I must have observed. But I do not pretend to say <i>how</i>
-like <i>α</i> and <i>β</i> must be to A and B; nor do I pretend to say how often
-I must have observed <i>β</i> preceding <i>α</i>, although it is generally held
-that I must have observed this more than once. These are questions,
-which would have to be discussed if we were trying to discover what
-observations were <i>sufficient</i> to justify the generalisation that the
-existence of A is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_63" id="Page_63">[Pg 63]</a></span> generally preceded by that of B. But I am only
-trying to lay down the minimum which is <i>necessary</i> to justify this
-generalisation; and therefore I am content to say that we must have
-observed something more or less like B preceding something more or less
-like A, at least once.</p>
-
-<p>But there is yet another minimum condition. If my observation of <i>β</i>
-preceding <i>α</i> is to justify the generalisation that the <i>existence</i> of
-A is generally preceded by the <i>existence</i> of B, it is plain, I think,
-that both the <i>β</i> and the <i>α,</i> which I observed, must have <i>existed</i>
-or been <i>real</i>; and that also the existence of <i>β</i> must <i>really</i> have
-preceded that of <i>α</i>. It is plain that if, when I observed <i>α</i> and
-<i>β</i>, <i>α</i> existed but <i>β</i> did not, this observation could give me no
-reason to suppose that on another occasion when A existed, <i>β</i> <i>would</i>
-exist. Or again, if, when I observed <i>β</i> preceding <i>α</i>, both <i>β</i> and
-<i>α</i> existed, but the existence of <i>β</i> did not <i>really</i> precede that of
-α, but, on the contrary, followed it, this observation could certainly
-give me no reason to suppose that, in general, the existence of A was
-<i>preceded</i> by the existence of B. Indeed this condition that what is
-observed must have been <i>real</i> might be said to be included in the very
-meaning of the word "observation." We should, in this connection, say
-that we had <i>not</i> observed <i>β</i> preceding <i>α,</i> unless <i>β</i> and <i>α</i> were
-both real, and <i>β</i> had really preceded <i>α.</i> If I say "I have <i>observed</i>
-that, on one occasion, my hearing of the word 'moon' was followed by
-my imagining a luminous silvery disc," I commonly mean to include in
-my statement the assertion that I did, on that occasion, really hear
-the word "moon," and really did have a visual image of a luminous
-disc, and that my perception was really followed by my imagination.
-If it were proved to me that this had not really happened, I should
-admit that I had not really observed it. But though this condition<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_64" id="Page_64">[Pg 64]</a></span>
-that, if observation is to give reason for a generalisation, what is
-observed must be real, may thus be said to be implied in the very
-word "observation," it was necessary for me to mention the condition
-explicitly. It was necessary, because, as I shall presently show,
-we do and must also use the word "observation" in a sense in which
-the assertion "I observe A" by no means includes the assertion "A
-exists"&mdash;in a sense in which it <i>may</i> be true that though I did observe
-A, yet A did <i>not</i> exist.</p>
-
-<p>But there is also, I think, a third necessary condition which is very
-apt to be overlooked. It may, perhaps, be allowed that observation
-gives some reason for the proposition that hens' eggs are generally
-laid by hens. I do not mean to say that any one man's observation can
-give a reason for this proposition: I do not assume either that it can
-or that it cannot. Nor do I mean to make any assumption as to what
-must be meant by the words "hens" and "eggs," if this proposition is
-to be true. I am quite willing to allow for the moment that if it is
-true at all, we must understand by "hens" and "eggs," objects very
-unlike that which we directly observe, when we see a hen in a yard, or
-an egg on the breakfast-table. I am willing to allow the possibility
-that, as some Idealists would say, the proposition "Hens lay eggs" is
-false, unless we mean by it: A certain kind of collection of spirits or
-monads sometimes has a certain intelligible relation to another kind of
-collection of spirits or monads. I am willing to allow the possibility
-that, as Reid and some scientists would say, the proposition "Hens
-lay eggs" is false, if we mean by it anything more than that: Certain
-configurations of invisible material particles sometimes have a certain
-spatio-temporal relation to another kind of configuration of invisible
-material particles. Or again I am willing to allow, with certain
-other philosophers,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_65" id="Page_65">[Pg 65]</a></span> that we must, if it is to be true, interpret
-this proposition as meaning that certain kinds of sensations have to
-certain other kinds a relation which may be expressed by saying that
-the one kind of sensations "lay" the other kind. Or again, as other
-philosophers say, the proposition "Hens lay eggs" may possibly mean:
-Certain sensations of mine <i>would</i>, under certain conditions, have to
-certain other sensations of mine a relation which may be expressed by
-saying that the one set would "lay" the other set. But whatever the
-proposition "Hens' eggs are generally laid by hens" may <i>mean</i>, most
-philosophers would, I think, allow that, in some sense or other, this
-proposition was true. And they would also I think allow that we have
-<i>some</i> reason for it; and that <i>part</i> of this reason at all events lies
-in observation: they would allow that we should have no reason for it
-unless certain things had been observed, which have been observed.
-Few, I think, would say that the existence of an egg "intrinsically
-points" to that of a hen, in such a sense that, even if we had had no
-experience of any kind concerning the manner in which objects like eggs
-are connected with animals like hens, the mere inspection of an egg
-would justify the assertion: A hen has probably existed.</p>
-
-<p>I assume, then, that objects having all the characteristics which
-hens' eggs have (whatever these may be) are generally laid by hens
-(whatever hens may be); and I assume that, if we have any reason
-for this generalisation at all, observation gives us some reason
-for it. But now, let us suppose that the only observations we had
-made were those which we should commonly describe by saying that we
-had seen a hen laying an egg. I do not say that any number of such
-observations, by themselves, would be <i>sufficient</i> to justify our
-generalisation: I think it is plain that they would not. But let us
-suppose,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_66" id="Page_66">[Pg 66]</a></span> for the moment, that we had observed nothing else which bore
-upon the connection between hens and eggs; and that, if therefore
-our generalisation was justified by any observations at all, it was
-justified by these. We are supposing, then, that the observations
-which we describe as "seeing hens lay eggs" give some reason for the
-generalisation that eggs of that kind are generally laid by hens. And
-if these observations give reason for this, obviously <i>in a sense</i>
-they give reason for the generalisation that the existence of such an
-egg is generally preceded by that of a hen; and hence also, they give
-us reason to suppose that if such an egg exists, a hen has probably
-existed also&mdash;that unless a hen had existed, the egg would not have
-existed. But the point to which I wish to call attention is that it
-is <i>only</i> in a limited sense that they do give reason for this. They
-only give us reason to suppose that, for each egg, there has existed a
-hen, which was at some time <i>near</i> the place where the egg in question
-then was, and which existed at a time <i>near</i> to that at which the egg
-began to exist. The only kind of hens, whose existence they do give us
-reason to suppose, are hens, of which each was at some time in spatial
-and temporal proximity (or, if Idealists prefer, in the relations which
-are the "intelligible counterparts" of these) to an egg. They give us
-no information at all about the existence of hens (if there are any)
-which never came within a thousand miles of an egg, or which were dead
-a thousand years before any egg existed. That is to say, they <i>do</i>
-give us reason to suppose that, if a particular egg exists, there has
-probably existed a hen which was at some time <i>near</i> that egg; but
-they give us no reason to suppose that, if a particular egg exists,
-there must have existed a hen which never came near that egg. They
-<i>do</i> give us reason to suppose that, for each egg, there has probably
-existed a hen<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_67" id="Page_67">[Pg 67]</a></span> which at some time stood to the egg in question in that
-relation which we have observed to hold between an egg and a hen, when
-we observed the hen laying an egg. But they give us no reason to infer
-from the existence of an egg any other kind of hen: any hen which
-<i>never</i> stood to the egg in the relation in which we have observed that
-some hens do stand to eggs.</p>
-
-<p>What I wish to suggest is that this condition is a universal condition
-for sound inductions. If the observation of β preceding <i>α</i> can ever
-give us any reason at all for supposing that the existence of A is
-generally preceded by that of B, it can at most only give us reason
-to suppose that the existence of an A is generally preceded by that
-of a B <i>which stands to our A in the same relation in which</i>β <i>has
-been observed to stand to</i> α. It cannot give the least reason for
-supposing that the existence of an A must have been preceded by that
-of a B, which did <i>not</i> stand to A in the observed relation, but in
-some quite different one. If we are to have any reason to infer from
-the existence of an A the existence of such a B, the reason must lie in
-some different observations. That this is so, in the case of hens' eggs
-and hens, is, I think, obvious: and, if the rule is <i>not</i> universal,
-some reason should at least be given for supposing that it does apply
-in one case and not in another.</p>
-
-<p>Having thus attempted to point out some conditions which seem to be
-necessary, though not <i>sufficient</i>, where observation is to give any
-reason for a generalisation, I may now proceed to my second preliminary
-question. What kinds of things do we observe?</p>
-
-<p>In order to illustrate how much and how little I mean by "observation"
-or "direct perception," I will take as an instance a very common
-visual perception. Most of us are familiar with the<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_68" id="Page_68">[Pg 68]</a></span> experience which
-we should describe by saying that we had seen a red book and a blue
-book side by side upon a shelf. What exactly can we be said to observe
-or directly perceive when we have such an experience? We certainly
-observe one colour, which we call blue, and a different colour, which
-we call red; each of these we observe as having a particular size and
-shape; and we observe also these two coloured patches as having to one
-another the spatial relation which we express by saying they are side
-by side. All this we certainly see or directly perceive <i>now,</i> whatever
-may have been the process by which we have come to perceive so much.
-But when we say, as in ordinary talk we should, that the objects we
-perceive are <i>books,</i> we certainly mean to ascribe to them properties,
-which, in a sense which we all understand, are not actually seen by
-us, at the moment when we are merely looking at two books on a shelf
-two yards off. And all such properties I mean to exclude as not being
-then <i>observed</i> or <i>directly perceived</i> by us. When I speak of what
-we <i>observe,</i> when we see two books on a shelf, I mean to limit the
-expression to that which is <i>actually seen.</i> And, thus understood, the
-expression does include colours, and the size and shape of colours, and
-spatial relations in three dimensions between these patches of colour,
-but it includes nothing else.</p>
-
-<p>But I am also using observation in a sense in which we can be said
-actually to observe a movement. We commonly say that we can sometimes
-<i>see</i> a red billiard ball moving towards a white one on a green table.
-And, here again, I do not mean to include in what is directly perceived
-or observed, all that we mean by saying that the two objects perceived
-are billiard-balls. But I do mean to include what (we should say) we
-<i>actually see.</i> We actually see a more or less round red patch moving<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_69" id="Page_69">[Pg 69]</a></span>
-towards a more or less round white patch; we <i>see</i> the stretch of green
-between them diminishing in size. And this perception is not merely the
-same as a series of perceptions&mdash;first a perception of a red patch with
-a green stretch of one size between it and the white; then a perception
-of a red patch with a green stretch of a different size between it and
-the white; and so on. In order to perceive a movement we must have a
-different perception from any one of these or from the sum of them. We
-must <i>actually see</i> the green stretch diminishing in size.</p>
-
-<p>Now it is undoubtedly difficult, in some instances, to decide precisely
-what is perceived in this sense and what is not. But I hope I have
-said enough to show that I am using "perceive" and "observe" in a
-sense in which, on a given occasion, it is easy to decide that <i>some</i>
-things certainly are perceived, and other things, as certainly, are
-not perceived. I am using it in a sense in which we do perceive such
-a complex object as a white patch moving towards a red one on a green
-field; but I am not using it in any sense in which we could be said to
-"perceive" or "observe" that what we saw moving was a billiard-ball.
-And in the same way I think we can distinguish roughly between what,
-on any given occasion, we perceive, as we say, "by any one of the
-other senses," and what we do not perceive by it. We can say with
-certainty that, on any given occasion, there are certain kinds of
-"content" which we are actually hearing, and others which we are <i>not</i>
-actually hearing; though with regard to some again it is difficult to
-say whether we are actually hearing them or not. And similarly we can
-distinguish with certainty in some instances, between what we are on
-a given occasion, actually smelling or feeling, and what we are not
-actually smelling or feeling.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_70" id="Page_70">[Pg 70]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>But now, besides these kinds of "things," "objects," or "contents,"
-which we perceive, as we say, "by the senses," there is also another
-kind which we can be said to observe. Not only can I observe a red and
-blue book side by side; I can also observe myself observing them. I can
-perceive a red patch moving towards a white, and I can also perceive my
-perception of this movement. And what I wish to make as plain as I can
-is that my perception of the movement of a coloured patch can at least
-be distinguished from that movement itself. I wish to make it plain
-that to observe a coloured patch moving is to observe one thing; and
-to observe myself observing a coloured patch moving is another. When
-I observe my own perception of a movement, I observe something <i>more</i>
-than when I merely observe the movement, and something very different
-from the movement. I may perceive a red and a blue book side by side on
-a shelf; and at another time I may perceive a red ball moving towards a
-white. The red and blue patch, of one shape, at rest side by side, are
-different from the red, of another shape, moving towards the white; and
-yet, when I say that both are "perceived," I mean by "perceived" one
-and the same thing. And since, thus, two different things may both be
-perceived, there must also be some difference between each of them and
-what is meant by saying that it is perceived. Indeed, in precisely the
-same way In which I may observe a spatial relation between a red patch
-and a blue (when I observe them "side by side") I do, when I observe my
-own perception of them, observe a spatial relation between it and them.
-I observe a distance between my perception and the red and blue books
-which I perceive, comparable in magnitude with the breadth or height
-of the blue book, just as these are comparable in magnitude with one
-another. And<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_71" id="Page_71">[Pg 71]</a></span> when I say I observe a distance between my perception
-of a red book and that red book itself, I do not mean that I observe
-a distance between my eyes, or any other part of what I call my body,
-and the red patch in question. I am talking not of my eyes, but of my
-actual perception. I observe my perception of a book to be near the
-book and further from the table, in exactly the same sense in which I
-observe the book to be near the shelf on which it stands, and further
-from the table. And just as, if the distance between a red patch and
-a white is to be perceived, the red patch must be different from the
-white, so, if I perceive a certain distance between my perception and
-the red patch, my perception must be different from the red patch which
-I perceive.</p>
-
-<p>I assume, then, that we observe, on the one hand, coloured patches of
-certain shapes and sizes, and their spatial relations to one another,
-together with all the other kinds of "contents," which we should
-usually be said to perceive "through the senses." And, on the other
-hand, we also sometimes observe our own perceptions of such "contents"
-and our thoughts. And these two kinds of "content" are different from
-one another: my perception of a red patch with gold letters on it,
-is not itself a red patch with gold letters on it; and hence, when I
-observe my perception of this patch, I observe something different from
-that which I observe when I merely perceive the patch. Either of these
-two kinds of "content"&mdash;either colours, moving or at rest, sounds,
-smells, and all the rest&mdash;or, on the other hand, my perceptions of
-these&mdash;either of these two kinds, or both, might conceivably, since
-both are observed, give grounds for a generalisation concerning what
-exists. But, as I have said, if observations are to give any ground
-for such a generalisation, it must be assumed that what Is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_72" id="Page_72">[Pg 72]</a></span> observed
-<i>exists</i> or is <i>real.</i> And since, as I have insisted, when I observe
-my <i>perception</i> of a red patch with gold letters on it, I observe
-something different from what I observed when I merely observed a red
-patch with gold letters on it, it follows that to assume the existence
-of my perception of this red and gold is <i>not</i> the same thing as to
-assume the existence of the red and gold itself.</p>
-
-<p>But what, it may be asked, do I mean by this property of "existence" or
-"reality," which may, it would seem, belong to every content, which I
-observe, or may again belong to none, or which may belong to some and
-not to others? What is this property which may belong to my perception
-of a movement, and yet not belong to the movement perceived, or which
-may again belong to the movement perceived and not to my perception of
-it, or which may again belong to both or to neither?</p>
-
-<p>It is necessary, I think, to ask this question at this point, because
-there are some philosophers who hold that, in the case of some kinds
-of "content," at all events, to say that they "exist" is to say that
-they are "perceived." Some hold that to say "A exists" is to say
-neither more nor less than "A is perceived"&mdash;that the two expressions
-are perfect synonyms; and others again would say that by "A exists
-or is real" we may mean <i>more</i> than that "A is perceived," but that
-we must at least mean this. Now, I have hitherto used the word
-"existence" pretty freely, and I think that, when I used it, I used
-it in its ordinary sense. I think it will generally have suggested to
-you precisely what I meant to convey, and I think that, in some cases
-at all events, it will not even have occurred to you to doubt whether
-you did understand what I meant by it. But, if these philosophers are
-right, then, if you <i>have</i> understood what I meant by it, I have all
-along been using it in a sense, which renders the end of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_73" id="Page_73">[Pg 73]</a></span> my last
-paragraph perfect nonsense. If these philosophers are right, then, when
-I assert that what <i>is</i> perceived may yet <i>not</i> exist, I am really
-asserting that what <i>is</i> perceived may yet <i>not</i> be perceived&mdash;I am
-contradicting myself. I am, of course, quite unaware that I am doing
-so. But these philosophers would say <i>either</i> you are contradicting
-yourself, <i>or</i> you are not using the word "exists" in its ordinary
-sense. And either of these alternatives would be fatal to my purpose.
-If I am not using the word in its ordinary sense, then I shall not be
-understood by anyone; and, if I am contradicting myself, then what I
-say will not be worth understanding.</p>
-
-<p>Now, with one class of these philosophers&mdash;the class to which, I
-think, Berkeley belongs&mdash;I think I can put myself right comparatively
-easily. The philosophers I mean are those who say that it is only in
-the case of one particular class of "contents" (the kind of "content"
-which Berkeley calls "ideas") that to say "the 'content' A exists"
-is to say "A is perceived," and who admit that in the case of other
-contents&mdash;myself and my perceptions and thoughts, for example&mdash;to say
-that <i>these</i> exist or are real, is to say of them something different
-from this. These philosophers admit, that is to say, that the word
-"exists" has two different senses: and that in only one of these senses
-is it synonymous with the words "is perceived." When (they hold) I
-say of such a content as a red patch with gold letters on it that
-it "exists" I <i>do</i> mean that it is perceived; but when I say of my
-<i>perception</i> of such a patch that <i>it</i> exists, I do <i>not</i> mean that
-my perception is perceived but something different from this. Now, it
-would be nothing strange that one and the same word should be used in
-two different senses; many words are used in many different senses.
-But it would, I think, be something very strange indeed, if in the
-case of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_74" id="Page_74">[Pg 74]</a></span> a word which we constantly apply to all sorts of different
-objects, we should uniformly apply it to one large class of object in
-the one sense and the one sense only and the other large class in the
-other sense and the other sense only. Usually, in the case of such
-ambiguous words, it happens that, in different contexts, we apply it
-to one and the same object in <i>both</i> senses. We sometimes wish to
-say of a given object that it has the one property, and sometimes we
-wish to say of the same object that it has the other property; and
-hence we apply the same word to the same object, at one time in one
-sense, and at another in the other. I think, therefore, that, even
-if there were these two different senses of the word "existence," it
-would be very unlikely that we should not commonly, in some contexts,
-apply it in the sense, in which (as is alleged) it does apply to
-perceptions, to "contents" which are not perceptions. Indeed, I think,
-it is quite plain that we constantly do ask, with regard to what is
-not a perception, whether <i>it</i> exists, in precisely the same sense,
-in which we ask, with regard to a perception, whether <i>it</i> exists. We
-ask in precisely the same sense: Was the Roc a real bird, or merely an
-imaginary one? and, did Sindbad's perception of the Roc really exist,
-or is it a fiction that he perceived a Roc? I think, therefore, that
-the sense in which these philosophers admit that we do apply the word
-"existence" to perceptions, is one in which we also commonly apply it
-to "contents" other than perceptions. But, even if this is not the
-case, I can set myself right with them by a simple explanation. I
-need merely explain that the sense in which I am proposing to enquire
-whether a red patch exists, is precisely the sense in which they admit
-that my perception of a red patch does exist. And in this sense, it is
-plain that to suppose that a thing may exist, which is not<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_75" id="Page_75">[Pg 75]</a></span> perceived,
-or that it may <i>not</i> exist, although it is perceived, is at least not
-self-contradictory.</p>
-
-<p>But there may be other philosophers who will say that, in the case of
-a perception also, to say that it exists or is real is to say that
-it is perceived&mdash;either that alone or something more as well. And to
-these philosophers I would first point out that they are admitting
-that the proposition "This perception is real" is significant. There
-is some sense or other in which we may say: "Alexander's perception of
-an elephant was real or did exist, but Sindbad's perception of a Roc
-was <i>not</i> real&mdash;never did exist": the latter proposition is, in some
-sense or other, not self-contradictory. And then I would ask of them:
-When they say, that to call a perception "real" is to assert that it
-is perceived, do they mean by this that to call it real is to assert
-that it is <i>really</i> perceived, or not? If they say "No," then they are
-asserting that to call a perception "real" is merely to say that it was
-perceived in the sense in which Sindbad <i>did</i> perceive a Roc: they are
-asserting that to call it "real" is not to say, in any sense, that it
-was <i>really</i> perceived: they are asserting that to call a perception
-"real" is to say that it was perceived, in some sense quite other than
-that in which we ordinarily use the word: for we certainly commonly
-mean, when we say "A was perceived," that a perception of A was "real":
-we should commonly say that Sindbad did <i>not</i> perceive a Roc&mdash;meaning
-that no such perception ever did exist. I do not think they do mean
-this; and, in any case, if they do, I think it is plain that they
-are wrong. When we say that a perception is "real," we certainly do
-not mean merely that it is the object of another perception, which
-may itself be quite unreal&mdash;purely Imaginary. I assume, therefore,
-that when they say: To call a perception "real" is to say that it is
-perceived; they mean, what we should naturally<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_76" id="Page_76">[Pg 76]</a></span> understand, namely,
-that: To call it "real" is to say that it is <i>really</i> perceived&mdash;to say
-that it is the object of another perception, which is also <i>real</i> in
-the same sense. And, if they mean this, then what they say is certainly
-untrue. Their definition of reality is circular. It cannot be the case
-that the <i>only</i> sense in which a perception may be said to be real, is
-one in which to call it so is to assert that not it alone, but another
-perception is real also. It cannot be the case that the assertion "A is
-real" is <i>identical</i> with the assertion "A and B are both real," where
-A and B are different, and "real" is used in the same sense as applied
-to both. If it is to be true that the assertion "A is real" <i>ever</i>, in
-any sense, includes the assertion "A is <i>really</i> perceived," there must
-be another sense of the word "real," in which to assert "A is real" is
-to assert <i>less</i> than "A is <i>really</i> perceived"&mdash;the sense, namely, in
-which we here assert that the <i>perception</i> of A is real.</p>
-
-<p>We find, therefore, that the other class of philosophers were at least
-right in this: they were right in allowing that the sense in which
-we commonly say that our perceptions exist is one in which "exist"
-does not include, even as a part of its meaning, "is perceived." We
-find that there is a common sense of the word "existence," in which
-to say "A exists" must mean <i>less</i> than "A is <i>really</i> perceived":
-since, otherwise, the only possible definition of the word "existence"
-would be a circular definition. And I may point out that two other
-definitions, which have been sometimes suggested by philosophers as
-giving what we commonly mean by "reality" or "existence" are vitiated
-by the same fault&mdash;they also are circular. Some philosophers have
-sometimes suggested that when we call a thing "real," we mean that it
-is "systematically connected" in some way with other things. But,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_77" id="Page_77">[Pg 77]</a></span>
-when we look into their meaning, we find that what they mean is (what,
-indeed, is alone plausible)&mdash;systematically connected with other
-<i>real</i> things. And it may possibly be the case that we sometimes use
-the word "real" in this sense: but, at least, it must be certainly
-the case, that, if we do, we <i>also</i> use it in another and simpler
-sense&mdash;the sense in which it is employed in the proposed definition.
-And other philosophers have suggested that what we mean by "real"
-is&mdash;"connected in some way with a purpose&mdash;helping or hindering,
-or the object of a purpose." But if we look into their meaning, we
-find they mean&mdash;connected with a <i>real</i> purpose. And hence, even if
-we do sometimes mean by "real," "connected with a <i>real</i> purpose,"
-it is plain we also sometimes mean by "real" something simpler than
-this&mdash;that namely, which is meant by "real" in the proposed definition.</p>
-
-<p>It is certain, therefore, that we do commonly use the word "existence"
-in a sense, in which to say "A exists" is <i>not</i> to say "A is
-perceived," or "A is systematically connected with other real things,"
-or "A is purposive." There is a simpler sense than any of these&mdash;the
-sense in which we say that our own perceptions do exist, and that
-Sindbad's perceptions did not exist. But when I say this, I am by no
-means denying that what exists, in this simple sense, may not always
-<i>also</i> exist in all the others; and that what exists in any of them
-may not <i>also</i> always exist in this. It is quite possible that what
-exists is always <i>also</i> perceived, and that what is perceived always
-<i>also</i> exists. All that I am saying is that, even if this is so, this
-proposition is significant&mdash;is not merely a proposition about the
-meaning of a word. It is not self-contradictory to suppose that some
-things which exist are not perceived, and that some things which are
-perceived do not exist.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_78" id="Page_78">[Pg 78]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>But, it may be asked: What is this common simple sense of the word
-"exists"? For my own part, it seems to me to be so simple that it
-cannot be expressed in other words, except those which are recognised
-as its synonyms. I think we are all perfectly familiar with its
-meaning: it is the meaning which you understood me to have throughout
-this paper, until I began this discussion. I think we can perceive at
-once what is meant by asserting that my perception of black marks on a
-white ground is "real," and that no such perception as Sindbad's of a
-Roc was ever "real": we are perfectly familiar with the property which
-the one perception is affirmed to possess, and the other to be without.
-And I think, as I have said, that this property is a simple one. But,
-whatever it is, this, which we ordinarily mean, is what I mean by
-"existence" or "reality." And this property, we have seen, is certainly
-neither identical with nor inclusive of that complex one which we mean
-by the words "is perceived."</p>
-
-<p>I may now, then, at last approach the main question of my paper.
-Which among the "contents" which I observe will give me reason to
-suppose that my observation of some of them is generally preceded
-or accompanied or followed by the existence of certain particular
-perceptions, thoughts or feelings in another person? I have explained
-that the "contents" which I actually observe may be divided into two
-classes: on the one hand, those which, as we commonly say, we perceive
-"through the senses"; and, on the other hand, my perceptions of these
-last, my thoughts, and my feelings. I have explained that if any
-of these observed contents are to give reason for a generalisation
-about what exists, <i>they</i> must exist. And I have explained that with
-regard to both classes of "contents" I am using the word "exist" in
-precisely the same sense&mdash;a sense,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_79" id="Page_79">[Pg 79]</a></span> in which it is certainly not
-self-contradictory to suppose that what <i>is</i> perceived, does not exist,
-and that what is <i>not</i> perceived, does exist; and, in which, therefore,
-the assumption that a red patch with gold letters on it exists, is a
-<i>different</i> assumption from the assumption that my <i>perception</i> of
-a red patch with gold letters on it exists; and the assumption that
-my <i>perception</i> of a red patch with gold letters on it exists, is a
-<i>different</i> assumption from the assumption that a red patch with gold
-letters on it exists.</p>
-
-<p>What, then, that we observe, can give us any reason for believing that
-anyone else has certain particular perceptions, thoughts or feelings?
-It has, I think, been very commonly assumed that the observation of
-my own perceptions, thoughts, and feelings, can, by itself, give me
-such a reason. And I propose, therefore, to examine this assumption.
-If, as I hope to show, it is false; it will then follow, that if our
-own observation gives us any reason whatever, for believing in the
-existence of other persons, we must assume the existence, not only
-of our own perceptions, thoughts and feelings, but also of some, at
-least, among that other class of data, which I may now, for the sake of
-brevity, call "sense-contents"; we must assume that some of them exist,
-in precisely the same sense in which we assume that our perceptions,
-thoughts, and feelings exist.</p>
-
-<p>The theory which I propose to examine is, then, the following. My
-observation of my own thoughts, feelings, and perceptions may, it
-asserts, give me some reason to suppose that another person has
-thoughts, feelings, and perceptions similar to some of mine. Let us
-assume, accordingly, that my own thoughts, feelings, and perceptions
-do exist; but that none of the "sense-contents," which I also observe,
-do so. Where among my perceptions am<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_80" id="Page_80">[Pg 80]</a></span> I to look for any which might
-conceivably give me a reason for supposing the existence of other
-perceptions similar to my own? It is obvious where I must look. I have
-perceptions which I call perceptions of other people's bodies; and
-these are certainly similar in many respects to other perceptions of
-my own body. But I also observe that certain kinds of perceptions of
-my own body are preceded by certain other perceptions, thoughts, or
-feelings of mine. I may, for instance, observe that when I perceive
-my hand suddenly catch hold of my foot in a particular way, this
-perception was preceded by a particular kind of feeling of pain. I
-may, perhaps, observe this often enough to justify the generalisation
-that the perception of that particular motion of my body is generally
-preceded by that particular feeling of pain. And in this way I may
-perhaps have reason for quite a number of generalisations which assert
-that particular kinds of perceptions of my own body are generally
-preceded by other particular kinds of perceptions, thoughts, or
-feelings of my own.</p>
-
-<p>But I may also, no doubt, have the perception, which I call the
-perception of another person's hand catching hold of his foot, in a
-manner similar to that in which I have perceived my own hand catch
-hold of my own foot. And my perception of another person's hand
-catching hold of his foot may undoubtedly be similar in many respects
-to my perception of my own hand catching hold of my own foot. But
-I shall not observe the same kind of feeling of pain preceding my
-perception of <i>his</i> hand catching hold of his foot, which I have
-observed preceding my perception of <i>my</i> hand catching hold of my
-foot. Will my generalisation, then, give me any reason to suppose
-that nevertheless my perception of his hand catching hold of his foot
-<i>is</i> preceded by a similar feeling of pain, not in me but<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_81" id="Page_81">[Pg 81]</a></span> in him?
-We undoubtedly do assume that when I perceive another person's body
-making movements similar to those which I have observed my own body
-making, this perception has generally been preceded by some feeling or
-perception of his similar to that which I have observed to precede my
-perception of similar movements in my own body. We do assume this; and
-it is precisely the kind of generalisation, which, I have insisted,
-must be admitted to be true. But my present question is: Will such
-observations as I have described give any reason for thinking any
-such generalisation true? I think it is plain that they will not give
-the slightest reason for thinking so. In the first place, all the
-perceptions which I call perceptions of another person's body differ
-very considerably from any of those which I call perceptions of my
-own. But I am willing to waive this objection. I am not offering any
-theory as to what degree of likeness is <i>sufficient</i> to justify a
-generalisation: and therefore I will allow that the degree of likeness
-<i>may</i> be sufficient. But there remains an objection which is, I think,
-quite fatal to the proposed inference. This objection is that the
-inference in question plainly does not satisfy the third condition
-which I suggested above as <i>necessary</i>, wherever any generalisation
-is to be justified by observation. I am willing to allow that my
-observations of the fact that my perception of a certain movement in
-my own body is preceded by a certain feeling of pain, <i>will</i> justify
-the generalisation that my perception of any such movement, whether in
-my own body <i>or</i> in that of another person, is generally preceded by a
-similar feeling of pain. And I allow, therefore, that when I perceive a
-certain movement in another's body, it <i>is</i> probable that the feeling
-of pain exists, though I do not perceive it. But, if it <i>is</i> probable
-that such a feeling of pain<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_82" id="Page_82">[Pg 82]</a></span> exists, such a feeling must stand <i>in the
-same relation</i> to my perception of the movement in another person's
-body, in which a similar feeling of pain has been observed by me to
-stand to my perception of such a movement in my own body. That is to
-say the only kind of feeling of pain, which my observations do justify
-me in inferring, if (as I admit they may) they justify me in inferring
-any at all, is a feeling of pain of <i>my own.</i> They cannot possibly
-justify the belief in the existence of any such feeling <i>except</i> one
-which stands to my perception in the same relation in which my feelings
-do stand to <i>my</i> perceptions&mdash;one, that is to say, which is my own. I
-have no more reason to believe that the feeling of pain which probably
-precedes my perception of a movement in another person's body can be
-the feeling <i>of another person</i>, than, in my former example, I had
-reason to suppose that the hen, whose existence probably preceded that
-of a given egg, could be a hen, which had never been near the egg in
-question. The two cases are exactly analogous. I observe a feeling of
-pain <i>of my own</i> preceding a perception <i>of my own.</i> I observe the
-two, that is to say, as standing to one another, in those relations
-(whatever they may be) in which any perception of mine stands to any
-other thought, perception or feeling of mine, and which are, at all
-events, different from any relation in which a perception or feeling of
-another person can stand to one of mine. I never perceive the feeling
-and the perception as standing in any other relation. In any case,
-therefore, where I do observe something like the perception, but do
-not observe the feeling, I can only be justified (<i>if</i> justified in
-inferring any feeling at all), in inferring an unperceived feeling <i>of
-my own.</i></p>
-
-<p>For this reason I think that no observations of my own perceptions,
-feelings or thoughts can give me the slightest reason for supposing a
-connection<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_83" id="Page_83">[Pg 83]</a></span> between any of them and any feeling, perception, or thought
-in another person. The argument is perfectly general, since <i>all</i>
-my perceptions, feelings and thoughts do have to one another those
-relations in virtue of which I call them mine; and which, when I talk
-of a perception, feeling or thought as being <i>another persons</i>, I mean
-to say that it has <i>not</i> got to any of mine. I can, therefore, merely
-from observation of <i>this</i> class of data never obtain the slightest
-reason for belief in the existence of a feeling, perception, or thought
-which does <i>not</i> stand in these relations to one of mine&mdash;which <i>is,</i>
-that is to say, the feeling, perception or thought, of another person.
-But how different is the case, if we adopt the hypothesis, which I wish
-to recommend&mdash;if we assume the existence of that other class of data
-which I have called "sense-contents!" On this hypothesis, that which I
-perceive, when I perceive a movement of my own body, is <i>real</i>; that
-which I perceive when I perceive a movement of another's body is <i>real</i>
-also. I can now observe not merely the relation between my <i>perception</i>
-of a movement of my body and my own feelings, but also a relation
-between a <i>real</i> movement of my body and my own feelings. And there
-is no reason why I should not be justified in inferring that another
-person's feelings stand <i>in the same relation</i> to the real movements of
-his body, in which I observe my own feelings to stand to similar real
-movements of mine.</p>
-
-<p>But there is another argument which may still be urged by those who
-hold that my own perceptions, thoughts, and feelings, by themselves,
-may be sufficient to justify a belief in the existence of other
-persons. It may be said: "Our observation of our own perceptions may be
-sufficient to <i>verify</i> or <i>confirm</i> the hypothesis that other persons
-exist. This hypothesis is one which "works." The<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_84" id="Page_84">[Pg 84]</a></span> assumption that other
-persons have particular thoughts, feelings and perceptions enables us
-to predict that they will have others and that our own perceptions will
-be modified accordingly: it enables us to predict future perceptions of
-our own; and we find that these predictions are constantly verified.
-We observe that we do have the perceptions, which the hypothesis leads
-us to expect we should have. In short, our perceptions occur just as
-they would do, <i>if</i> the hypothesis were true; our perceptions behave
-<i>as if</i> other persons had the perceptions, thoughts and feelings which
-we suppose them to have. Surely, then, they confirm the truth of the
-hypothesis&mdash;they give some reason to think it probably true?"</p>
-
-<p>All this, which I have supposed an opponent to urge, I admit to be
-true. I admit that the fact that an hypothesis works may give some
-reason to suppose it true. I admit that my perceptions occur just as
-they would do, if other people had the perceptions which I suppose them
-to have. I admit that that assumption enables me to make predictions as
-to future perceptions of my own, and that I observe these predictions
-to come true. I admit all this. But I admit it only in a sense in
-which it in no way conflicts with the position which I am maintaining.
-The words, which I have put into the mouth of a supposed opponent,
-may, in fact, mean three different things, which it is worth while to
-distinguish. In two of those meanings, which I shall admit to be true
-and which are what make them seem plausible, they do not deny what I
-assert. Only in the third sense are they an objection to my position:
-and in that sense they are false.</p>
-
-<p>One of the meanings which I admit to be true is as follows:&mdash;I have not
-only admitted but insisted that some of my perceptions are just such
-as would occur if another person had certain particular<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_85" id="Page_85">[Pg 85]</a></span> feelings: I
-have insisted that I should not have just those perceptions which I do
-have, unless some other person had certain feelings and perceptions
-which I suppose him to have. And I admit further that the fact that I
-have one of the perceptions in question&mdash;for instance, that of another
-person's hand catching hold of his foot&mdash;this fact, <i>together with</i>
-the true assumption that I should not have this perception, unless
-some other person felt pain, will justify the assertion that another
-person has felt pain. In this sense, I admit, the fact that I perceive
-what I do perceive will give me reason to suppose that another person
-has felt pain. And, on the other hand, I also admit that the fact
-that I have this perception, <i>together with</i> the true assumption that
-when I have it another person has felt pain, may help to justify the
-assumption that the perception in question is one which I should not
-have had unless another person had felt pain&mdash;it helps to justify the
-generalisation that certain of my perceptions are just what would
-occur, <i>if</i> another person had felt pain. In general terms, that is to
-say, I admit that the occurrence of B, <i>together with</i> the assumption
-that B is just the sort of thing which would occur if A existed, will
-justify the assertion that A exists in that particular instance. And
-I also admit that the occurrence of B, <i>together with</i> the assumption
-that A exists in that particular instance, may help to justify the
-assumption that B is just the sort of thing which would exist, if A
-existed. In other words: When it is said that the observation of B's
-existence confirms or verifies the assumption that A exists, either of
-two things may be meant. It may be meant that, assuming B to be the
-sort of thing which would exist if A existed, the observation of B
-confirms the assumption that A exists <i>in this particular instance.</i>
-Or, on the other hand, it may be meant that, assuming<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_86" id="Page_86">[Pg 86]</a></span> A to exist
-in this particular instance, the observation of B may confirm the
-generalisation, that B is just the sort of thing which would exist,
-if A existed. <i>Either</i> the one <i>or</i> the other of these two things is,
-I think, what is generally assumed, when it is assumed that what we
-do observe confirms or verifies the assumption that there exists some
-particular thing which we don't observe. And I am admitting that both
-these assumptions are true.</p>
-
-<p>But neither of them conflicts in any way with the position I am
-maintaining. What I am maintaining is that no observation of my own
-perceptions, <i>by itself,</i> can confirm the generalisation that any one
-of them <i>is</i> just what would occur if another person had a particular
-feeling. I admit this generalisation to be true; and I admit that my
-observation of my own perceptions and feelings may give me <i>reason</i> to
-suppose that <i>if</i> another person has certain perceptions or feelings
-<i>he</i> will also have certain others. What I deny is that they give
-me the slightest reason to suppose that the existence of any such
-feeling or perception in another has any connection with the existence
-of any perception <i>of my own</i>&mdash;to suppose that any perception of my
-own is the sort of thing which would occur <i>if</i> another person had a
-particular feeling. What therefore, my opponent must affirm is that the
-observation of a perception of my own <i>without</i> the assumption (which
-Reid makes) that in that particular instance any feeling or perception
-of another person, of any kind whatever, has preceded it, may give me
-reason to suppose that that perception of my own is of a kind which is
-generally preceded by a particular kind of feeling in another person.
-And this, I think, is plainly false.</p>
-
-<p>But there is yet a third thing which may be meant, and which I
-am willing to admit may be true. It may be said: "I believe many
-generalisations of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_87" id="Page_87">[Pg 87]</a></span> the following kind. I believe that when I have
-a perception A, some other person has generally had a feeling X; I
-believe that the existence of the feeling X is generally followed, in
-the same person, by that of the feeling Y; and I believe also that
-when another person has the feeling Y, I generally have the perception
-B. I believe all this." And it must, I think, be admitted that we do
-believe generalisations of this kind, and generalisations in which
-there are not merely two steps between A and B, but a great number of
-steps. "But then," it may be said, "my belief in this generalisation
-causes me, when I observe my perception A, to expect that I shall have
-the perception B; and such expectations, I observe, are constantly
-realised." And this also, I think, must be admitted to be true. "But,
-finally," it may be said, "beliefs which produce expectations which
-are constantly realised are generally true. And hence the fact that
-these beliefs of mine about the connection of feelings in other persons
-with perceptions of my own do lead to expectations which are realised,
-gives me reason to suppose that these generalisations are true and
-hence that other persons do have particular kinds of feelings."
-And I am willing to admit that this also is true. I am willing to
-admit that true predictions can, as a rule, only be produced by true
-beliefs. The generalisation that this is so, is, indeed, one which
-can only be justified by the observations of beliefs, which are, in
-some way, independently proved to be true; and hence, if it is to be
-justified, without assuming the existence of anything other than my
-own perceptions, thoughts, and feelings, it can only be justified by
-my observation that beliefs with regard to the manner in which <i>these</i>
-succeed one another generally lead to true predictions. Whether the
-observation of such beliefs <i>alone</i> could give sufficient reason for
-it, is, I think, doubtful; but<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_88" id="Page_88">[Pg 88]</a></span> I am willing to admit that it may be
-so. One thing, however, is, I think, quite plain: namely, that this
-generalisation "Beliefs which lead to true predictions are generally
-true" cannot be true, <i>unless</i> some other of the "contents" which I
-observe, beside my own perceptions, thoughts, and feelings, do exist.
-That is to say, in giving a reason for supposing the existence of
-other people, this generalisation also gives a reason for the very
-theory which I am advocating, namely, that some of those data which
-I have called "sense-contents" do exist. It does this, because it is
-quite certain that beliefs in generalisations about the existence of
-sense-contents <i>can</i> (and do) constantly lead to true predictions. The
-belief that when I have observed a fire of a certain size in my grate,
-something similar to what I have observed will continue to exist for
-a certain time, can, and constantly does, lead to the true prediction
-that, when I come back to my room in half an hour's time, I shall
-observe a fire of a certain size still burning. We make predictions
-on such grounds, I think, every day and all day long. And hence
-unless such beliefs as that what I observe when I see a fire burning
-<i>does</i> exist, <i>are</i> true, we certainly have no reason to suppose that
-beliefs which lead to true predictions are generally true. And hence
-on this hypothesis also it remains true: that, unless some of the
-contents which I observe <i>other</i> than my own perceptions, thoughts, and
-feelings, do exist, I cannot have the slightest reason for supposing
-that the existence of certain perceptions of my own is generally
-connected with that of certain perceptions, thoughts, or feelings in
-any other person.</p>
-
-<p>I conclude therefore that, unless some of the observed data which I
-have called sense-contents <i>do</i> exist, my own observations cannot give
-me the slightest reason for believing that anybody else has<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_89" id="Page_89">[Pg 89]</a></span> ever had
-any particular perception, thought, or feeling. And, having arrived
-so far towards an answer to my first question: How do we know that
-any other persons exist? I may now point out that precisely the same
-answer must be given to my second question: How do we know that <i>any</i>
-particular kind of thing exists, other than ourselves, our perceptions,
-thoughts, and feelings, and what we directly perceive? There is a view
-concerning what exists, which deserves, I think, much more respect than
-it generally receives from philosophers nowadays. The view I mean is
-the view that material objects, such as they are conceived by physical
-science, do really exist. It is held by some persons (and Reid is among
-them) that we <i>do</i> know of the existence, not only of other persons,
-but also of the movements of matter in space. It is held that we do
-know, with considerable precision, what kinds of movements of matter
-generally precede my perception, when I have a particular perception.
-It is held, for instance, that when I perceive a red and blue book side
-by side on a shelf, at a certain distance from me, there have existed,
-between two material objects, which may be called books, and another
-kind of material object, which may be called my eyes, certain wave-like
-motions of a material medium; that there have existed two different
-sets of waves, of which the one is connected with my perception of red
-and the other with my perception of blue; and that the relative heights
-and breadths of the two different sets of waves, and the relative
-velocity of their movements are very exactly known. It is held that
-some men have a vast amount of very precise information about the
-existence of objects of this kind; and I think the view that this is
-so deserves a great deal of respect. But what I wish now to point out
-is that no one's observation of his own perceptions, thoughts and<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_90" id="Page_90">[Pg 90]</a></span>
-feelings, can, by itself, give him the slightest reason for believing
-in the existence of any such material objects. All the arguments by
-which I have tried to show that this kind of observation alone can give
-me no reason to believe in the existence of any kind of perception
-or feeling in another person, apply, with at least equal force, to
-show that it can give me no reason to believe in the existence of any
-kind of material object. On the other hand, if we are to admit the
-principle that "Beliefs which lead to true predictions, are generally
-true," this principle will give us at least as much reason to believe
-in the existence of certain kinds of material objects as to believe
-in the existence of other persons; since one of the most remarkable
-facts about beliefs in the existence of such objects is that they do so
-often lead to true predictions. But it must be remembered that we can
-have no reason for believing this principle itself, <i>unless</i> our own
-perceptions, thoughts and feelings are <i>not</i> the only kind of observed
-"content" which really does exist: we can have no reason for it, unless
-some such things as what I perceive, when I see a red and blue book
-side by side, do really exist.</p>
-
-<p>It would seem, therefore, that if my own observations do give me any
-reason whatever for believing in the existence either of any perception
-in any other person or of any material object, it must be true that
-not only my own perceptions, thoughts and feelings, but also <i>some</i> of
-the other kinds of things which I directly perceive&mdash;colours, sounds,
-smells, etc.&mdash;do really exist: it must be true that some objects of
-this kind <i>exist</i> or are <i>real</i> in precisely the same simple sense
-in which my perceptions of them exist or are real. Is there then any
-reason to think that this is not true? Is there any reason to think,
-for instance, that <i>none</i> of the colours which I perceive as occupying
-areas of certain shapes and sizes really<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_91" id="Page_91">[Pg 91]</a></span> exist in the areas which
-they appear to occupy? This is a question which I wished to discuss
-at length, because I think that it is one in which there are real
-difficulties. But I have given so much space to other questions, that I
-can only deal with it very briefly here.</p>
-
-<p>Some philosophers are very fond of asserting that a colour cannot exist
-except when it is perceived; and it might possibly be thought that
-when I suggest that colours do really exist, I am suggesting that they
-do exist when they are not perceived. I wish, therefore, briefly to
-point out that the question whether anything does exist, when it is
-not perceived, is one which I have not argued and shall not attempt
-to argue in this paper. I have, indeed, tried to show that since
-"exists" does not <i>mean</i> "is perceived," it is, at least, conceivable
-that things should exist, when they are not perceived. But I have
-admitted that it is quite possible none <i>do</i> so: it <i>may</i> be the case
-that whenever a thing exists, it is <i>also</i> at the same time perceived,
-for anything that I have said or shall say to the contrary. I think,
-indeed, that, if such things as colours <i>do</i> exist, my observation of
-their behaviour will justify me in concluding that they also exist when
-I myself am, at least, not aware of perceiving them: but since I have
-not attempted to determine what kinds of observation are sufficient to
-justify a generalisation, I do not pretend to say whether this is so
-or not: and still less do I pretend to say whether, <i>if</i> they exist
-when <i>I</i> do not perceive them, we are justified in supposing that
-someone else must be perceiving them. The question whether anything
-exists, when it is not perceived, and, if so, what things, seems to
-me to be one which can only be settled by observation; and thus, I
-conceive, observation might justify us in concluding that certain kinds
-of things&mdash;pains, for example, do <i>not</i> exist, when they are not<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_92" id="Page_92">[Pg 92]</a></span>
-perceived and that other kinds of things&mdash;colours, for example, <i>do</i>
-exist, when they are not perceived. The only way, in which, so far as
-I am aware, the theory I am advocating does conflict with ordinary
-Idealistic conclusions, is that it does suggest that things, which are
-<i>not</i> "spiritual," do <i>sometimes</i> exist, as really and as truly, as
-things which are.</p>
-
-<p>The theory, therefore, that nothing exists, except when it is
-perceived, is no objection (even if it be true) to the supposition that
-colours do exist. What objections are there to this supposition? All
-serious objections to it are, I think, of one type. They all rest upon
-the assumption that, if a certain kind of thing exists at a certain
-time in a certain place, certain other kinds of things cannot exist at
-the same time in the same place. They are all, that is to say, of the
-same type as Berkeley's argument: that, though the same body of water
-may <i>appear</i> to be simultaneously both hot and cold (if one of the
-hands we plunge into it is warm and the other cold), yet the heat and
-the cold cannot both <i>really</i> be in the same body at the same time. And
-it is worth noticing that anyone who uses this argument must admit that
-he understands what is meant by "really existing in a given place," and
-that he means by it something <i>other</i> than "being perceived as in a
-given place." For the argument itself admits that <i>both</i> the heat <i>and</i>
-the cold <i>are</i> really <i>perceived</i> as being in the same place, and that
-there is no difficulty in supposing that they are so; whereas It urges
-that there <i>is</i> a difficulty in supposing that they both <i>really exist</i>
-in it.</p>
-
-<p>Now there is one obvious defect in this type of argument, if designed
-to prove that <i>no</i> sensible quality exists at any place where it
-is perceived as being&mdash;a defect, which Berkeley himself admits in
-his "Principles," though he omits to notice it where he repeats the
-argument in his "Hylas." Even if<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_93" id="Page_93">[Pg 93]</a></span> we assume that the heat and the
-cold cannot <i>both</i> exist in the same place (and I admit that, in this
-case, the contrary assumption does seem repugnant to Common Sense),
-it does not follow that <i>neither</i> exists there. That is to say this
-type of argument, even if we grant its initial assumption, will only
-entitle us to conclude that <i>some</i> sensible qualities which we perceive
-as being in a certain place at a certain time, do not exist in that
-place at that time. And this conclusion, I am inclined to think, is
-true. In the case, for instance, of the so-called "images" which
-we perceive in a looking-glass, we may very readily admit that the
-colours and shapes which we perceive do <i>not</i> exist at the places where
-they appear to be&mdash;namely at various distances behind the glass. But
-yet, so far as I can see, we have no reason whatever for supposing
-that they do not, <i>except</i> the assumption that our observations give
-us reason to believe that <i>other</i> sensible qualities <i>do</i> exist in
-those positions behind the glass; and the assumption that <i>where</i>
-these <i>other</i> sensible qualities do exist, those which we see in the
-glass do <i>not</i> exist. I should, therefore, admit that <i>some</i> sensible
-qualities which we perceive as being in certain places, do <i>not</i> exist
-in those places, while still retaining my belief that others do. And
-<i>perhaps</i> this explanation is the one which should also be adopted in
-the case of sensible qualities which appear to be at a great distance
-from us. When, for instance, (as we say), "we see the moon," <i>what</i>
-we perceive (if the moon be full) is a round bright silver disc, of
-a small size, at a place very distant from us. Does that silver disc
-exist at that place? With what suppositions does the assumption that
-it <i>does</i> conflict? Only, so far as I can see, with the supposition
-that the place in question is <i>really</i> occupied by a body such as
-science has taught us to suppose that the moon <i>really</i> is&mdash;a spherical
-body immensely larger than<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_94" id="Page_94">[Pg 94]</a></span> objects, in comparison with which the
-silver disc which we perceive is small; <i>or else</i> with the supposition
-that the place in question is really occupied by some part of our
-atmosphere, or some part of the medium which science supposes to exist
-between our atmosphere and the moon; <i>or else</i> with the supposition
-that the place in question is really occupied by what we might see,
-if the moon were nearer to us by many thousands of miles. Unless we
-suppose that some other object <i>is</i> in the place, in which the silver
-disc appears to be, and that this object is of a kind which cannot
-occupy the <i>same</i> place which is occupied by a silver disc, we have
-no reason to suppose that the silver disc does <i>not</i> really exist in
-the place where it appears to be. And, in this case, we <i>perhaps</i> have
-reason for both suppositions and should therefore conclude that the
-silver disc, which we perceive, does not exist in any real place.</p>
-
-<p>Part, therefore, of these objections to our theory may, I think, be
-met by admitting that <i>some</i> of the ... sensible qualities which we
-perceive do not exist at the places where they appear to exist, though
-ethers do. But there is, I think, another class of cases, in which we
-may be justified in denying that two things which (it is asserted)
-cannot occupy the same space, really cannot. I will take an instance
-which is, I think, typical. When we look at a drop of blood with the
-naked eye, we perceive a small red spot, uniformly red all over. But
-when (as we say) we look at the <i>same</i> object under a microscope of
-a certain power, I am informed that we see a much larger spot, of
-similar shape, indeed, but <i>not</i> uniformly red&mdash;having, in fact, small
-red spots at different positions in a yellowish field. And if we were
-again to look at the <i>same</i> object through a microscope of much higher
-power still, we might perceive yet a third different arrangement of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_95" id="Page_95">[Pg 95]</a></span>
-colours. Is there any fatal objection to supposing that all <i>three</i>
-appearances&mdash;the uniform red spot, the yellowish field with reddish
-spots in it, and the third, whatever that may be&mdash;do all really occupy
-the same real spatial area? I cannot see that there is. We are familiar
-with the idea that a given spatial area may contain parts which are
-invisible to us. And hence, I think it is quite conceivable that parts
-of a given area may be <i>really</i> occupied by one colour, while the whole
-is <i>really</i> occupied by another. And this, I think, is what we actually
-<i>do</i> believe in many cases. At all events, we certainly believe that
-the area which appears to be occupied by one colour really is <i>the same
-area</i> as that which appears to be occupied by another. And, unless
-we assume that the area, in both cases, really is the same, we can
-certainly have no reason to deny that each colour does really occupy
-the area which it appears to occupy.</p>
-
-<p>For these reasons I think that the difficulties in the way of supposing
-that <i>some</i> of the sensible qualities which we perceive as being in
-certain places, really exist in the places in which we perceive them
-to be, are not insuperable. I have indeed not done justice to these
-difficulties; but then, neither have I done justice to what is to be
-said on the other side. At all events, I think it is plain that we have
-no reason to assert, in any case whatever, that a perceived colour
-does <i>not</i> really exist in the place where it is perceived as being,
-<i>unless</i> we assume that that very same place really is occupied by
-something else<i>&mdash;either</i> by some different sensible qualities <i>or</i> by
-material objects such as physical science supposes to exist. But what
-reason can we give for such an assumption? I have tried to show that
-our own observations can give us none, <i>unless</i> we assume that some of
-the sensible qualities, which we observe as occupying certain places,
-do really exist in those<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_96" id="Page_96">[Pg 96]</a></span> places. And, if this is so, then we must
-admit that neither he who believes (with Reid) in the existence of
-other minds and of matter also, nor he who believes in the existence
-of other minds and denies that of matter, can have, in his own
-observations, the slightest reason either for his assertion or for his
-denial: we must admit that he can have no reason for either assertion
-or denial, except one which consists in the assumption of the existence
-or nonexistence of something which he does <i>not</i> observe&mdash;something,
-therefore, of the very same kind as that for which he gives it as a
-reason. I am very unwilling to suppose that this is the case: I am
-very unwilling to suppose that he who believes that Sindbad the Sailor
-really saw what the "Arabian Nights" represent him as seeing, has just
-as good reason (so far as his own observation goes) for believing this
-as he who denies it has for denying it. Still this may be the case.
-We <i>must</i>, perhaps, be content to assume as certain that for which
-our observation gives no reason: to assume such propositions as that
-Sindbad did <i>not</i> see a Roc, and that you <i>do</i> hear my voice. But if it
-is said that these things are certain; then it also appears to me to
-be certain that the colours which I perceive do exist (<i>some</i> of them)
-where I perceive them. The more I look at objects round me, the more I
-am unable to resist the conviction that what I see does exist, as truly
-and as really, as my perception of it The conviction is overwhelming.</p>
-
-<p>This being, then, the state of the case, I think I may at least plead
-that we have grounds for suspense of judgment as to whether what I
-see does <i>not</i> really exist; grounds, too, for renewed enquiry, more
-careful than such enquiry has sometimes been in the past.</p>
-
-
-<div class="footnote">
-
-<p><a name="Footnote_1_2" id="Footnote_1_2"></a><a href="#FNanchor_1_2"><span class="label">[1]</span></a> Not now in 1921.</p>
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_97" id="Page_97">[Pg 97]</a></span></p></div>
-
-
-
-
-<h4><a name="WILLIAM_JAMES" id="WILLIAM_JAMES">WILLIAM JAMES</a></h4>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<p>My object in this paper is to discuss some of the things which Prof.
-William James says about truth in the recent book, to which he has
-given the above name.<a name="FNanchor_1_3" id="FNanchor_1_3"></a><a href="#Footnote_1_3" class="fnanchor">[1]</a> In Lecture VI he professes to give an account
-of a theory, which he calls "the pragmatist theory of truth;" and he
-professes to give a briefer preliminary account of the same theory in
-Lecture II. Moreover, in Lecture VII, he goes on to make some further
-remarks about truth. In all these Lectures he seems to me to make
-statements to which there are very obvious objections; and my main
-object is to point out, as clearly and simply as I can, what seem to me
-to be the principal objections to some of these statements.</p>
-
-<p>We may, I think, distinguish three different things which he seems
-particularly anxious to assert about truth.</p>
-
-<p>(I) In the first place, he is plainly anxious to assert some connection
-between truth and "verification" or "utility." Our true ideas, he seems
-to say, are those that "work," in the sense that they are or can be
-"verified," or are "useful."</p>
-
-<p>(II) In the second place, he seems to object to the view that truth is
-something "static" or "immutable." He is anxious to assert that truths
-are in some sense "mutable."</p>
-
-<p>(III) In the third place, he asserts that "to an<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_98" id="Page_98">[Pg 98]</a></span> unascertainable
-extent our truths are man-made products" (p. 242).</p>
-
-<p>To what he asserts under each of these three heads there are, I think,
-serious objections; and I now propose to point out what seem to me to
-be the principal ones, under each head separately.</p>
-
-
-<p>(I)</p>
-
-<p>Professor James is plainly anxious to assert <i>some</i> connection between
-truth and "verification" or "utility." And that there is <i>some</i>
-connection between them everybody will admit. That <i>many</i> of our true
-ideas are verified; that <i>many</i> of them can be verified; and that
-<i>many</i> of them are useful, is, I take it, quite indisputable. But
-Professor James seems plainly to wish to assert something more than
-this. And one more thing which he wishes to assert is, I think, pretty
-plain. He suggests, at the beginning of Lecture VI, that he is going to
-tell us in what sense it is that our true ideas "agree with reality."
-Truth, he says, certainly <i>means</i> their agreement with reality;
-the only question is as to what we are to understand by the words
-"agreement" and "reality" in this proposition. And he first briefly
-considers the theory, that the sense in which our true ideas agree with
-reality, is that they "copy" some reality. And he affirms that some
-of our true ideas really do do this. But he rejects the theory, as a
-theory of what truth means, on the ground that they do not <i>all</i> do so.
-Plainly, therefore, he implies that no theory of what truth <i>means</i>
-will be correct, unless it tells us of some property which belongs to
-<i>all</i> our true ideas without exception. But his own theory is a theory
-of what truth means. Apparently, therefore, he wishes to assert that
-not only many but <i>all</i> our true ideas are or can be verified; that
-<i>all</i> of them are useful. And it is, I think, pretty plain that this is
-<i>one</i> of the things which he wishes to assert.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_99" id="Page_99">[Pg 99]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>Apparently, therefore, Professor James wishes to assert that <i>all</i>
-our true ideas are or can be verified&mdash;that <i>all</i> are useful. And
-certainly this is not a truism like the proposition that <i>many</i> of
-them are so. Even if this were all that he meant, it would be worth
-discussing. But even this, I think, is not all. The very first
-proposition in which he expresses his theory is the following. "True
-ideas," he says (p. 201) "are those that we can assimilate, validate,
-corroborate and verify. False ideas are those that we cannot." And
-what does this mean? Let us, for brevity's sake, substitute the word
-"verify" alone for the four words which Professor James uses, as he
-himself subsequently seems to do. He asserts, then, that true ideas
-are <i>those which</i> we can verify. And plainly he does not mean by this
-merely that <i>some</i> of the ideas which we can verify are true, while
-plenty of others, which we can verify, are not true. The plain meaning
-of his words is that <i>all</i> the ideas which we can verify are true.
-No one would use them who did not mean this. Apparently, therefore,
-Professor James means to assert not merely that we can verify all our
-true ideas; but also that all the ideas, which we can verify, are true.
-And so, too, with utility or usefulness. He seems to mean not merely
-that all our true ideas are useful; but that all those which are useful
-are true. This would follow, for one thing, from the fact that he seems
-to use the words "verification" or "verifiability" and "usefulness" as
-if they came to the same thing. But, in this case too, he asserts it
-in words that have but one plain meaning. "The true" he says (p. 222)
-"is only the expedient in the way of our thinking." "The true" is <i>the</i>
-expedient: that is, <i>all</i> expedient thinking is true. Or again: "An
-idea is 'true' so long as to believe it is profitable to our lives" (p.
-75). That is to say, <i>every</i> idea, which is profitable to our lives,
-is, while<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_100" id="Page_100">[Pg 100]</a></span> it is so, true. These words certainly have a plain enough
-meaning. Apparently, therefore, Professor James means to assert not
-merely that all true ideas are useful, but also that all useful ideas
-are true.</p>
-
-<p>Professor James' words, then, do at least suggest that he wishes to
-assert all four of the following propositions. He wishes to assert, it
-would seem&mdash;</p>
-
-<p>(1) That we can verify all those of our ideas, which are true.</p>
-
-<p>(2) That all those among our ideas, which we can verify, are true.</p>
-
-<p>(3) That all our true ideas are useful.</p>
-
-<p>(4) That all those of our ideas, which are useful, are true.</p>
-
-<p>These four propositions are what I propose first to consider. He
-does mean to assert them, at least. Very likely he wishes to assert
-something more even than these. He does, in fact, suggest that he means
-to assert, in addition, that these properties of "verifiability" and
-"utility" are the <i>only</i> properties (beside that of being properly
-<i>called</i> "true") which belong to all our true ideas and to none but
-true ideas. But this obviously cannot be true, unless all these four
-propositions are true. And therefore we may as well consider them first.</p>
-
-<p>First, then, can we verify all our true ideas?</p>
-
-<p>I wish only to point out the plainest and most obvious reasons why I
-think it is doubtful whether we can.</p>
-
-<p>We are very often in doubt as to whether we did or did not do a certain
-thing in the past. We may have the idea that we did, and also the idea
-that we did not; and we may wish to find out which idea is the true
-one. Very often, indeed, I may believe very strongly, that I did do a
-certain thing; and somebody else, who has equally good reason to know,
-may believe equally strongly that I did not.<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_101" id="Page_101">[Pg 101]</a></span> For instance, I may have
-written a letter, and may believe that I used certain words in it.
-But my correspondent may believe that I did not. Can we always verify
-either of these ideas? Certainly sometimes we can. The letter may be
-produced, and prove that I did use the words in question. And I shall
-then have verified my idea. Or it may prove that I did not use them.
-And then we shall have verified my correspondent's idea. But, suppose
-the letter has been destroyed; suppose there is no copy of it, nor any
-trustworthy record of what was said in it; suppose there is no other
-witness as to what I said in it, beside myself and my correspondent?
-Can we then always verify which of our ideas is the true one? I think
-it is very doubtful whether we can <i>nearly</i> always. Certainly we may
-often try to discover any possible means of verification, and be quite
-unable, for a time at least, to discover any. Such cases, in which we
-are unable, for a time at least, to verify either of two contradictory
-ideas, occur very commonly indeed. Let us take an even more trivial
-instance than the last. Bad whist-players often do not notice at all
-carefully which cards they have among the lower cards in a suit. At
-the end of a hand they cannot be certain whether they had or had not
-the seven of diamonds, or the five of spades. And, after the cards
-have been shuffled, a dispute will sometimes arise as to whether a
-particular player had the seven of diamonds or not. His partner may
-think that he had, and he himself may think that he had not. Both may
-be uncertain, and the memory of both, on such a point, may be well
-known to be untrustworthy. And, moreover, neither of the other players
-may be able to remember any better. Is it always possible to verify
-which of these ideas is the true one? Either the player did or did not
-have the seven of diamonds. This much is certain. One person<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_102" id="Page_102">[Pg 102]</a></span> thinks
-that he did, and another thinks he did not; and both, so soon as the
-question is raised, have before their minds both of these ideas&mdash;the
-idea that he did, and the idea that he did not. This also is certain.
-And it is certain that one or other of these two ideas is true. But can
-they always verify either of them? Sometimes, no doubt, they can, even
-after the cards have been shuffled. There may have been a fifth person
-present, overlooking the play, whose memory is perfectly trustworthy,
-and whose word may be taken as settling the point. Or the players may
-themselves be able, by recalling other incidents of play, to arrive at
-such a certainty as may be said to verify the one hypothesis or the
-other. But very often neither of these two things will occur. And, in
-such a case, is it always possible to verify the true idea? Perhaps,
-theoretically, it may be still possible. Theoretically, I suppose, the
-fact that one player, and not any of the other three, had the card in
-his hand, may have made some difference to the card, which <i>might</i>
-be discovered by some possible method of scientific investigation.
-Perhaps some such difference may remain even after the same card has
-been repeatedly used in many subsequent games. But suppose the same
-question arises again, a week after the original game was played. Did
-you, or did you not, last week have the seven of diamonds in that
-particular hand? The question has not been settled in the meantime;
-and now, perhaps, the original pack of cards has been destroyed. Is it
-still possible to verify either idea? Theoretically, I suppose, it may
-be still possible. But even this, I think, is very doubtful. And surely
-it is plain that, humanly and practically speaking, it will often have
-become quite impossible to verify either idea. In all probability it
-never will be possible for any man to verify whether I had the card
-or not on this particular<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_103" id="Page_103">[Pg 103]</a></span> occasion. No doubt we are here speaking of
-an idea, which some man <i>could have</i> verified at one time. But the
-hypothesis I am considering is the hypothesis that we never have a true
-idea, which we <i>can</i> not verify; that is to say, which we cannot verify
-<i>after</i> the idea has occurred. And with regard to this hypothesis, it
-seems to me quite plain that <i>very often indeed</i> we have two ideas, one
-or other of which is certainly true; and yet that, in all probability,
-it is no longer possible and never will be possible for any man to
-verify either.</p>
-
-<p>It seems to me, then, that we very often have true ideas which we
-cannot verify; true ideas, which, in all probability, no man ever will
-be able to verify. And, so far, I have given only comparatively trivial
-instances. But it is plain that, in the same sense, historians are very
-frequently occupied with true ideas, which it is doubtful whether they
-can verify. One historian thinks that a certain event took place, and
-another that it did not; and both may admit that they cannot verify
-their idea. Subsequent historians may, no doubt, sometimes be able to
-verify one or the other. New evidence may be discovered or men may
-learn to make a better use of evidence already in existence. But is
-it certain that this will <i>always</i> happen? Is it certain that <i>every</i>
-question, about which historians have doubted, will some day be able to
-be settled by verification of one or the other hypothesis? Surely the
-probability is that in the case of an immense number of events, with
-regard to which we should like to know whether they happened or not, it
-never will be possible for any man to verify either the one hypothesis
-or the other. Yet it may be certain that either the events in question
-did happen or did not. Here, therefore, again, we have a large number
-of ideas&mdash;cases where many men doubt whether a thing did happen or
-did not, and have therefore the<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_104" id="Page_104">[Pg 104]</a></span> idea both of its having happened and
-of its not having happened&mdash;with regard to which it is certain that
-half of them are true, but where it seems highly doubtful whether
-any single one of them will ever be able to be verified. No doubt it
-is just possible that men will some day be able to verify every one
-of them. But surely it is very doubtful whether they will. And the
-theory against which I am protesting is the positive assertion that
-we <i>can</i> verify all our true ideas&mdash;that some one some day certainly
-will be able to verify every one of them. This theory, I urge, has all
-probability against it.</p>
-
-<p>And so far I have been dealing only with ideas with regard to what
-happened in the past. These seem to me to be the cases which offer
-the most numerous and most certain exceptions to the rule that we can
-verify our true ideas. With regard to particular past events, either
-in their own lives or in those of other people, men very frequently
-have ideas, which it seems highly improbable that any man will ever be
-able to verify. And yet it is certain that a great many of these ideas
-are true, because in a great many cases we have both the idea that the
-event did happen and also the idea that it did not, when it is certain
-that one or other of these ideas is true. And these ideas with regard
-to past events would by themselves be sufficient for my purpose. If, as
-seems certain, there are many true ideas with regard to the past, which
-it is highly improbable that anyone will ever be able to verify, then,
-obviously, there is nothing in a true idea which makes it certain that
-we can verify it. But it is, I think, certainly not only in the case
-of ideas, with regard to the past, that it is doubtful whether we can
-verify all the true ideas we have. In the case of many generalisations
-dealing not only with the past but with the future, it is, I think,
-obviously doubtful whether we shall ever be able to verify all<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_105" id="Page_105">[Pg 105]</a></span> those
-which are true; although here, perhaps, in most cases, the probability
-that we shall not is not so great. But is it quite certain, that in all
-cases where scientific men have considered hypotheses, one or other
-of which must be true, either will ever be verified? It seems to be
-obviously doubtful. Take, for instance, the question whether our actual
-space is Euclidean or not. This is a case where the alternative has
-been considered; and where it is certain that, whatever be meant by
-"our actual space," it either is Euclidean or is not. It has been held,
-too, that the hypothesis that it is not Euclidean might, conceivably,
-be verified by observations. But it is doubtful whether it ever will
-be. And though it would be rash to say that no man ever will be able
-to verify either hypothesis; it is also rash to assert positively that
-we shall&mdash;that we certainly can verify the true hypotheses. There are,
-I believe, ever so many similar cases, where alternative hypotheses,
-one or other of which must be true, have occurred to men of science,
-and where yet it is very doubtful whether either ever will be verified.
-Or take, again, such ideas as the idea that there is a God, or the
-idea that we are immortal. Many men have had not only contradictory
-ideas, but contradictory beliefs, about these matters. And here we
-have cases where it is disputed whether these ideas have not actually
-been verified. But it seems to me doubtful whether they have been. And
-there is a view, which seems to me to deserve respect, that, in these
-matters, we never shall be able to verify the true hypothesis. Is it
-perfectly certain that this view is a false one? I do not say that it
-is true. I think it is quite possible that we shall some day be able to
-verify either the belief that we are immortal or the belief that we are
-not. But it seems to me doubtful whether we shall. And for this reason
-alone I should refuse to assent to the<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_106" id="Page_106">[Pg 106]</a></span> positive assertion that we
-certainly can verify all our true ideas.</p>
-
-<p>When, therefore, Professor James tells us that "True ideas are those
-that we can assimilate, validate, corroborate and verify. False ideas
-are those that we cannot," there seems to be a serious objection to
-part of what these words imply. They imply that no idea of ours is
-true, unless we can verify it. They imply, therefore, that whenever a
-man wonders whether or not he had the seven of diamonds in the third
-hand at whist last night, neither of these ideas is true unless he can
-verify it. But it seems certain that in this, and an immense number of
-similar cases, one or other of the two ideas is true. Either, he did
-have the card in his hand or he did not. If anything is a fact, this
-is one. Either, therefore, Professor James' words imply the denial of
-this obvious fact, or else he implies that in <i>all</i> such cases we <i>can</i>
-verify one or other of the two ideas. But to this the objection is
-that, in any obvious sense of the words, it seems very doubtful whether
-we can. On the contrary it seems extremely probable that in a <i>very
-large</i> number of such cases no man ever will be able to verify either
-of the two ideas. There is, therefore, a serious objection to what
-Professor James' words imply. Whether he himself really means to assert
-these things which his words imply I do not know. Perhaps he would
-admit that, in this sense, we probably cannot verify nearly all our
-true ideas. All that I have wished to make plain is that there is, at
-least, an objection to what he says, whether to what he means or not.
-There is ample reason why we should refuse assent to the statement that
-none of our ideas are true, except those which we can verify.</p>
-
-<p>But to another part of what he implies by the words quoted above, there
-is, I think, no serious<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_107" id="Page_107">[Pg 107]</a></span> objection. There is reason to object to the
-statement that we can verify all our true ideas; but to the statement
-that all ideas, which we can "assimilate, validate, corroborate and
-verify," are true, I see no serious objection. Here, I think, we might
-say simply that all ideas which we can verify are true. To this, which
-is the second of the four propositions, which I distinguished above
-(<a href="#Page_35">p. 35</a>) as what Professor James seems to wish to assert, there is, I
-think, no serious objection, if we understand the word "verify" in
-its proper and natural sense. We may, no doubt, sometimes say that we
-have verified an idea or an hypothesis, when we have only obtained
-evidence which proves it to be probable, and does not prove it to be
-certain. And, if we use the word in this loose sense for incomplete
-verification, it is obviously the case that we may verify an idea
-which is not true. But it seems scarcely necessary to point this out.
-And where we really can <i>completely</i> verify an idea or an hypothesis,
-there, undoubtedly, the idea which we can verify is always true. The
-very meaning of the word "verify" is to find evidence which does really
-prove an idea to be true; and where an idea can be really proved to be
-true, it is of course, always true.</p>
-
-<p>This is all I wish to say about Professor James' first two
-propositions, namely:&mdash;</p>
-
-<p>(1) That no ideas of ours are true, except those which we can verify.</p>
-
-<p>(2) That all those ideas, which we can verify, are true.</p>
-
-<p>The first seems to me extremely doubtful&mdash;in fact, almost certainly
-untrue; the second on the other hand, certainly true, in its most
-obvious meaning. And I shall say no more about them. The fact is, I
-doubt whether either of them expresses anything which Professor James
-is really<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_108" id="Page_108">[Pg 108]</a></span> anxious to assert. I have mentioned them, only because his
-words do, in fact, imply them and because he gives those words a very
-prominent place. But I have already had occasion to notice that he
-seems to speak as if to say that we can verify an idea came to the same
-thing as saying it is useful to us. And it is the connection of truth
-with usefulness, not its connection with "verification," that he is, I
-think, really anxious to assert. He talks about "verification" only,
-I believe, because he thinks that what he says about it will support
-his main view that truth is what "works," is "useful," is "expedient,"
-"pays." It is this main view we have now to consider. We have to
-consider the two propositions:&mdash;</p>
-
-<p>(3) That all our true ideas are useful.</p>
-
-<p>(4) That all ideas, which are useful, are true.</p>
-
-<p>First, then: is it the case that all our true ideas are useful? Is it
-the case that none of our ideas are true, except those which are useful?</p>
-
-<p>I wish to introduce my discussion of this question by quoting a
-passage in which Professor James seems to me to say something which is
-indisputably true. Towards the end of Lecture VI, he attacks the view
-that truths "have an unconditional claim to be recognised." And in the
-course of his attack the following passage occurs:&mdash;</p>
-
-<p>"Must I," he says, "constantly be repeating the truth 'twice two are
-four' because of its eternal claim on recognition? or is it sometimes
-irrelevant? Must my thoughts dwell night and day on my personal sins
-and blemishes, because I truly have them?&mdash;or may I sink and ignore
-them in order to be a decent social unit, and not a mass of morbid
-melancholy and apology?"</p>
-
-<p>"It is quite evident," he goes on, "that our obligation to acknowledge
-truth, so far from being<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_109" id="Page_109">[Pg 109]</a></span> unconditional, is tremendously conditional.
-Truth with a big T, and in the singular, claims abstractly to be
-recognised, of course; but concrete truths in the plural need be
-recognised only when their recognition is expedient." (pp. 231-232).</p>
-
-<p>What Professor James says in this passage seems to me so indisputably
-true as fully to justify the vigour of his language. It is as clear
-as anything can be that it would not be useful for any man's mind to
-be <i>always</i> occupied with the true idea that he had certain faults
-and blemishes; or to be <i>always</i> occupied with the idea that twice
-two are four. It is clear, that is, that, if there are times at which
-a particular true idea is useful, there certainly are other times
-at which it would <i>not</i> be useful, but positively in the way. This
-is plainly true of nearly all, if not quite all, our true ideas. It
-is plainly true with regard to nearly all of them that, even if the
-occasions on which their occurrence is useful are many, the occasions
-on which their occurrence would <i>not</i> be useful are many more. With
-regard to most of them it is true that on most occasions they will, as
-Professor James says elsewhere, "be practically irrelevant, and had
-better remain latent."</p>
-
-<p>It is, then, quite clear that almost any particular true idea <i>would</i>
-not be useful at all times and that the times at which it would <i>not</i>
-be useful, are many more than the times at which it would. And what
-we have to consider is whether, in just this sense in which it is so
-clear that most true ideas would <i>not</i> be useful at most times, it is
-nevertheless true that all our true ideas <i>are</i> useful. Is this so? Are
-all our true ideas useful?</p>
-
-<p>Professor James, we see, has just told us that there are ever so many
-occasions upon which a particular true idea, such as that 2 + 2= 4,
-<i>would</i> not be useful&mdash;when, on the contrary, it would be positively in
-the way. And this seems to be indisputably<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_110" id="Page_110">[Pg 110]</a></span> clear. But is not something
-else almost equally clear? Is it not almost equally clear that cases,
-such as he says <i>would</i> not be useful, do sometimes actually happen? Is
-it not clear that we do actually sometimes have true ideas, at times
-when they are not useful, but are positively in the way? It seems
-to me to be perfectly clear that this does sometimes occur; and not
-sometimes only, but very commonly. The cases in which true ideas occur
-at times when they are useful, are, perhaps, far <i>more</i> numerous; but,
-if we look at men in general, the cases in which true ideas occur, at
-times when they are not useful, do surely make up positively a very
-large number. Is it not the case that men do sometimes dwell on their
-faults and blemishes, when it is <i>not</i> useful for them to do so? when
-they would much better be thinking of something else? Is it not the
-case that they are often unable to get their minds away from a true
-idea, when it is harmful for them to dwell on it? Still more commonly,
-does it not happen that they waste their time in acquiring pieces of
-information which are no use to them, though perhaps very useful to
-other people? All this seems to me to be undeniable&mdash;just as undeniable
-as what Professor James himself has said; and, if this is so, then, in
-one sense of the words, it is plainly not true that all, or nearly all,
-our true ideas are useful. <i>In one sense of the words.</i> For if I have
-the idea that 2+2=4 on one day, and then have it again the next, I may
-certainly, in a sense, call the idea I have on one day <i>one</i> idea, and
-the idea I have on the next <i>another.</i> I have had two ideas that 2+2=4,
-and not one only. Or if two different persons both think that I have
-faults, there have been two ideas of this truth and not one only. And
-in asking whether <i>all</i> our true ideas are useful, we might mean to ask
-whether <i>both</i> of these ideas were useful and not merely whether one of
-them was. In this<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_111" id="Page_111">[Pg 111]</a></span> sense, then, it is plainly not true that <i>all</i> our
-true ideas are useful. It is not true, that is, that every true idea is
-useful, <i>whenever it occurs.</i></p>
-
-<p>In one sense, then, it is plainly not true that all our true ideas
-are useful. But there still remains a perfectly legitimate sense in
-which it might be true. It might be meant, that is, not that every
-<i>occurrence</i> of a true idea is useful, but that every true idea is
-useful on at least one of the occasions when it occurs. But is this,
-in fact, the case? It seems to me almost as plain that it is not, as
-that the other was not. We have seen that true ideas are not by any
-means always useful on every occasion when they occur; though most
-that do occur many times over and to many different people are, no
-doubt, useful on some of these occasions. But there seems to be an
-immense number of true ideas, which occur but once and to one person,
-and never again either to him or to anyone else. I may, for instance,
-idly count the number of dots on the back of a card, and arrive at a
-true idea of their number; and yet, perhaps, I may never think of their
-number again, nor anybody else ever know it. We are all, it seems to
-me, constantly noticing trivial details, and getting true ideas about
-them, of which we never think again, and which nobody else ever gets.
-And is it quite certain that all these true ideas are useful? It seems
-to me perfectly clear, on the contrary, that many of them are not. Just
-as it is clear that many men sometimes waste their time in acquiring
-information which is useful to others but not to them, surely it is
-clear that they sometimes waste their time in acquiring information,
-which is useful to nobody at all, because nobody else ever acquires
-it. I do not say that it is never useful idly to count the number
-of dots on the back of a card. Plainly it is sometimes useful to be
-idle, and one idle employment may often be as good as another. But<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_112" id="Page_112">[Pg 112]</a></span>
-surely it is true that men <i>sometimes</i> do these things when their time
-would have been better employed otherwise? Surely they sometimes get
-into the habit of attending to trivial truths, which it is as great a
-disadvantage that they should attend to as that they should constantly
-be thinking of their own thoughts and blemishes? I cannot see my way
-to deny that this is so; and therefore I cannot see my way to assert
-positively that all our true ideas are useful, even so much as on <i>one
-occasion.</i> It seems to me that there are many true ideas which occur
-but once, and which are not useful when they do occur. And if this be
-so, then it is plainly not true that <i>all</i> our true ideas are useful in
-any sense at all.</p>
-
-<p>These seem to me to be the most obvious objections to the assertion
-that all our true ideas are useful. It is clear, we saw to begin with,
-that true ideas, which are sometimes useful, <i>would</i> not be useful at
-all times. And it seemed almost equally clear that they do sometimes
-occur at times when they are not useful. Our true ideas, therefore
-are not useful at every time when they actually occur. But in just
-this sense in which it is so clear that true ideas which are sometimes
-useful, nevertheless sometimes occur at times when they are not, it
-seems pretty plain that true ideas, which occur but once, are, some of
-them, not useful. If an idea, which is sometimes useful, does sometimes
-occur to a man at a time when it is irrelevant and in the way, why
-should not an idea, which occurs but once, occur at a time when it is
-irrelevant and in the way? It seems hardly possible to doubt that this
-does sometimes happen. But, if this be so, then it is not true that all
-our true ideas are useful, even so much as on one occasion. It is not
-true that none of our ideas are true, except those which are useful.</p>
-
-<p>But now, what are we to say of the converse<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_113" id="Page_113">[Pg 113]</a></span> proposition&mdash;the
-proposition that all those among our ideas, which are useful, are true?
-That we never have a useful idea, which is not true?</p>
-
-<p>I confess the matter seems to me equally clear here. The assertion
-should mean that every idea, which is at any time useful, is true;
-that no idea, which is not true, is ever useful. And it seems hardly
-possible to doubt that this assertion is false. It Is, in the first
-place, commonly held that it is sometimes right positively to deceive
-another person. In war, for instance it is held that one army is
-justified in trying to give the enemy a false idea as to where it
-will be at a given time. Such a false idea is sometimes given, and it
-seems to me quite clear that it is sometimes useful. In such a case,
-no doubt, it may be said that the false idea is useful to the party
-who have given it, but not useful to those who actually believe in it.
-And the question whether it is useful on the whole will depend upon
-the question which side it is desirable should win. But it seems to me
-unquestionable that the false idea is sometimes useful on the whole.
-Take, for instance, the case of a party of savages, who wish to make a
-night attack and massacre a party of Europeans but are deceived as to
-the position in which the Europeans are encamped. It is surely plain
-that such a false idea is sometimes useful on the whole. But quite
-apart from the question whether deception is ever justifiable, it is
-not very difficult to think of cases where a false idea, not produced
-by deception, is plainly useful&mdash;and useful, not merely on the whole,
-but to the person who has it as well. A man often thinks that his watch
-is right, when, in fact, it is slow, and his false idea may cause
-him to miss his train. And in such cases, no doubt, his false idea
-is <i>generally</i> disadvantageous. But, in a particular case, the train
-which he would have caught but<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_114" id="Page_114">[Pg 114]</a></span> for his false idea may be destroyed
-in a railway accident, or something may suddenly occur at home, which
-renders it much more useful that he should be there, than it would
-have been for him to catch his train. Do such cases never occur? And
-is not the false idea sometimes useful in some of them? It seems to me
-perfectly clear that it is <i>sometimes</i> useful for a man to think his
-watch is right when it is wrong. And such instances would be sufficient
-to show that it is not the case that every idea of ours, which is ever
-useful, is a true idea. But let us take cases, not, like these, of an
-idea, which occurs but a few times or to one man, but of ideas which
-have occurred to many men at many times. It seems to me very difficult
-to be sure that the belief in an eternal hell has not been often useful
-to many men, and yet it may be doubted whether this idea is true. And
-so, too, with the belief in a happy life after death, or the belief in
-the existence of a God; it is, I think, very difficult to be sure that
-these beliefs have not been, and are not still, often useful, and yet
-it may be doubted whether they are true. These beliefs, of course, are
-matters of controversy. Some men believe that they are both useful and
-true; and others, again, that they are neither. And I do not think we
-are justified in giving them as certain instances of beliefs, which
-are not true, but, nevertheless, have often been useful. But there is
-a view that these beliefs, though not true, have, nevertheless, been
-often useful; and this view seems to me to deserve respect, especially
-since, as we have seen, some beliefs, which are not true, certainly
-are sometimes useful. Are we justified in asserting positively that it
-is false? Is it perfectly certain that beliefs, which have often been
-useful to many men, may not, nevertheless, be untrue? Is it perfectly
-certain that beliefs, which are not<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_115" id="Page_115">[Pg 115]</a></span> true, have not often been useful
-to many men? The certainty may at least be doubted, and in any case it
-seems certain that some beliefs, which are not true, are, nevertheless,
-sometimes useful.</p>
-
-<p>For these reasons, it seems to me almost certain that <i>both</i> the
-assertions which I have been considering are false. It is almost
-certainly false that all our true ideas are useful, and almost
-certainly false that all our useful ideas are true. But I have only
-urged what seem to me to be the most obvious objections to these two
-statements; I have not tried to sustain these objections by elaborate
-arguments, and I have omitted elaborate argument, partly because of a
-reason which I now wish to state. The fact is, I am not at all sure
-that Professor James would not himself admit that both these statements
-are false. I think it is quite possible he would admit that they are,
-and would say that he never meant either to assert or to imply the
-contrary. He complains that some of the critics of Pragmatism are
-unwilling to read any but the silliest of possible meanings into the
-statements of Pragmatism; and, perhaps, he would say that this is the
-case here. I certainly hope that he would. I certainly hope he would
-say that these statements, to which I have objected, are silly. For
-it does seem to me intensely silly to say that we can verify all our
-true ideas; intensely silly to say that every one of our true ideas
-is at some time useful; intensely silly to say that every idea which
-is ever useful is true. I hope Professor James would admit all these
-things to be silly, for if he and other Pragmatists would admit even
-as much as this, I think a good deal would be gained. But it by no
-means follows that because a philosopher would admit a view to be
-silly, when it is definitely put before him, he has not himself been
-constantly holding and implying that very view. He may<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_116" id="Page_116">[Pg 116]</a></span> quite sincerely
-protest that he never has either held or implied it, and yet he may
-all the time have been not only implying it but holding it&mdash;vaguely,
-perhaps, but really. A man may assure us, quite sincerely that he is
-not angry; he may really think that he is not, and yet we may be able
-to judge quite certainly from what he says that he really is angry.
-He may assure us quite sincerely that he never meant anything to our
-discredit by what he said&mdash;that he was not thinking of anything in the
-least discreditable to us, and yet it may be plain from his words that
-he was actually condemning us very severely. And so with a philosopher.
-He may protest, quite angrily, when a view is put before him in other
-words than his own, that he never either meant or implied any such
-thing, and yet it may be possible to judge, from what he says, that
-this very view, wrapped up in other words, was not only held by him but
-was precisely what made his thoughts seem to him to be interesting and
-important. Certainly he may quite often imply a given thing which, at
-another time, he denies. Unless it were possible for a philosopher to
-do this, there would be very little inconsistency in philosophy, and
-surely everyone will admit that <i>other</i> philosophers are very often
-inconsistent. And so in this case, even if Professor James would say
-that he never meant to imply the things to which I have been objecting,
-yet in the case of two of these things, I cannot help thinking that
-he does actually imply them&mdash;nay more, that he is frequently actually
-vaguely thinking of them, and that his theory of truth owes its
-interest, in very great part, to the fact that he is implying them.
-In the case of the two views that all our true ideas are useful, and
-that all our useful ideas are true, I think this is so, and I do not
-mean merely that his <i>words</i> imply them. A man's <i>words</i> may often
-imply a<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_117" id="Page_117">[Pg 117]</a></span> thing, when he himself is in no way, however vaguely, thinking
-either of that thing or of anything which implies it; he may simply
-have expressed himself unfortunately. But in the case of the two views
-that all our true ideas are useful, and all our useful ideas true, I do
-not think this is so with Professor James. I think that his thoughts
-seem interesting to him and others, largely because he is thinking,
-not merely of words, but of things which imply these two views, in the
-very form in which I have objected to them. And I wish now to give some
-reasons for thinking this.</p>
-
-<p>Professor James certainly wishes to assert that there is <i>some</i>
-connection between truth and utility. And the connection which I have
-suggested that he has vaguely before his mind is this: that every true
-idea is, at some time or other, useful, and conversely that every idea,
-which is ever useful, is true. And I have urged that-there are obvious
-objections to both these views. But now, supposing Professor James does
-not mean to assert either of these two things, what else can he mean to
-assert? What else can he mean, that would account for the interest and
-importance he seems to attach to his assertion of connection between
-truth and utility? Let us consider the alternatives.</p>
-
-<p>And, first of all, he might mean that <i>most</i> of our true ideas are
-useful, and <i>most</i> of our useful ideas true. He might mean that most
-of our true ideas are useful at some time or other; and even that most
-of them are useful, whenever they actually occur. And he might mean,
-moreover, that if we consider the whole range of ideas, which are
-useful to us, we shall find that by far the greater number of them are
-true ones; that true ideas are far more often useful to us, than those
-which are not true. And all this, I think, may be readily admitted to
-be true. If this were all that he meant, I do not think<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_118" id="Page_118">[Pg 118]</a></span> that anyone
-would be very anxious to dispute it. But is it conceivable that this
-is <i>all</i> that he means? Is it conceivable that he should have been so
-anxious to insist upon this admitted commonplace? Is it conceivable
-that he should have been offering us this, and nothing more, as a
-theory of what truth means, and a theory worth making a fuss about, and
-being proud of? It seems to me quite inconceivable that this should
-have been <i>all</i> that he meant. He must have had something more than
-this in his mind. But, if so, what more?</p>
-
-<p>In the passage which I quoted at the beginning, as showing that he does
-mean to assert that <i>all</i> useful ideas are true, he immediately goes on
-to assert a qualification, which must now be noticed. "The true," he
-says, "is only the expedient in the way of our thinking" (p. 222). But
-he immediately adds: "Expedient in the long run, and on the whole, of
-course; for what meets expediently all the experience in sight won't
-necessarily meet all further experiences equally satisfactorily."
-Here, therefore, we have something else that he might mean. What is
-expedient <i>in the long run</i>, he means to say, is true. And what exactly
-does this mean? It seems to mean that an idea, which is not true, may
-be expedient <i>for some time</i>. That is to say, it may occur <i>once,</i>
-and be expedient then; and again, and be expedient then; and so on,
-over a considerable period. But (Professor James seems to prophesy)
-if it is not true, there will come a time, when it will cease to be
-expedient. If it occurs again and again over a long <i>enough</i> period,
-there will at last, if it is not true, come a time when it will (for
-once at least) fail to be useful, and will (perhaps he means) <i>never</i>
-be useful again. This is, 1 think, what Professor James means in this
-passage. He means, I think, that though an idea, which is not true,
-may for some time be repeatedly<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_119" id="Page_119">[Pg 119]</a></span> expedient, there will at last come a
-time when its occurrence will, perhaps, <i>never</i> be expedient again,
-certainly will, for a time, not be <i>generally</i> expedient. And this
-a view which, it seems to me, may possibly be true. It is certainly
-possible that a time may come, in the far future, when ideas, which
-are not true, will hardly ever, if ever, be expedient. And this is all
-that Professor James seems here positively to mean. He seems to mean
-that, if you take time <i>enough</i>, false ideas will some day cease to be
-expedient. And it is very difficult to be sure that this is not true;
-since it is very difficult to prophesy as to what may happen in the far
-future. I am sure I hope that this prophesy will come true. But in the
-meantime (Professor James seems to admit) ideas, which are not true,
-may, for an indefinitely long time, again and again be expedient. And
-is it conceivable that a theory, which admits this, is <i>all</i> that he
-has meant to assert? Is it conceivable that what interests him, in his
-theory of truth, is merely the belief that, some day or other, false
-ideas will cease to be expedient? "In the long run, <i>of course</i>," he
-says, as if this were what he had meant all along. But I think it is
-quite plain that this is <i>not</i> all that he has meant. This may be one
-thing which he is anxious to assert, but it certainly does not explain
-the whole of his interest in his theory of truth.</p>
-
-<p>And, in fact, there is quite a different theory which he seems plainly
-to have in his mind in other places. When Professor James says, "in
-the long run, <i>of course</i>," he implies that ideas which are expedient
-only for a <i>short</i> run, are very often not true. But in what he says
-elsewhere he asserts the very opposite of this. He says elsewhere that
-a belief is true "<i>so long as</i> to believe it is profitable to our
-lives" (p. 75). That is to say, a belief will be true, <i>so long as</i>
-it is useful, even if it is <i>not</i> useful<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_120" id="Page_120">[Pg 120]</a></span> in the long run! This is
-certainly quite a different theory; and, strictly speaking, it implies
-that an idea, which is useful even <i>on one occasion,</i> will be true. But
-perhaps this is only a verbal implication. I think very likely that
-here Professor James was only thinking of ideas, which can be said <i>to
-have a run,</i> though only a comparatively short one&mdash;of ideas, that is,
-which are expedient, not merely on one occasion, but <i>for some time.</i>
-That is to say, the theory which he now suggests, is that ideas, which
-occur again and again, perhaps to one man only, perhaps to several
-different people, over some space of time are, if they are expedient on
-most occasions within that space of time, true. This is a view which he
-is, I think, really anxious to assert; and if it were true, it would, I
-think, be important. And it is difficult to find instances which show,
-with certainty, that it is false. I believe that it is false; but it
-is difficult to prove it, because, in the case of some ideas it is so
-difficult to be certain that they ever were useful, and in the case of
-others so difficult to be certain that they are not true. A belief such
-as I spoke of before&mdash;the belief in eternal hell&mdash;is an instance. I
-think this belief has been, for a long time, useful, and that yet it is
-false. But it is, perhaps, arguable that it never has been useful; and
-many people on the other hand, would still assert that it is true. It
-cannot, therefore, perhaps, fairly be used as an instance of a belief,
-which is certainly not true, and yet has for some time been useful. But
-whether this view that all beliefs, which are expedient for some time,
-are true, be true or false; can it be all that Professor James means to
-assert? Can it constitute the whole of what interests him in his theory
-of truth?</p>
-
-<p>I do not think it can. I think it is plain that he has in his mind
-something more than <i>any</i> of these<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_121" id="Page_121">[Pg 121]</a></span> alternatives, or than all
-of them taken together. And I think so partly for the following
-reason. He speaks from the outset as if he intended to tell us what
-<i>distinguishes</i> true ideas from those which are not true; to tell us,
-that is to say, not merely of some property which belongs to all our
-true ideas; nor yet merely of some property, which belongs to none
-but true ideas; but of some property which satisfies <i>both</i> these
-requirements at once&mdash;which both belongs to all our true ideas, and
-<i>also</i> belongs to none but true ones. Truth, he says to begin with,
-means the agreement of our ideas with reality; and he adds "as falsity
-their disagreement." And he explains that he is going to tell us what
-property it is that is meant by these words "agreement with reality."
-So again in the next passage which I quoted: "True ideas," he says "are
-those that we can assimilate, validate, corroborate and verify." But,
-he also adds, "False ideas are those that we cannot." And no one, I
-think, could possibly speak in this way, who had not in his head the
-intention of telling us what property it is which <i>distinguishes</i> true
-ideas from those which are not true, and which, therefore, not only
-belongs to all ideas which are true, but also to none that are not.
-And that he has this idea in his head and thinks that the property of
-being "useful" or "paying" is such a property, is again clearly shown
-by a later passage. "Our account of truth," he says (p. 218) "is an
-account of truths in the plural, of processes of leading, realised <i>in
-rebus</i>, and having only this quality in common, that they <i>pay." Only</i>
-this quality in common! If this be so, the quality must obviously be
-one, which is <i>not</i> shared by any ideas which are <i>not</i> true; for,
-if true ideas have any quality in common at all, they must have at
-least one such quality, which is <i>not</i> shared by those which are <i>not</i>
-true. Plainly, therefore, Professor James is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_122" id="Page_122">[Pg 122]</a></span> intending to tell us of
-a property which belongs both to <i>all</i> true ideas and <i>only</i> to true
-ideas. And this property, he says, is that of "paying." But now let us
-suppose that he means by "paying," not "paying <i>once</i> at least," but,
-according to the alternative he suggests, "paying in the long run" or
-"paying for some time." Can he possibly have supposed that these were
-properties which belonged <i>both</i> to all true ideas <i>and also</i> to none
-but true ones? They may, perhaps, be properties which belong to <i>none
-but</i> true ones. I doubt, as I have said, whether the latter does; but
-still it is difficult to prove the opposite. But even if we granted
-that they belong to <i>none but</i> true ones, surely it is only too obvious
-that they do <i>not</i> fulfil the other requirement&mdash;that they do <i>not</i>
-belong to nearly all true ones. Can anyone suppose that <i>all</i> our true
-ideas pay "in the long run" or repeatedly for some time? Surely it is
-plain that an enormous number do not for the simple reason that an
-enormous number of them <i>have no run at all,</i> either long or short,
-but occur but once, and never recur. I believe truly that a certain
-book is on a particular shelf about 10.15 p.m. on December 21st, 1907;
-and this true belief serves me well and helps me to find it But the
-belief that that book is there at that particular time occurs to no one
-else, and never again to me. Surely there are thousands of useful true
-beliefs which, like this, are useful but once, and never occur again;
-and it would, therefore, be preposterous to say that every true idea is
-useful "in the long run" or repeatedly for some time. If, therefore,
-we supposed Professor James to mean that "paying in the long run" or
-"paying repeatedly over a considerable period" were properties which
-belonged to all true ideas and to none but true ones, we should be
-supposing him to mean something still more monstrous than if we suppose
-him to mean<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_123" id="Page_123">[Pg 123]</a></span> that "paying at least once" was such a property.</p>
-
-<p>To sum up then:</p>
-
-<p>I think there is no doubt that Professor James' interest in "the
-pragmatist theory of truth" is largely due to the fact that he thinks
-it tells us what distinguishes true ideas from those which are not
-true. And he thinks the distinction is that true ideas "pay," and false
-ones don't. The most natural interpretation of this view is: That every
-true idea pays at least once; and that every idea, which pays at least
-once, is true. These were the propositions I considered first, and I
-gave reasons for thinking that <i>both</i> are false. But Professor James
-suggested elsewhere that what he means by "paying" is "paying in the
-long run." And here it seems possibly true that all ideas which "pay
-in the long run" are true; but it is certainly false that all our true
-ideas "pay in the long run," if by this be meant anything more than
-"pay at least once." Again, he suggested that what he meant by paying
-was "paying for some time." And here, again, even if it is true (and it
-seems very doubtful) that all ideas which pay for some time are true,
-it is certainly false that all our true ideas pay for some time, if by
-this be meant anything more than that they pay "at least once."</p>
-
-<p>This, I think, is the simplest and most obvious objection to Professor
-James' "instrumental" view of truth&mdash;the view that truth is what
-"works," "pays," is "useful." He seems certainly to have in his mind
-the idea that this theory tells us what distinguishes true ideas from
-false ones, and to be interested in it mainly for this reason. He has
-vaguely in his mind that he has told us of some property which belongs
-to all true ideas and to none but true ones; and that this property is
-that of "paying." And the objection is, that, whatever<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_124" id="Page_124">[Pg 124]</a></span> we understand
-by "paying," whether "paying at least once," or "paying in the long
-run," or "paying for some time," it seems certain that none of these
-properties will satisfy <i>both</i> requirements. As regards the first, that
-of "paying at least once," it seems almost certain that it satisfies
-<i>neither:</i> it is neither true that all our true ideas "pay at least
-once," nor yet that every idea which pays at least once, is true.
-On the contrary, many true ideas never pay at all; and many ideas,
-which are not true, do pay on at least one occasion. And as regards
-the others, "paying in the long run" and "paying for some time,"
-even if these do belong to none but true ideas (and even this seems
-very doubtful), they certainly neither of them satisfy the <i>other</i>
-requirement&mdash;neither of them belong to <i>all</i> our true ideas. For, in
-order that either of them may belong to an idea, that idea must pay at
-least once; and, as we have seen, many true ideas do not pay even once,
-and cannot, therefore, pay either in the long run or for some time.
-And, moreover, many true ideas, which do pay on one occasion, seem to
-pay on one occasion and one only.</p>
-
-<p>And, if Professor James does not mean to assert any of these things,
-what is there left for him to mean? There is left in the first place,
-the theory that <i>most</i> of our true ideas do pay; and that <i>most</i> of the
-ideas which pay are true. This seems to me to be true, and, indeed, to
-be all that is certainly true in what he says. But is it conceivable
-that this is all he has meant? Obviously, these assertions tell us
-of no property at all which belongs to all true ideas, and to none
-but true ones; and, moreover, it seems impossible that he should have
-been so anxious to assert this generally admitted commonplace. What a
-very different complexion his whole discussion would have worn, had he
-merely asserted this&mdash;this quite clearly, and nothing<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_125" id="Page_125">[Pg 125]</a></span> but this, while
-admitting openly that many true ideas do not pay, and that many, which
-do pay, are not true!</p>
-
-<p>And, besides this commonplace, there is only left for him to mean two
-one-sided and doubtful assertions to the effect that certain properties
-belong to none but true ideas. There is the assertion that all ideas
-which pay in the long run are true, and the assertion that all ideas
-which pay for some considerable time are true. And as to the first, it
-<i>may</i> be true; but it may also be doubted, and Professor James gives us
-no reason at all for thinking that it is true. Assuming that religious
-ideas have been useful in the past, is it quite certain that they may
-not permanently continue to be useful, even though they are false?
-That, in short, even though they are not true, they nevertheless will
-be useful, not only for a time, but in the long run? And as for the
-assertion that all ideas, which pay for a considerable time, are true,
-this is obviously more doubtful still. Whether certain religious ideas
-will or will not be useful in the long run, it seems difficult to doubt
-that many of them have been useful for a considerable time. And why
-should we be told dogmatically that all of these are true? This, it
-seems to me, is by far the most interesting assertion, which is left
-for Professor James to make, when we have rejected the theory that the
-property of being useful belongs to <i>all</i> true ideas, as well as to
-none but true ones. But he has given no reason for asserting it. He
-seems, in fact, to base it merely upon the general untenable theory,
-that utility belongs to <i>all</i> true ideas, and to none but true ones;
-that this is what truth means.</p>
-
-<p>These, then, seem to me the plainest and most obvious objections to
-what Professor James says about the connection between truth and
-utility. And there are only two further points, in what he says under
-this head, that I wish to notice.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_126" id="Page_126">[Pg 126]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>In the first place, we have hitherto been considering only whether it
-is true, as a matter of empirical fact, that all our true ideas are
-useful, and those which are not true, never. Professor James seems,
-at least, to mean that, <i>as a matter of fact,</i> this is so; and I have
-only urged hitherto that <i>as a matter of fact</i>, it is not so. But as we
-have seen, he also asserts something more than this&mdash;he also asserts
-that this property of utility is the <i>only</i> one which belongs to all
-our true ideas. And this further assertion cannot possibly be true, if,
-as I have urged, there are many true ideas which do not possess this
-property; or if, as I have urged, many ideas, which do possess it, are
-nevertheless not true. The objections already considered are, then,
-sufficient to overthrow this further assertion also. If there are any
-true ideas, which are not useful, or if any, which are useful, are not
-true, it cannot be the case that utility is the <i>only</i> property which
-true ideas have in common. There must be some property, other than
-utility, which is common to all true ideas; and a correct theory as to
-what property it is that does belong to all true ideas, and to none but
-true ones, is still to seek. The empirical objections, hitherto given,
-are then sufficient objections to this further assertion also; but they
-are not the only objections to it. There is another and still more
-serious objection to the assertion that utility is the <i>only</i> property
-which all true ideas have in common. For this assertion does not
-<i>merely</i> imply that, as a matter of fact, all our true ideas and none
-but true ideas are useful. It does, indeed, imply this; and therefore
-the fact that these empirical assertions are not true is sufficient
-to refute it. But it also implies something more. If utility were the
-<i>only</i> property which all true ideas had in common, it would follow
-not merely that all true ideas are useful, but also that any idea,
-which was<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_127" id="Page_127">[Pg 127]</a></span> useful, <i>would</i> be true <i>no matter what other properties
-it might have or might fail to have.</i> There can, I think, be no doubt
-that Professor James does frequently speak as if this were the case;
-and there is an independent and still more serious objection to this
-implication. Even if it were true (as it is not) that all our true
-ideas and none but true ideas are, as a matter of fact, useful, we
-should still have a strong reason to object to the statement that any
-idea, which was useful, <i>would</i> be true. For it implies that if such an
-idea as mine, that Professor James exists, and has certain thoughts,
-<i>were</i> useful, this idea would be true, <i>even if</i> no such person as
-Professor James ever did exist. It implies that, if the idea that I had
-the seven of diamonds in my hand at cards last night, <i>were</i> useful,
-this idea would be true, even if, in fact, I did not have that card
-in my hand. And we can, I think, see quite plainly that this is not
-the case. With regard to some kinds of ideas, at all events&mdash;ideas
-with regard to the existence of other people, or with regard to past
-experiences of our own&mdash;it seems quite plain that they would not be
-true, unless they "agreed with reality" in some other sense than that
-which Professor James declares to be the only one in which true ideas
-must agree with it. Even if my idea that Professor James exists were to
-"agree with reality," in the sense that, owing to it, I handled <i>other</i>
-realities better than I should have done without it, it would, I think,
-plainly not be true, unless Professor James really did exist&mdash;unless
-<i>he</i> were a reality. And this, I think, is one of the two most serious
-objections to what he seems to hold about the connection of truth with
-utility. He seems to hold that any idea, which was useful, <i>would</i> be
-true, <i>no matter what other properties it might fail to have.</i> And with
-regard to some ideas, at all events, it seems plain that they cannot be
-true, <i>unless</i> they<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_128" id="Page_128">[Pg 128]</a></span> have the property that what they believe to exist,
-really does or did exist. Beliefs in the existence of other people
-might be useful to me, even if I alone existed; but, nevertheless, in
-such a case, they would not be true.</p>
-
-<p>And there is only one other point, in what Professor James says in
-connection with the "instrumental" view of truth, upon which I wish
-to remark. We have seen that he seems sometimes to hold that beliefs
-are true, <i>so long as</i> they are "profitable to our lives." And this
-implies, as we have seen, the doubtful proposition than any belief
-which is useful for some length of time, is true. But this is not
-all that it implies. It also implies that beliefs are true <i>only</i> so
-long as they are profitable. Nor does Professor James appear to mean
-by this that they <i>occur</i>, only so long as they are profitable. He
-seems to hold, on the contrary, that beliefs, which are profitable
-for some time, do sometimes finally occur at a time when they are not
-profitable. He implies, therefore, that a belief, which occurs at
-several different times, may be true at some of the times at which it
-occurs, and yet untrue at others. I think there is no doubt that this
-view is what he is sometimes thinking of. And this, we see, constitutes
-a quite new view as to the connection between truth and utility&mdash;a view
-quite different from any that we have hitherto considered. This view
-asserts not that every true idea is useful at some time, or in the long
-run, or for a considerable period; but that the truth of an idea may
-come and go, as its utility comes and goes. It admits that one and the
-same idea sometimes occurs at times when it is useful, and sometimes
-at times when it is not; but it maintains that this same idea is true,
-at those times when it is useful, and not true, at those when it is
-not. And the fact that Professor James seems to suggest this view,
-constitutes, I<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_129" id="Page_129">[Pg 129]</a></span> think, a second most serious objection to what he says
-about the connection of truth and utility. It seems so obvious that
-utility is a property which comes and goes&mdash;which belongs to a given
-idea at one time, and does not belong to it at another, that anyone who
-says that the true is the useful naturally seems not to be overlooking
-this obvious fact, but to be suggesting that truth is a property which
-comes and goes in the same way. It is, in this way I think, that the
-"instrumental" view of truth is connected with the view that truth is
-"mutable." Professor James does, I think, imply that truth is mutable
-in just this sense&mdash;namely, that one and the same idea may be true at
-some of the times at which it occurs, and not true at others, and this
-is the view which I have next to consider.</p>
-
-
-<p>(II)</p>
-
-<p>Professor James seems to hold, generally, that "truth" is mutable. And
-by this he seems sometimes to mean that an idea which, when it occurs
-at one time, is true, <i>may,</i> when it occurs at another time, not be
-true. He seems to hold that one and the same idea <i>may</i> be true at
-one time and false at another. That it <i>may</i> be, for I do not suppose
-he means that all ideas do actually undergo this change from true to
-false. Many true ideas seem to occur but once, and, if so, they, at
-least, will not actually be true at one time and false at another,
-though, even with regard to these, perhaps Professor James means to
-maintain that they <i>might</i> be false at another time, if they were to
-occur at it. But I am not sure that he even means to maintain this
-with regard to <i>all</i> our true ideas. Perhaps he does not mean to say,
-with regard to <i>all</i> of them, even that they <i>can</i> change from true to
-false. He speaks, generally, indeed, as if truth were mutable; but,
-in one passage, he seems to insist that there is a certain class of
-true ideas, none of which are<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_130" id="Page_130">[Pg 130]</a></span> mutable in this respect. "<i>Relations
-among purely mental ideas,"</i> he says (p. 209), "form another sphere
-where true and false beliefs obtain, and here the beliefs are absolute
-or unconditional. When they are true they bear the name either of
-definitions or of principles. It is either a principle or a definition
-that 1 and 1 make 2, that 2 and 1 make 3, and so on; that white differs
-less from grey than it does from black; that when the cause begins to
-act the effect also commences. Such propositions hold of all possible
-'ones,' of all conceivable 'whites,' 'greys,' and 'causes.' The objects
-here are mental objects. Their relations are perceptually obvious
-at a glance, and no sense-verification is necessary. Moreover, once
-true, always true, of those same mental objects. Truth here has an
-'eternal' character. If you can find a concrete thing anywhere that is
-'one' or 'white' or 'grey' or an 'effect,' then your principles will
-everlastingly apply to it." Professor James does seem here to hold
-that there are true ideas, which once true, are always true. Perhaps,
-then, he does not hold that <i>all</i> true ideas are mutable. Perhaps he
-does not even hold that all true ideas, <i>except</i> ideas of this kind,
-are so. But he does seem to hold at least that <i>many</i> of our true ideas
-are mutable. And even this proposition seems to me to be disputable.
-It seems to me that there is a sense in which it is the case with
-<i>every</i> true idea that, if once true, it is always true. That is to
-say, that every idea, which is true once, <i>would</i> be true at any other
-time at which it were to occur; and that every idea which does occur
-more than once, if true once, <i>is</i> true at every time at which it does
-occur. There seems to me, I say, to be <i>a sense</i> in which this is so.
-And this seems to me to be the sense in which it is most commonly and
-most naturally maintained that all truths are "immutable." Professor
-James seems to mean to<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_131" id="Page_131">[Pg 131]</a></span> deny it, even in this sense. He seems to me
-constantly to speak as if there were <i>no</i> sense in which <i>all</i> truths
-are immutable. And I only wish to point out what seems to me to be the
-plainest and most obvious objection to such language.</p>
-
-<p>And, first of all, there is one doctrine, which he seems to connect
-with this of his that "truths are mutable," with regard to which I
-fully agree with him. He seems very anxious to insist that reality is
-mutable: that it does change, and that it is not irrational to hope
-that in the future it will be different from and much better than it
-is now. And this seems to me to be quite undeniable. It seems to me
-quite certain that I do have ideas at one time which I did not have
-at another; that change, therefore, does really occur. It seems to me
-quite certain that in the future many things will be different from
-what they are now; and I see no reason to think that they may not be
-much better. There is much misery in the world now; and I think it is
-quite possible that some day there will really be much less. This view
-that <i>reality</i> is mutable, that <i>facts</i> do change, that some things
-have properties at one time which they do not have at other times,
-seems to me certainly true. And so far, therefore, as Professor James
-merely means to assert this obvious fact, I have no objection to his
-view. Some philosophers, I think, have really implied the denial of
-this fact. All those who deny the reality of time do seem to me to
-imply that nothing really changes or can change&mdash;that, in fact, reality
-is wholly immutable. And so far as Professor James is merely protesting
-against this view, I should, therefore, agree with him.</p>
-
-<p>But I think it is quite plain that he does not mean <i>merely</i> this,
-when he says that truth is mutable. No one would choose this way of
-expressing himself if he merely meant to say that <i>some</i> things are<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_132" id="Page_132">[Pg 132]</a></span>
-mutable. Truth, Professor James has told us, is a property of certain
-of our ideas. And those of our ideas, which are true or false, are
-certainly only a part of the Universe. Other things in the Universe
-might, therefore, change, even if our ideas never changed in respect
-of this property. And our ideas themselves do undoubtedly change in
-some respects. A given idea exists in my mind at one moment and does
-not exist in it at another. At one moment it is in my mind and not in
-somebody else's, and at another in somebody else's and not in mine.
-I sometimes think of the truth that twice two are four when I am in
-one mood, and sometimes when I am in another. I sometimes think of it
-in connection with one set of ideas and sometimes in connection with
-another set. Ideas, then, are constantly changing in some respects.
-They come and go; and at one time they stand in a given relation to
-other things or ideas, to which at another time they do not stand in
-that relation. In this sense, any given idea may certainly have a
-property at one time which it has not got at another time. All this
-seems obvious; and all this cannot be admitted, without admitting that
-reality is mutable&mdash;that <i>some</i> things change. But obviously it does
-not seem to follow from this that there is <i>no</i> respect in which ideas
-are immutable. It does not seem to follow that because ideas, and other
-things, change some of their properties, they necessarily change that
-one which we are considering&mdash;namely, "truth." It does not follow that
-a given idea, which has the property of truth at one time, ever exists
-at any other time without having that property. And yet that this
-<i>does</i> happen seems to be part of what is meant by saying that truth
-is mutable. Plainly, therefore, to say this is to say something quite
-different from saying that <i>some</i> things are mutable. Even, therefore,
-if we admit that <i>some</i> things are<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_133" id="Page_133">[Pg 133]</a></span> mutable, it is still open to
-consider whether truth is so. And this is what I want now to consider.
-Is it the case that an idea which exists at one time, and is true then,
-ever exists at any other time, without being true? Is it the case that
-any idea ever changes from true to false? That it has the property of
-being true on one of the occasions when it exists, and that it has
-<i>not</i> this property, but that of being false instead, on some other
-occasion when it exists?</p>
-
-<p>In order to answer this question clearly, it is, I think, necessary to
-make still another distinction. It does certainly seem to be true, <i>in
-a sense</i>, that a given idea may be true on one occasion and false on
-another. We constantly speak as if there were cases in which a given
-thing was true on one occasion and false on another; and I think it
-cannot be denied that, when we so speak, we are often expressing in a
-perfectly proper and legitimate manner something which is undeniably
-true. It is true now, I might say, that I am in this room; but
-to-morrow this will not be true. It is true now that men are often
-very miserable; but perhaps in some future state of society this will
-not be true. These are perfectly natural forms of expression, and what
-they express is something which certainly may be true. And yet what
-they do apparently assert is that something or other, which is true
-at one time, will not, or <i>perhaps</i> will not, be true at another. We
-constantly use such expressions, which imply that what is true at one
-time is not true at another; and it is certainly legitimate to use
-them. And hence, I think, we must admit that, <i>in a sense</i>, it is true
-that a thing may be true at one time which is not true at another; in
-that sense, namely, in which we use these expressions. And it is, I
-think, also plain that these things, which may be true at one time and
-false at another, may, <i>in a sense,</i> be ideas. We might even say: The
-idea that I am in this room, is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_134" id="Page_134">[Pg 134]</a></span> true now; but to-morrow it will not be
-true. We might say this without any strain on language. In any ordinary
-book&mdash;indeed, in any philosophical book, where the subject we are at
-present discussing was not being expressly discussed&mdash;such expressions
-do, I think, constantly occur. And we should pass them, without any
-objection. We should at once understand what they meant, and treat them
-as perfectly natural expressions of things undeniably true. We must,
-then, I think, admit that, <i>in a sense</i>, an idea may be true at one
-time, and false at another. The question is: In what sense? What is the
-truth for which these perfectly legitimate expressions stand?</p>
-
-<p>It seems to me that in all these cases, so far as we are not merely
-talking of <i>facts</i>, but of true <i>ideas</i>, that the "idea" which we truly
-say to be true at one time and false at another, is merely the idea
-of a <i>sentence</i>&mdash;that is, of certain <i>words.</i> And we do undoubtedly
-call <i>words</i> "true." The words "I am at a meeting of the Aristotelian
-Society" are true, if I use them now; but if I use the same words
-to-morrow, they would not be true. The words "George III is king of
-England" were true in 1800, but they are not true now. That is to say,
-a given set of words may undoubtedly be true at one time, and false
-at another; and since we may have ideas of words as well as of other
-things, we may, in this sense, say the same of certain of our "ideas."
-We may say that some of our "ideas" (namely those of words) are true at
-one time and not true at another.</p>
-
-<p>But is it conceivable that Professor James <i>merely</i> meant to assert
-that the same <i>words</i> are sometimes true at one time and false at
-another? Can this be <i>all</i> he means by saying that truth is mutable?
-I do not think it can possibly be so. No one, I think, in definitely
-discussing the mutability of truth, could say that true ideas were
-mutable, and<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_135" id="Page_135">[Pg 135]</a></span> yet mean (although he did not say so) that this
-proposition applied <i>solely</i> to ideas of words. Professor James must, I
-think, have been sometimes thinking that <i>other</i> ideas, and not merely
-ideas of words, do sometimes change from true to false. And this is the
-proposition which I am concerned to dispute. It seems to me that if we
-mean by an idea, not merely the idea of certain words, but the kind of
-idea which words express, it is very doubtful whether such an idea ever
-changes from true to false&mdash;whether any such idea is ever true at one
-time and false at another.</p>
-
-<p>And plainly, in the first place, the mere fact that the same set of
-words, as in the instances I have given, really are true at one time
-and false at another, does not afford any presumption that anything
-which they stand for is true at one time and false at another. For
-the same words may obviously be used in different senses at different
-times; and hence though the same words, which formerly expressed a
-truth, may cease to express one, that may be because they now express
-a <i>different</i> idea, and not because the idea which they formerly
-expressed has ceased to be true. And that, in instances such as I have
-given, the words <i>do</i> change their meaning according to the time at
-which they are uttered or thought of, is I think, evident. If I use now
-the words "I am in this room," these words certainly express (among
-other things) the idea that my being in this room is contemporary
-with my present use of the words; and if I were to use the same words
-to-morrow, they would express the idea that my being in this room
-to-morrow, was contemporary with the use of them <i>then.</i> And since my
-use of them then would not be the same fact as my use of them now,
-they would certainly then express a different idea from that which
-they express now. And in general,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_136" id="Page_136">[Pg 136]</a></span> whenever we use the present tense
-in its primary sense, it seems to me plain that we do mean something
-different by it each time we use it. We always mean (among other
-things) to express the idea that a given event is contemporary with
-our actual use of it; and since our actual use of it on one occasion
-is always a different fact from our actual use of it on another, we
-express by it a different idea each time we use it. And similarly with
-the past and future tenses. If anybody had said in 1807 "Napoleon is
-dead," he would certainly have meant by these words something different
-from what I mean by them when I use them now. He would have meant that
-Napoleon's death occurred at a time previous to <i>his</i> use of those
-words; and this would not have been true. But in this fact there is
-nothing to show that if he <i>had</i> meant by them what I mean now, his
-idea would not have been as true then as mine is now. And so, if I say
-"It will rain to-morrow," these words have a different meaning to-day
-from what they would have if I used them to-morrow. What we mean by
-"to-morrow" is obviously a different day, when we use the word on one
-day, from what we mean by it when we use it on another. But in this
-there is nothing to show that if the idea, which I <i>now</i> mean by "It
-will rain to-morrow," <i>were</i> to occur again to-morrow, it would not be
-true then, if it is true now. All this is surely very obvious. But,
-if we take account of it, and if we concentrate our attention not on
-the words but on what is meant by them, is it so certain that what we
-mean by them on any one occasion ever changes from true to false? If
-there were to occur to me to-morrow the very same idea which I now
-express by the words "I am in this room," is it certain that this idea
-would not be as true then as it is now? It is perhaps true that the
-<i>whale</i> of what I mean by such a phrase as<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_137" id="Page_137">[Pg 137]</a></span> this never does recur. But
-part of it does, and that a part which is true. Part of what I mean
-is Certainly identical with part of what I should mean to-morrow by
-saying "I <i>was</i> in that room last night." And this part would be as
-true then, as it is now. And is there <i>any</i> part, which, if it were to
-recur at any time, would <i>not</i> then be true, though it Is true now? In
-the case of all ideas or parts of ideas, which ever do actually recur,
-can we find a single instance of one, which is plainly true at one of
-the times when it occurs, and yet not true at another? I cannot think
-of any such instance. And on the other hand this very proposition that
-any idea (other than mere words) which is true once, would be true at
-any time, seems to me to be one of those truths of which Professor
-James has spoken as having an "eternal," "absolute," "unconditional"
-character&mdash;as being "perceptually obvious at a glance" and needing
-"no sense-verification." Just as we know that, if a particular colour
-differs more from black than from grey at one time, the same colour
-would differ more from black than from grey at any time, so, it seems
-to me, we can see that, if a particular idea is true at one time, the
-same idea would be true at any time.</p>
-
-<p>It seems to me, then, that if we mean by an idea, not mere words, but
-the kind of idea which words express, any idea, which is true at one
-time when it occurs, <i>would</i> be true at any time when it were to occur;
-and that this is so, even though it is an idea, which refers to facts
-which are mutable. My being in this room is a fact which is now, but
-which certainly has not been at every time and will not be at every
-time. And the words "I <i>am</i> in this room," though they express a truth
-now, would not have expressed one if I had used them yesterday, and
-will not if I use them to-morrow. But if we consider the idea which
-these words <i>now</i> express&mdash;<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_138" id="Page_138">[Pg 138]</a></span>namely, the idea of the connection of my
-being in this room with this particular time&mdash;it seems to me evident
-that anybody who had thought of that connection at any time in the
-past, would have been thinking truly, and that anybody who were to
-think of it at any time in the future would be thinking truly. This
-seems to me to be the sense in which truths are immutable&mdash;in which
-no idea can change from true to false. And I think Professor James
-means to deny of truths generally, if not of all truths, that they are
-immutable even in this sense. If he does not mean this there seems
-nothing left for him to mean, when he says that truths are mutable,
-except (1) that some <i>facts</i> are mutable, and (2) that the same <i>words</i>
-may be true at one time and false at another. And it seems to me
-impossible that he could speak as he does, if he meant <i>nothing more</i>
-than these two things. I believe, therefore, that he is really thinking
-that ideas which have been once true (<i>ideas,</i> and not merely words)
-do sometimes afterwards become false: that the very same idea is at
-one time true and at another false. But he certainly gives no instance
-which shows that this does ever occur. And how far does he mean his
-principle to carry him? Does he hold that this idea that Julius Caesar
-was murdered in the Senate-House, though true now, may, at some future
-time cease to be true, if it should be more profitable to the lives of
-future generations to believe that he died in his bed? Things like this
-are what his words seem to imply; and, even if he does hold that truths
-like this are <i>not</i> mutable, he never tries to tell us to what kinds of
-truths he would limit mutability, nor how they differ from such as this.</p>
-
-
-<p>(III)</p>
-
-<p>Finally, there remains the view that "to an unascertainable extent our
-truths are man-made<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_139" id="Page_139">[Pg 139]</a></span> products." And the only point I want to make about
-this view may be put very briefly.</p>
-
-<p>It is noticeable that all the instances which Professor James gives
-of the ways in which, according to him, "our truths" are "made" are
-instances of ways in which our <i>beliefs</i> come into existence. In
-many of these ways, it would seem, false beliefs sometimes come into
-existence as well as true ones; and I take it Professor James does
-not always wish to deny this. False beliefs, I think he would say,
-are just as much "man-made products" as true ones: it is sufficient
-for his purpose if true beliefs do come into existence in the ways he
-mentions. And the only point which seems to be illustrated by all these
-instances, is that in all of them the existence of a true belief does
-depend in some way or other upon the previous existence of something
-in some man's mind. They are all of them cases in which we may truly
-say: This man would not have had just that belief, had not some man
-previously had such and such experiences, or interests, or purposes.
-In some cases they are instances of ways in which the existence of a
-particular belief in a man depends upon <i>his own</i> previous experiences
-or interests or volitions. But this does not seem to be the case
-in all. Professor James seems also anxious to illustrate the point
-that one man's beliefs often depend upon the previous experiences or
-interests or volitions of <i>other</i> men. And, as I say, the only point
-which seems to be definitely illustrated in all cases is that the
-existence of a true belief does depend, <i>in some way or other,</i> upon
-something which has previously existed in some man's mind. Almost
-any kind of dependence, it would seem, is sufficient to illustrate
-Professor James' point.</p>
-
-<p>And as regards this general thesis that almost all our beliefs, true as
-well as false, depend, in some way or other, upon what has previously
-been in<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_140" id="Page_140">[Pg 140]</a></span> some human mind, it will, I think, be readily admitted. It
-is a commonplace, which, so far as I know, hardly anyone would deny.
-If this is all that is to be meant by saying that our true beliefs
-are "man-made," it must, I think, be admitted that almost all, If not
-quite all, really are man-made. And this is all that Professor James'
-instances seem to me, in fact, to show.</p>
-
-<p>But is this all that Professor James means, when he says that <i>our
-truths</i> are man-made? Is it conceivable that he only means to insist
-upon this undeniable, and generally admitted, commonplace? It seems to
-me quite plain that this is not all that he means. I think he certainly
-means to suggest that, from the fact that we "make" our true beliefs,
-something <i>else</i> follows. And I think it is not hard to see one thing
-more which he does mean. I think he certainly means to suggest that we
-not only make our true beliefs, but also that we <i>make them true.</i> At
-least as much as this is certainly naturally suggested by his words.
-No one would persistently say that we make <i>our truths</i>, unless he
-meant, at least, not merely that we make our true beliefs, but also
-that we make them true&mdash;unless he meant not merely that the existence
-of our true beliefs, but also that their <i>truth</i>, depended upon human
-conditions. This, it seems to me, is one consequence which Professor
-James means us to draw from the commonplace that the <i>existence</i> of our
-true beliefs depends upon human conditions. But does this consequence,
-in fact, follow from that commonplace? From the fact that we make our
-true beliefs, does it follow that we <i>make them true?</i></p>
-
-<p><i>In one sense,</i> undoubtedly, even this does follow. If we say (as we
-may say) that no belief can be true, unless it exists, then it follows
-that, in a sense, the truth of a belief must always depend upon any
-conditions upon which its existence depends. If,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_141" id="Page_141">[Pg 141]</a></span> therefore, the
-occurrence of a belief depends upon human conditions, so, too, must its
-truth. If the belief had never existed, it would never have been true;
-and therefore its truth must, in a sense, depend upon human conditions
-in exactly the same degree in which its existence depends upon them.
-This is obvious. But is this all that is meant? Is this all that would
-be suggested to us by telling us that we make our beliefs true?</p>
-
-<p>It is easy to see that it is not. I may have the belief that it will
-rain to-morrow. And I may have "made" myself have this belief. It may
-be the case that I should not have had it, but for peculiarities in my
-past experiences, in my interests and my volitions. It may be the case
-that I should not have had it, but for a deliberate attempt to consider
-the question whether it will rain or not. This may easily happen. And
-certainly this particular belief of mine would not have been true,
-unless it existed. Its truth, therefore, depends, in a sense, upon any
-conditions upon which its existence depends. And this belief may be
-true. It will be true, if It does rain to-morrow. But, in spite of all
-these reasons, would anyone think of saying that, in case it is true, I
-had <i>made</i> it true? Would anyone say that I had had any hand <i>at all</i>
-in making it true? Plainly no one would. We should say that I had a
-hand in making it true, if and only If I had a hand in <i>making the rain
-fall.</i> In every case in which we believe in the existence of anything,
-past or future, we should say that we had helped to make the belief
-true, if and only if we had helped to cause the existence of the fact
-which, in that belief, we believed did exist or would exist. Surely
-this is plain. I may believe that the sun will rise to-morrow. And I
-may have had a hand in "making" this belief; certainly it often depends
-for its existence upon what has been previously in my mind. And<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_142" id="Page_142">[Pg 142]</a></span> if the
-sun does rise, my belief will have been true. I have, therefore, had
-a hand in making a true belief. But would anyone say that, therefore,
-I had a hand in <i>making this belief true</i>? Certainly no one would. No
-one would say that anything had contributed to make this belief true,
-except those conditions (whatever they may be) which contributed to
-making the sun actually rise.</p>
-
-<p>It is plain, then, that by "making a belief true," we mean something
-quite different from what Professor James means by "making" that
-belief. Conditions which have a hand in making a given true belief,
-may (it appears) have no hand at all in making it true; and conditions
-which have a hand in making it true may have no hand at all in making
-<i>it.</i> Certainly this is how we use the words. We should never say that
-we had made a belief true, merely because we had made the belief. But
-now, which of these two things does Professor James mean? Does he mean
-<i>merely</i> the accepted commonplace that we make our true beliefs, in the
-sense that almost all of them depend for their existence on what has
-been previously in some human mind? Or does he mean also that we <i>make
-them true</i>&mdash;that their truth also depends on what has been previously
-in some human mind?</p>
-
-<p>I cannot help thinking that he has the latter, and not only the former
-in his mind. But, then, what does this involve? If his instances of
-"truth-making" are to be anything to the purpose, it should mean that,
-whenever I have a hand in causing one of my own beliefs, I always
-have to that extent a hand in making it true. That, therefore, I have
-a hand in actually making the sun rise, the wind blow, and the rain
-fall, whenever I cause my beliefs in these things. Nay, more, it
-should mean that, whenever I "make" a true belief about the past, I
-must have had a hand in making this true. And if<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_143" id="Page_143">[Pg 143]</a></span> so, then certainly I
-must have had a hand in causing the French Revolution, in causing my
-father's birth, in making Professor James write this book. Certainly
-he implies that some man or other must have helped in causing almost
-every event, in which any man ever truly believed. That it was we who
-made the planets revolve round the sun, who made the Alps rise, and
-the floor of the Pacific sink&mdash;all these things, and others like them,
-seem to be involved. And it is these consequences which seem to me to
-justify a doubt whether, in fact "our truths are to an unascertainable
-extent man-made." That some of our truths are man-made&mdash;indeed, a great
-many&mdash;I fully admit. We certainly do make some of our beliefs true.
-The Secretary probably had a belief that I should write this paper,
-and I have made his belief true by writing it. Men certainly have the
-power to alter the world to a certain extent; and, so far as they do
-this, they certainly "make true" any beliefs, which are beliefs in the
-occurrence of these alterations. But I can see no reason for supposing
-that they "make true" <i>nearly</i> all those of their beliefs which are
-true. And certainly the only reason which Professor James seems to
-give for believing this&mdash;namely, that the <i>existence</i> of almost all
-their beliefs depends on them&mdash;seems to be no reason for it at all. For
-unquestionably a man does not "make true" nearly every belief whose
-<i>existence</i> depends on him; and if so, the question which of their
-beliefs and how many, men do "make true" must be settled by quite other
-considerations.</p>
-
-<p>In conclusion, I wish to sum up what seems to me to be the most
-important points about this "pragmatist theory of truth," as Professor
-James represents it. It seems to me that, in what he says<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_144" id="Page_144">[Pg 144]</a></span> about it, he
-has in his mind some things which are true and others which are false;
-and I wish to tabulate separately the principal ones which I take to be
-true, and the principal ones which I take to be false. The true ones
-seem to me to be these:&mdash;</p>
-
-<p>That <i>most</i> of our true beliefs are useful to us; and that <i>most</i> of
-the beliefs that are useful to us are true.</p>
-
-<p>That the world really does change in some respects; that facts exist at
-one time, which didn't and won't exist at others; and that hence the
-world may be better at some future time than it is now or has been in
-the past.</p>
-
-
-<p>That the very same words may be true at one time and false at
-another&mdash;that they may express a truth at one time and a falsehood at
-another.</p>
-
-<p>That the existence of most, if not all, of our beliefs, true as well as
-false, does depend upon previous events in our mental history; that we
-should never have had the particular beliefs we do have, had not our
-previous mental history been such as it was.</p>
-
-<p>That the truth, and not merely the existence, of <i>some</i> of our beliefs,
-does depend upon us. That we really do make some alterations in the
-world, and that hence we do help to "make true" all those of our
-beliefs which are beliefs in the existence of these alterations.</p>
-
-
-<p>To all of these propositions I have no objection to offer. And they
-seem to me to be generally admitted commonplaces. A certain class of
-philosophers do, indeed, imply the denial of every one of them&mdash;namely,
-those philosophers who deny the reality of time. And I think that
-part of Professor James' object is to protest against the views of
-these philosophers. All of these<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_145" id="Page_145">[Pg 145]</a></span> propositions do constitute a protest
-against such views; and so far they might be all that Professor James
-meant to assert. But I do not think that anyone, fairly reading through
-what he says, could get the impression that these things, and nothing
-more, were what he had in his mind. What gives colour and interest to
-what he says, seems to be obviously something quite different. And, if
-we try to find out what exactly the chief things are which give his
-discussion its colour and interest, it seems to me we may distinguish
-that what he has in his mind, wrapped up in more or less ambiguous
-language, are the following propositions, to all of which I have tried
-to urge what seem to me the most obvious objections:&mdash;</p>
-
-
-<p>That utility is a property which distinguishes true beliefs from those
-which are not true; that, therefore, <i>all</i> true beliefs are useful, and
-<i>all</i> beliefs, which are useful, are true&mdash;by "utility" being sometimes
-meant "utility on at least one occasion," sometimes "utility in the
-long run," sometimes "utility for some length of time."</p>
-
-<p>That all beliefs which are useful for some length of time are true.</p>
-
-<p>That utility is the <i>only</i> property which all true beliefs have in
-common: that, therefore, <i>if</i> it were useful to me to believe in
-Professor James' existence, this belief <i>would</i> be true, even if he
-didn't exist; and that, <i>if</i> it were not useful to me to believe this,
-the belief <i>would</i> be false, even if he did.</p>
-
-<p>That the beliefs, which we express by words, and not merely the words
-themselves, may be true at one time and <i>not</i> true at another; and that
-this is a general rule, though perhaps there may be some exceptions.</p>
-
-<p>That whenever the <i>existence</i> of a belief depends<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_146" id="Page_146">[Pg 146]</a></span> to some extent on
-us, then also the <i>truth</i> of that belief depends to some extent on us;
-in the sense in which this implies, that, when the existence of my
-belief that a shower will fall depends upon me, then, if this belief
-is true, I must have had a hand in making the shower fall: that,
-therefore, men must have had a hand in making to exist almost every
-fact which they ever believe to exist.</p>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<div class="footnote">
-
-<p><a name="Footnote_1_3" id="Footnote_1_3"></a><a href="#FNanchor_1_3"><span class="label">[1]</span></a> <i>Pragmatism: A New Name for some Old Ways of Thinking:
-Popular Lectures on Philosophy.</i> By William James. Longmans, Green, and
-Co., 1907</p>
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_147" id="Page_147">[Pg 147]</a></span></p></div>
-
-
-
-
-<h4><a name="HUMES_PHILOSOPHY" id="HUMES_PHILOSOPHY">HUME'S PHILOSOPHY</a></h4>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<p>In both of his two books on the Human Understanding, Hume had, I think,
-one main general object. He tells us that it was his object to discover
-"the extent and force of human understanding," to give us "an exact
-analysis of its powers and capacity." And we may, I think, express
-what he meant by this in the following way. He plainly held (as we
-all do) that some men sometimes entertain opinions which they cannot
-know to be true. And he wished to point out what characteristics are
-possessed by those of our opinions which we <i>can</i> know to be true, with
-a view of persuading us that any opinion which does <i>not</i> possess any
-of these characteristics is of a kind which we <i>cannot</i> know to be so.
-He thus tries to lay down certain rules to the effect that the <i>only</i>
-propositions which we can, any of us, know to be true are of certain
-definite kinds. It is in this sense, I think, that he tries to define
-the limits of human understanding.</p>
-
-<p>With this object he, first of all, divides all the propositions,
-which we can even so much as conceive, into two classes. They are
-all, he says, either propositions about "relations of ideas" or else
-about "matters of fact." By propositions about "relations of ideas"
-he means such propositions as that twice two are four, or that black
-differs from white; and it is, I think, easy enough to see, though
-by no means easy to define, what<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_148" id="Page_148">[Pg 148]</a></span> kind of propositions it is that
-he means to include in this division. They are, he says, the only
-kind of propositions with regard to which we can have "intuitive" or
-"demonstrative" certainty. But the vast majority of the propositions
-in which we believe and which interest us most, belong to the other
-division: they are propositions about "matters of fact." And these
-again he divides into two classes. So far as his words go, this latter
-division is between "matters of fact, beyond the present testimony of
-our senses, or the records of our memory," on the one hand, and matters
-of fact for which we <i>have</i> the evidence of our memory or senses, on
-the other. But it is, I think, quite plain that these words do not
-represent quite accurately the division which he really means to make.
-He plainly intends to reckon along with facts for which we have the
-evidence of our <i>senses</i> all facts for which we have the evidence
-of <i>direct observation</i>&mdash;such facts, for instance, as those which I
-observe when I observe that I am angry or afraid, and which cannot be
-strictly said to be apprehended by my <i>senses.</i> The division, then,
-which he really intends to make is (to put it quite strictly) into the
-two classes&mdash;(1) propositions which assert some matter of fact which I
-am (in the strictest sense) <i>observing</i> at the moment, or which I have
-so observed in the past and now remember; and (2) propositions which
-assert any matter of fact which I am not now observing and never have
-observed, or, if I have, have quite forgotten.</p>
-
-<p>We have, then, the three classes&mdash;(1) propositions which assert
-"relations of ideas"; (2) propositions which assert "matters of fact"
-for which we have the evidence of direct observation or personal
-memory; (3) propositions which assert "matters of fact<i>"</i> for which
-we have <i>not</i> this evidence. And as regards propositions of the first
-two classes,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_149" id="Page_149">[Pg 149]</a></span> Hume does not seem to doubt our capacity for knowledge.
-He does not doubt that we can know <i>some</i> (though, of course, not
-<i>all)</i> propositions about "relations of ideas" to be true; he never
-doubts, for instance, that we can know that twice two are four. And
-he generally assumes also that each of us can know the truth of
-<i>all</i> propositions which merely assert some matter of fact which we
-ourselves are, in the strictest sense, directly observing, or which
-we have so observed and now remember. He does, indeed, in one place,
-suggest a doubt whether our memory is <i>ever</i> to be implicitly trusted,
-but he generally assumes that it <i>always</i> can. It is with regard to
-propositions of the third class that he is chiefly anxious to determine
-which of them (if any) we can know to be true and which not. In what
-cases can any man know any matter of fact which he himself has not
-directly observed? It is Hume's views on this question which form, I
-think, the main interest of his philosophy.</p>
-
-<p>He proposes, first of all, by way of answer to it, a rule, which may,
-I think, be expressed as follows: No man, he says, can ever know any
-matter of fact, which he has not himself observed, unless he can know
-that it is connected by "the relation of cause and effect," with some
-fact which he <i>has</i> observed. And no man can ever know that any two
-facts are connected by this relation, except by the help of his own
-past <i>experience.</i> In other words, if I am to know any fact, A, which
-I have not myself observed, my past experience must give me some
-foundation for the belief that A is causally connected with some fact,
-B, which I have observed. And the only kind of past experience which
-can give me any foundation for such a belief is, Hume seems to say,
-as follows: I must, he says, have found <i>facts like</i> A "constantly
-conjoined" in the past with <i>facts like</i> B. This is what he <i>says;</i>
-but we must not, I think,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_150" id="Page_150">[Pg 150]</a></span> press his words too strictly. I may, for
-instance, know that A is <i>probably</i> a fact, even where the conjunction
-of facts like it with facts like B has not been quite constant. Or
-instead of observing facts like A conjoined with facts like B, I may
-have observed a whole series of conjunctions&mdash;for instance, between A
-and C, C and D, D and E, and E and B; and such a series, however long,
-will do quite as well to establish a causal connection between A and B,
-as if I had directly observed conjunctions between A and B themselves.
-Such modifications as this, Hume would, I think, certainly allow. But,
-allowing for them, his principle is, I think, quite clear. I can, he
-holds, never know any fact whatever, which I have not myself observed,
-unless I have observed similar facts in the past and have observed that
-they were "conjoined" (directly or indirectly) with facts similar to
-some fact which I do now observe or remember. In this sense, he holds,
-<i>all</i> our knowledge of facts, beyond the reach of our own observation,
-is founded on <i>experience.</i></p>
-
-<p>This is Hume's primary principle. But what consequences does he
-think will follow from it, as to the kind of facts, beyond our own
-observation, which we can know? We may, I think, distinguish three
-entirely different views as to its consequences, which he suggests in
-different parts of his work.</p>
-
-<p>In the first place, where he is specially engaged in explaining this
-primary principle, he certainly seems to suppose that all propositions
-of the kind, which we assume most universally in everyday life, may be
-founded on experience in the sense required. He supposes that we have
-this foundation in experience for such beliefs as that "a stone will
-fall, or fire burn"; that Julius Caesar was murdered; that the sun will
-rise to-morrow; that all men are mortal He speaks as if experience did
-not merely render such beliefs probable, but actually <i>proved</i> them
-to<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_151" id="Page_151">[Pg 151]</a></span> be true. The "arguments from experience" in their favour are, he
-says, such as "leave no room for doubt or opposition." The only kinds
-of belief, which he definitely mentions as <i>not</i> founded on experience,
-are "popular superstitions" on the one hand, and certain religious and
-philosophical beliefs, on the other. He seems to suppose that a few (a
-very few) religious beliefs may, perhaps, be founded on experience.
-But as regards most of the specific doctrines of Christianity, for
-example, he seems to be clear that they are not so founded. The belief
-in miracles is not founded on experience; nor is the philosophical
-belief that every event is caused by the direct volition of the Deity.
-In short, it would seem, that in this doctrine that our knowledge of
-unobserved facts is confined to such as are "founded on experience,"
-he means to draw the line very much where it is drawn by the familiar
-doctrine which is called "Agnosticism." We can know such facts as
-are asserted in books on "history, geography or astronomy," or on
-"politics, physics and chemistry," because such assertions may be
-"founded on experience"; but we cannot know the greater part of the
-facts asserted in books "of divinity or school metaphysics," because
-such assertions have no foundation in experience.</p>
-
-<p>This, I think, was clearly one of Hume's views. He meant to fix the
-limits of our knowledge at a point which would <i>exclude</i> most religious
-propositions and a great many philosophical ones, as incapable of being
-known; but which would <i>include</i> all the other kinds of propositions,
-which are most universally accepted by common-sense, as capable of
-being known. And he thought that, so far as matters of fact beyond the
-reach of our personal observation are concerned, this point coincided
-with that at which the possibility of "foundation on experience"
-ceases.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_152" id="Page_152">[Pg 152]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>But, if we turn to another part of his work, we find a very different
-view suggested. In a quite distinct section of both his books, he
-investigates the beliefs which we entertain concerning the existence
-of "external objects." And he distinguishes two different kinds of
-belief which may be held on this subject. "Almost all mankind, and
-philosophers themselves, for the greatest part of their lives,"
-believe, he says, that "the very things they feel and see" <i>are</i>
-external objects, in the sense that they continue to exist, even when
-we cease to feel or see them. Philosophers, on the other hand, have
-been led to reject this opinion and to suppose (when they reflect)
-that what we actually perceive by the senses never exists except when
-we perceive it, but that there are other external objects, which do
-exist independently of us, and which <i>cause</i> us to perceive what we do
-perceive. Hume investigates both of these opinions, at great length in
-the <i>Treatise</i>, and much more briefly in the <i>Enquiry</i>, and comes to
-the conclusion, in both books, that neither of them can be "founded
-on experience," in the sense he has defined. As regards the first of
-them, the vulgar opinion, he does seem to admit in the <i>Treatise</i> that
-it is, in a sense, founded on experience; but not, he insists, in
-the sense defined. And he seems also to think that, apart from this
-fact, there are conclusive reasons for holding that the opinion cannot
-be true. And as regards the philosophical opinion, he says that any
-belief in external objects, which we never perceive but which cause our
-perceptions, cannot possibly be founded on experience, for the simple
-reason that if it were, we should need to have directly observed some
-of these objects and their "conjunction" with what we do perceive,
-which <i>ex hypothesi,</i> we cannot have done, since we never do directly
-observe any external object.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_153" id="Page_153">[Pg 153]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>Hume, therefore, concludes, in this part of his work, that we cannot
-know of the existence of any "external object" whatever. And though
-in all that he says upon this subject, he is plainly thinking only of
-<i>material</i> objects, the principles by which he tries to prove that we
-cannot know these must, I think, prove equally well that we cannot
-know any "external object" whatever&mdash;not even the existence of any
-other human mind. His argument is: We cannot directly observe any
-object whatever, except such as exist only when we observe them; we
-cannot, therefore, observe any "constant conjunctions" except between
-objects of this kind: and hence we can have no foundation in experience
-for any proposition which asserts the existence of any other kind of
-object, and cannot, therefore, know any such proposition to be true.
-And this argument must plainly apply to all the feelings, thoughts and
-perceptions of other men just as much as to material objects. I can
-never know that any perception of mine, or anything which I do observe,
-must have been caused by any other man, because I can never directly
-observe a "constant conjunction" between any other man's thoughts
-or feelings or intentions and anything which I directly observe: I
-cannot, therefore, know that any other man ever had any thoughts or
-feelings&mdash;or, in short, that any man beside myself ever existed. The
-view, therefore, which Hume suggests in this part of his work, flatly
-contradicts the view which he at first seemed to hold. He now says we
-<i>cannot</i> know that a stone will fall, that fire will burn, or the sun
-will rise to-morrow. All that I can possibly know, according to his
-present principles, is that <i>I shall see</i> a stone fall, shall feel the
-fire burn, shall see the sun rise to-morrow. I cannot even know that
-any other men will see these things; for I cannot know that any other
-men exist. For the same reason, I cannot<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_154" id="Page_154">[Pg 154]</a></span> know that Julius Caesar
-was murdered, or that all men are mortal. For these are propositions
-asserting "external" facts&mdash;facts which don't exist only at the moment
-when I observe them; and, according to his present doctrine, I cannot
-possibly know any such proposition to be true. No man, in short, can
-know any proposition about "matters of fact" to be true, except such
-as merely assert something about <i>his own</i> states of mind, past,
-present or future&mdash;about these or about what <i>he himself</i> has directly
-observed, is observing, or will observe.</p>
-
-<p>Here, therefore, we have a very different view suggested, as to the
-limits of human knowledge. And even this is not all. There is yet a
-third view, inconsistent with both of these, which Hume suggests in
-some parts of his work.</p>
-
-<p>So far as we have yet seen, he has not in any way contradicted his
-original supposition that we can know <i>some</i> matters of fact, which we
-have never ourselves observed. In the second theory, which I have just
-stated, he does not call in question the view that I can know all such
-matters of fact as I know to be causally connected with facts which
-I have observed, nor the view that I can know some facts to be thus
-causally connected. All that he has done is to question whether I can
-know any <i>external</i> fact to be causally connected with anything which
-I observe; he would still allow that I may be able to know that future
-states of my own, or past states, which I have forgotten, are causally
-connected with those which I now observe or remember; and that I may
-know therefore, in some cases, what I shall experience in the future,
-or have experienced in the past but have now forgotten. But in some
-parts of his work he does seem to question whether any man can know
-even as much as this: he seems to question whether we can ever know any
-fact whatever to be causally connected<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_155" id="Page_155">[Pg 155]</a></span> with any other fact. For, after
-laying it down, as we saw above, that we cannot know any fact, A, to be
-causally connected with another, B, unless we have experienced in the
-past a constant conjunction between facts like A and facts like B, he
-goes on to ask what foundation we have for the conclusion that A and B
-<i>are</i> causally connected, even when we <i>have</i> in the past experienced
-a constant conjunction between them. He points out that from the fact
-that A has been constantly conjoined with B in the past, it does not
-follow that it ever will be so again. It does not follow, therefore,
-that the two really are causally connected in the sense that, when the
-one occurs, the other <i>always</i> will occur also. And he concludes, for
-this and other reasons, that <i>no argument</i> can assure us that, because
-they have been constantly conjoined in the past, therefore they really
-are causally connected. What, then, he asks, is the foundation for such
-an inference? <i>Custom,</i> he concludes, is the only foundation. It is
-nothing but custom which induces us to believe that, because two facts
-have been constantly conjoined on many occasions, therefore they will
-be so on <i>all</i> occasions. We have, therefore, no better foundation
-than custom for any conclusion whatever as to facts which we have not
-observed. And can we be said really to <i>know</i> any fact, for which we
-have no better foundation than this? Hume himself, it must be observed,
-never says that we can't. But he has been constantly interpreted as if
-the conclusion that we can't really know any one fact to be causally
-connected with any other, did follow from this doctrine of his. And
-there is, I think, certainly much excuse for this interpretation in the
-tone in which he speaks. He does seem to suggest that a belief which is
-<i>merely</i> founded on custom, can scarcely be one which we <i>know</i> to be
-true. And, indeed, he owns himself that, when he considers<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_156" id="Page_156">[Pg 156]</a></span> that this
-is our only foundation for any such belief, he is sometimes tempted
-to doubt whether we do know any fact whatever, except those which we
-directly observe. He does, therefore, at least suggest the view that
-every man's knowledge is entirely confined to those facts, which he is
-directly observing at the moment, or which he has observed in the past,
-and now remembers.</p>
-
-<p>We see, then, that Hume suggests, at least, three entirely different
-views as to the consequences of his original doctrine. His original
-doctrine was that, as regards matters of fact beyond the reach of our
-own actual observation, the knowledge of each of us is strictly limited
-to those for which we have a basis in our own experience. And his first
-view as to the consequences of this doctrine was that it does show us
-to be incapable of knowing a good many religious and philosophical
-propositions, which many men have claimed that they knew; but that it
-by no means denies our capacity of knowing the vast majority of facts
-beyond our own observation, which we all commonly suppose that we know.
-His second view, on the other hand, is that it cuts off at once all
-possibility of our knowing the vast majority of these facts; since he
-implies that we cannot have any basis in experience for asserting any
-<i>external</i> fact whatever&mdash;any fact, that is, except facts relating to
-our own actual past and future observations. And his third view is more
-sceptical still, since it suggests that we cannot really know any fact
-whatever, beyond the reach of our present observation or memory, even
-where we <i>have</i> a basis in experience for such a fact: it suggests that
-experience cannot ever let us <i>know</i> that any two things are causally
-connected, and therefore that it cannot give us <i>knowledge</i> of any fact
-based on this relation.</p>
-
-<p>What are we to think of these three views, and<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_157" id="Page_157">[Pg 157]</a></span> of the original
-doctrine from which Hume seems to infer them?</p>
-
-<p>As regards the last two views, it may perhaps be thought that they
-are too absurd to deserve any serious consideration. It is, in fact,
-absurd to suggest that I do not know any external facts whatever;
-that I do not know, for instance, even that there are any men beside
-myself. And Hume himself, it might seem, does not seriously expect or
-wish us to accept these views. He points out, with regard to all such
-excessively sceptical opinions that we cannot continue to believe them
-for long together&mdash;that, at least, we cannot, for long together, avoid
-believing things flatly inconsistent with them. The philosopher may
-believe, when he is philosophising, that no man knows of the existence
-of any other man or of any material object; but at other times he
-will inevitably believe, as we all do, that he does know of the
-existence of this man and of that, and even of this and that material
-object. There can, therefore, be no question of making all our beliefs
-consistent with such views as this of never believing anything that is
-inconsistent with them. And it may, therefore, seem useless to discuss
-them. But in fact, it by no means follows that, because we are not able
-to adhere consistently to a given view, therefore that view is false;
-nor does it follow that we may not sincerely believe it, whenever we
-are philosophising, even though the moment we cease to philosophise, or
-even before, we may be forced to contradict it. And philosophers do,
-in fact, sincerely believe such things as this&mdash;things which flatly
-contradict the vast majority of the things which they believe at other
-times. Even Hume, I think, does sincerely wish to persuade us that
-we cannot know of the existence of external material objects&mdash;that
-this is a philosophic truth, which we ought, if we can, so long as we
-are philosophising, to believe. Many<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_158" id="Page_158">[Pg 158]</a></span> people, I think, are certainly
-tempted, in their philosophic moments, to believe such things; and,
-since this is so, it is, I think, worth while to consider seriously
-what arguments can be brought against such views. It is worth while to
-consider whether they are views which we ought to hold as philosophical
-opinions, even if it be quite certain that we shall never be able to
-make the views which we entertain at other times consistent with them.
-And it is the more worth while, because the question how we can prove
-or disprove such extreme views as these, has a bearing on the question
-how we can, in any case whatever, prove or disprove that we do really
-<i>know,</i> what we suppose ourselves to know.</p>
-
-<p>What arguments, then, are there for or against the extreme view that
-no man can know any external fact whatever; and the still more extreme
-view that no man can know any matter of fact whatever, except those
-which he is directly observing at the moment, or has observed in the
-past and now remembers?</p>
-
-<p>It may be pointed out, in the first place, that, if these views are
-true, then at least no man can possibly know them to be so. What
-these views assert is that I cannot know any external fact whatever.
-It follows, therefore, that I cannot know that there are any other
-men, beside myself, and that they are like me in this respect. Any
-philosopher who asserts positively that other men, equally with
-himself, are incapable of knowing any external facts, is, in that very
-assertion, contradicting himself, since he implies that he <i>does</i> know
-a great many facts about the knowledge of other men. No one, therefore,
-can be entitled to assert positively that human knowledge is limited
-in this way, since, in asserting it positively, he is implying that
-his own knowledge is not so limited. It cannot be proper, even in our<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_159" id="Page_159">[Pg 159]</a></span>
-philosophic moments, to take up such an attitude as this.</p>
-
-<p>No one, therefore, can know positively that men in general, are
-incapable of knowing external facts. But still, although we cannot
-<i>know</i> it, it remains possible that the view should be a true one. Nay,
-more, it remains possible that a man should know that <i>he himself</i>
-is incapable of knowing any external facts, and that, <i>if</i> there are
-any other men whose faculties are only similar to his own, they also
-must be incapable of knowing any. The argument just used obviously
-does not apply against such a position as this. It only applies
-against the position that men in general positively are incapable
-of knowing external facts: it does not apply against the position
-that the philosopher himself is incapable of knowing any, or against
-the position that there are <i>possibly</i> other men in the same case,
-and that, if their faculties are similar to the philosopher's, they
-certainly would be in it. I do not contradict myself by maintaining
-positively that <i>I</i> know no external facts, though I do contradict
-myself if I maintain that I am only one among other men, and that no
-man knows any external facts. So far, then, as Hume merely maintains
-that <i>he</i> is incapable of knowing any external facts, and that there
-<i>may</i> be other men like him in this respect, the argument just used is
-not valid against his position. Can any conclusive arguments be found
-against it?</p>
-
-<p>It seems to me that such a position must, in a certain sense, be quite
-incapable of disproof. So much must be granted to any sceptic who feels
-inclined to hold it. Any valid argument which can be brought against
-it must be of the nature of a <i>petitio principii:</i> it must beg the
-question at issue. How is the sceptic to prove to himself that he does
-know any external facts? He can only do it by bringing forward some
-instance of an external fact,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_160" id="Page_160">[Pg 160]</a></span> which he does know; and, in assuming
-that he does know this one, he is, of course, begging the question. It
-is therefore quite impossible for any one to <i>prove,</i> in one strict
-sense of the term, that he does know any external facts. I can only
-prove that I do, by assuming that in some particular instance, I
-actually do know one. That is to say, the so-called proof must assume
-the very thing which it pretends to prove. The only proof that we do
-know external facts lies in the simple fact that we do know them. And
-the sceptic can, with perfect internal consistency, deny that he does
-know any. But it can, I think, be shown that he has no reason for
-denying it. And in particular it may, I think, be easily seen that the
-arguments which Hume uses in favour of this position have no conclusive
-force.</p>
-
-<p>To begin with, his arguments, in both cases, depend upon the two
-original assumptions, (1) that we cannot know any fact, which we
-have not observed, unless we know it to be causally connected with
-some fact which we have observed, and (2) that we have no reason for
-assuming any causal connection, except where we have experienced some
-instances of conjunction between the two facts connected. And both of
-these assumptions may, of course, be denied. It is just as easy to deny
-them, as to deny that I do know any external facts. And, if these two
-assumptions did really lead to the conclusion that I cannot know any,
-it would, I think, be proper to deny them: we might fairly regard the
-fact that they led to this absurd conclusion as disproving them. But,
-in fact, I think it may be easily seen that they do not lead to it.</p>
-
-<p>Let us consider, first of all, Hume's most sceptical argument (the
-argument which he merely suggests). This argument suggests that, since
-our only reason for supposing two facts to be causally connected is
-that we have found them constantly conjoined in<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_161" id="Page_161">[Pg 161]</a></span> the past, and since
-it does not follow from the fact that they have been conjoined ever
-so many times, that they <i>always</i> will be so, therefore we cannot
-<i>know</i> that they always will be so, and hence cannot know that they are
-causally connected. But obviously the conclusion does not follow. We
-must, I think, grant the premiss that, from the fact that two things
-have been conjoined, no matter how often, it does not strictly <i>follow</i>
-that they <i>always</i> are conjoined. But it by no means follows from this
-that we may not <i>know</i> that, as a matter of fact, when two things are
-conjoined sufficiently often, they are also <i>always</i> conjoined. We
-may quite well <i>know</i> many things which do not logically follow from
-anything else which we know. And so, in this case, we may <i>know</i> that
-two things are causally connected, although this does not logically
-follow from our past experience, nor yet from anything else that we
-know. And, as for the contention that our belief in causal connections
-is merely based on <i>custom,</i> we may, indeed, admit that custom would
-not be a sufficient <i>reason</i> for concluding the belief to be true.
-But the mere fact (if it be a fact) that the belief is only caused by
-custom, is also no sufficient reason for concluding that we can <i>not</i>
-know it to be true. Custom <i>may</i> produce beliefs, which we do know to
-be true, even though it be admitted that it does not <i>necessarily</i>
-produce them.</p>
-
-<p>And as for Hume's argument to prove that we can never know any
-<i>external</i> object to be causally connected with anything which we
-actually observe, it is, I think, obviously fallacious. In order
-to prove this, he has, as he recognises, to disprove both of two
-theories. He has, first of all, to disprove what he calls the vulgar
-theory&mdash;the theory that we can know the very things which we see or
-feel to be external objects; that is to say, can know that these very
-things exist at times when<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_162" id="Page_162">[Pg 162]</a></span> we do not observe them. And even here, I
-think, his arguments are obviously inconclusive. But we need not stay
-to consider them, because, in order to prove that we cannot know any
-external objects, he has also to disprove what he calls the philosophic
-theory&mdash;the theory that we can know things which we do observe, to be
-caused by external objects which we never observe. If, therefore, his
-attempt to disprove this theory fails, his proof that we cannot know
-any external objects also fails; and I think it is easy to see that
-his disproof does fail. It amounts merely to this: That we cannot, <i>ex
-hypothesi,</i> ever observe these supposed external objects, and therefore
-cannot observe them to be constantly conjoined with any objects which
-we do observe. But what follows from this? His own theory about the
-knowledge of causal connection is not that in order to know A to be the
-cause of B, we must have observed A <i>itself</i> to be conjoined with B;
-but only that we must have observed objects <i>like</i> A to be constantly
-conjoined with objects <i>like</i> B. And what is to prevent an external
-object from being <i>like</i> some object which we have formerly observed?
-Suppose I have frequently observed a fact <i>like A</i> to be conjoined with
-a fact <i>like</i> B: and suppose I now observe B, on an occasion when I do
-not observe anything like A. There is no reason, on Hume's principles,
-why I should not conclude that A does exist on this occasion, even
-though I do not observe it; and that it is, therefore, an external
-object. It will, of course, differ from any object which I have ever
-observed, in respect of the simple fact that it is <i>not</i> observed by
-me, whereas they were. There is, therefore, this one respect in which
-it must be <i>unlike</i> anything which I have ever observed. But Hume has
-never said anything to show that unlikeness in this single respect is
-sufficient to invalidate the<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_163" id="Page_163">[Pg 163]</a></span> inference. It may quite well be like
-objects which I have observed in all other respects; and this degree
-of likeness may, according to his principles, be quite sufficient to
-justify us in concluding its existence. In short, when Hume argues that
-we cannot possibly learn by experience of the existence of any external
-objects, he is, I think, plainly committing the fallacy of supposing
-that, because we cannot, <i>ex hypothesis</i> have ever observed any object
-which actually is "external," therefore we can never have observed
-any object <i>like</i> an external one. But plainly we may have observed
-objects like them in all respects except the single one that these
-have been observed whereas the others have not. And even a less degree
-of likeness than this would, according to his principles, be quite
-sufficient to justify an inference of causal connection.</p>
-
-<p>Hume does not, therefore, bring forward any arguments at all sufficient
-to prove either that he cannot know any one object to be causally
-connected with any other or that he cannot know any external fact. And,
-indeed, I think it is plain that no conclusive argument could possibly
-be advanced in favour of these positions. It would always be at least
-as easy to deny the argument as to deny that we do know external facts.
-We may, therefore, each one of us, safely conclude that we do know
-external facts; and, if we do, then there is no reason why we should
-not also know that other men do the same. There is no reason why we
-should not, in this respect, make our philosophical opinions agree with
-what we necessarily believe at other times. There is no reason why I
-should not confidently assert that I do really <i>know</i> some external
-facts, although I cannot prove the assertion except by simply assuming
-that I do. I am, in fact, as certain of this as of anything; and as
-reasonably certain of it. But just as I am certain that I do<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_164" id="Page_164">[Pg 164]</a></span> know
-<i>some</i> external facts, so I am also certain that there are others which
-I do not know. And the question remains: Does the line between the
-two fall, where Hume says it falls? Is it true that the only external
-facts I know are facts for which I have a basis in my own experience?
-And that I cannot know any facts whatever, beyond the reach of my own
-observation and memory, except those for which I have such a basis?</p>
-
-<p>This, it seems to me, is the most serious question which Hume raises.
-And it should be observed that his own attitude towards it is very
-different from his attitude towards the sceptical views which we
-have just been considering. These sceptical views he did not expect
-or wish us to accept, except in philosophic moments. He declares
-that we cannot, in ordinary life, avoid believing things which are
-inconsistent with them; and, in so declaring, he, of course, implies
-incidentally that they are false: since he implies that he himself
-has a great deal of knowledge as to what we can and cannot believe in
-ordinary life. But, as regards the view that our knowledge of matters
-of fact beyond our own observation is entirely confined to such as are
-founded on experience, he never suggests that it is impossible that
-all our beliefs should be consistent with this view, and he does seem
-to think it eminently desirable that they should be. He declares that
-any assertion with regard to such matters, which is not founded on
-experience, can be nothing but "sophistry and illusion"; and that all
-books which are composed of such assertions should be "committed to the
-flames." He seems, therefore, to think that here we really have a test
-by which we may determine what we should or should not believe, on all
-occasions: any view on such matters, for which we have no foundation in
-experience, is a view which we cannot know to be<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_165" id="Page_165">[Pg 165]</a></span> even probably true,
-and which we should <i>never</i> accept, if we can help it. Is there any
-justification for this strong view?</p>
-
-<p>It is, of course, abstractly possible that we do really know, <i>without</i>
-the help of experience, some matters of fact, which we never have
-observed. Just as we know matters of fact, which we <i>have</i> observed,
-without the need of any further evidence, and just as we know, for
-instance, that 2+2=4, without the need of any proof, it is possible
-that we may know, directly and immediately, without the need of any
-basis in experience, some facts which we never have observed. This
-is certainly possible, in the same sense in which it is possible
-that I do not really know any external facts: no conclusive disproof
-can be brought against either position. We must make assumptions as
-to what facts we do know and do not know, before we can proceed to
-discuss whether or not all of the former are based on experience; and
-none of these assumptions can, in the last resort, be conclusively
-proved. We may offer one of them in proof of another; but it will
-always be possible to dispute the one which we offer in proof. But
-there are, in fact, certain kinds of things which we universally
-assume that we do know or do not know, just as we assume that we do
-know some external facts; and if among all the things which we know
-as certainly as this, there should turn out to be none for which we
-have no basis in experience, Hume's view would I think, be as fully
-proved as it is capable of being. The question is: Can it be proved
-in this sense? Among all the facts beyond our own observation, which
-we know most certainly, are there any which are certainly not based
-upon experience? For my part, I confess, I cannot feel certain what
-is the right answer to this question: I cannot tell whether Hume was
-right or wrong. But if he was wrong&mdash;if there are any<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_166" id="Page_166">[Pg 166]</a></span> matters of fact,
-beyond our own observation, which we know for certain, and which yet
-we know directly and immediately, without any basis in experience, we
-are, I think, faced with an eminently interesting problem. For it is,
-I think, as certain as anything can be that there are <i>some</i> kinds of
-facts with regard to which Hume was right&mdash;that there are <i>some</i> kinds
-of facts which we cannot know without the evidence of experience.
-I could not know, for instance, without some such evidence, such a
-fact as that Julius Caesar was murdered. For such a fact I must, in
-the first instance, have the evidence of other persons; and if I am
-to know that their evidence is trustworthy, I must have some ground
-in experience for supposing it to be so. There are, therefore, some
-kinds of facts which we cannot know without the evidence of experience
-and observation. And if it is to be maintained that there are others,
-which we can know without any such evidence, it ought to be pointed out
-exactly what kind of facts these are, and in what respects they differ
-from those which we cannot know without the help of experience. Hume
-gives us a very clear division of the kinds of propositions which we
-can know to be true. There are, first of all, some propositions which
-assert "relations of ideas "; there are, secondly, propositions which
-assert "matters of fact" which we ourselves are actually observing, or
-have observed and now remember; and there are, thirdly, propositions
-which assert "matters of fact" which we have never actually observed,
-but for believing in which we have some foundation in our past
-observations. And it is, I think, certain that some propositions, which
-we know as certainly as we know anything, do belong to each of these
-three classes. I know, for instance, that twice two are four; I know
-by direct observation that I am now seeing these words,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_167" id="Page_167">[Pg 167]</a></span> that I am
-writing, and by memory that this afternoon I saw St. Paul's; and I know
-also that Julius Caesar was murdered, and I have some foundation in
-experience for this belief, though I did not myself witness the murder.
-Do any of those propositions, which we know as certainly as we know
-these and their like, <i>not</i> belong to either of these three classes?
-Must we add a fourth class consisting of propositions which resemble
-the two last, in respect of the fact that they do assert "matters of
-fact," but which differ from them, in that we know them neither by
-direct observation nor by memory, nor yet as a result of previous
-observations? There may, perhaps, be such a fourth class; but, if there
-is, it is, I think, eminently desirable that it should be pointed out
-exactly what propositions they are which we do know in this way; and
-this, so far as I know, has never yet been done, at all clearly, by any
-philosopher.</p>
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_168" id="Page_168">[Pg 168]</a></span></p>
-
-
-
-
-<h4><a name="THE_STATUS_OF_SENSE-DATA" id="THE_STATUS_OF_SENSE-DATA">THE STATUS OF SENSE-DATA</a></h4>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<p>The term "sense-data" is ambiguous; and therefore I think I had better
-begin by trying to explain what the class of entities is whose status I
-propose to discuss.</p>
-
-<p>There are several different classes of mental events, all of which,
-owing to their intrinsic resemblance to one another in certain
-respects, may, in a wide sense, be called "sensory experiences,"
-although only some among them would usually be called "sensations."
-There are (1) those events, happening in our minds while we are
-awake, which consist in the experiencing of one of those entities,
-which are usually called "images," in the narrowest sense of the
-term. Everybody distinguishes these events from sensations proper;
-and yet everybody admits that "images" intrinsically resemble the
-entities which are experienced in sensations proper in some very
-important respect. There are (2) the sensory experiences we have in
-dreams, some of which would certainly be said to be experiences of
-images, while others might be said to be sensations. There are (3)
-hallucinations, and certain classes of illusory sensory experiences.
-There are (4) those experiences, which used to be called the having
-of "after-images," but which psychologists now say ought rather to
-be called "after-sensations." And there are, finally, (5) that class
-of sensory experiences, which are immensely commoner than any of the
-above, and which may be called <i>sensations proper</i>, if we agree to use
-this term in such a way as to exclude experiences of my first four
-sorts.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_169" id="Page_169">[Pg 169]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>Every event, of any one of these five classes, consists in the fact
-that an entity, of some kind or other, <i>is experienced.</i> The entity
-which is experienced may be of many different kinds; it may, for
-instance, be a patch of colour, or a sound, or a smell, or a taste,
-etc; or it may be an image of a patch of colour, an image of a
-sound, an image of a smell, an image of a taste, etc. But, whatever
-be its nature, the entity which <i>is</i> experienced must in all cases
-be distinguished from the fact or event which consists in its being
-experienced; since by saying that it is experienced we mean that it
-has a relation of a certain kind to something else. We can, therefore,
-speak not only of <i>experiences</i> of these five kinds, but also of the
-entities which <i>are experienced in</i> experiences of these kinds; and
-the entity which is experienced <i>in</i> such an experience is never
-identical with the experience which consists in its being experienced.
-But we can speak not only of the entities which <i>are</i> experienced in
-experiences of this kind, but also of <i>the sort</i> of entities which are
-experienced in experiences of this kind; and these two classes may
-again be different. For a patch of colour, even if it were not actually
-experienced, would be an entity <i>of the same sort</i> as some which are
-experienced in experiences of this kind: and there is no contradiction
-in supposing that there are patches of colour, which yet are not
-experienced; since by calling a thing a patch of colour we merely make
-a statement about its intrinsic quality, and in no way assert that
-it has to anything else any of the relations which may be meant by
-saying that it is experienced. In speaking, therefore, of <i>the sort
-of</i> entities which are experienced in experiences of the five kinds I
-have mentioned, we do not necessarily confine ourselves to those which
-actually <i>are</i> experienced in some such experience: we leave it an open
-question<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_170" id="Page_170">[Pg 170]</a></span> whether the two classes are identical or not. And the class
-of entities, whose status I wish to discuss, consists precisely of all
-those, whether experienced or not, which are <i>of the same sort</i> as
-those which are experienced in experiences of these five kinds.</p>
-
-<p>I intend to call this class of entities the class of <i>sensibles</i>; so
-that the question I am to discuss can be expressed in the form: What
-is the status of sensibles? And it must be remembered that images and
-after-images are just as much "sensibles," in my sense of the term, as
-the entities which are experienced in sensations proper; and so, too,
-are any patches of colour, or sounds, or smells, etc, (if such there
-be), which are not experienced at all.</p>
-
-<p>In speaking of sensibles as <i>the sort of</i> entities which are
-experienced in sensory experiences I seem to imply that all the
-entities which are experienced in sensory experiences have some
-common characteristic other than that which consists in their being
-so experienced. And I cannot help thinking that this is the case,
-in spite of the fact that it is difficult to see what intrinsic
-character can be shared in common by entities so different from one
-another as are patches of colour, sounds, smells, tastes, etc. For,
-so far as I can see, some non-sensory experiences may be exactly
-similar to sensory ones in all intrinsic respects, except that what
-is experienced in them is different in kind from what is experienced
-in any sensory experience: the relation meant by saying that in them
-something <i>is experienced</i> may be exactly the same in kind, and so may
-the experient. And, if this be so, it seems to compel us to admit that
-the distinction between sensory and non-sensory experiences is derived
-from that between sensibles, and non-sensibles and not <i>vice versâ.</i> I
-am inclined, therefore, to think that all sensibles, in spite of the
-great differences between them, have some common intrinsic property,
-which we<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_171" id="Page_171">[Pg 171]</a></span> recognise, but which is unanalysable; and that, when we call
-an experience sensory, what we mean is not only that in it something
-is experienced in a particular way, but also that this something has
-this unanalysable property. If this be so, the ultimate definition of
-"sensibles" would be merely all entities which have this unanalysable
-property.</p>
-
-<p>It seems to me that the term "sense-data" is often used, and may be
-correctly used, simply as a synonym for "sensibles"; and everybody,
-I think, would expect me, in discussing the status of sense-data,
-to discuss, among other things, the question whether there are any
-sensibles which are not "given." It is true that the etymology of the
-term "sense-data" suggests that nothing should be called a sense-datum,
-but what <i>is</i> given; so that to talk of a non-given sense-datum would
-be a contradiction in terms. But, of course, etymology is no safe guide
-either as to the actual or the correct use of terms; and it seems to me
-that the term "sense-data" is often, and quite properly, used merely
-for <i>the sort of</i> entities that are given in sense, and not in any way
-limited to those which are actually given. But though I think I might
-thus have used "sense-data" quite correctly instead of "sensibles,"
-I think the latter term is perhaps more convenient; because though
-nobody ought to be misled by etymologies, so many people in fact are
-so. Moreover the term "sense-data" is sometimes limited in yet another
-way, viz, to the sort of sensibles which are experienced in <i>sensations
-proper</i>; so that in this sense "images" would not be "sense-data."
-For both these reasons, I think it is perhaps better to drop the term
-"sense-data" altogether, and to speak only of "sensibles."</p>
-
-<p>My discussion of the status of sensibles will be divided into two
-parts. I shall first consider how,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_172" id="Page_172">[Pg 172]</a></span> in certain respects, they are
-related to our minds; and then I shall consider how, in certain
-respects, they are related to physical objects.</p>
-
-
-<p>(I)</p>
-
-
-<p>(1) We can, I think, distinguish pretty clearly at least one kind
-of relation which sensibles, of all the kinds I have mentioned, do
-undoubtedly sometimes have to our minds.</p>
-
-<p>I do now see certain blackish marks on a whitish ground, and I hear
-certain sounds which I attribute to the ticking of my clock. In both
-cases I have to certain sensibles&mdash;certain blackish marks, in the one
-case, and certain sounds, in the other&mdash;a kind of relation with which
-we are all perfectly familiar, and which may be expressed, in the one
-case, by saying that I actually <i>see</i> the marks, and in the other, by
-saying that I actually <i>hear</i> the sounds. It seems to me quite evident
-that the relation to the marks which I express by saying that I <i>see</i>
-them, is not different in kind from the relation to the sounds which
-I express by saying that I <i>hear</i> them. "Seeing" and "hearing," when
-thus used as names for a relation which we may have to sensibles, are
-not names for different relations, but merely express the fact that,
-in the one case, the kind of sensible to which I have a certain kind
-of relation is a patch of colour, while, in the other case, the kind
-of sensible to which I have the same kind of relation is a sound. And
-similarly when I say that I feel warm or smell a smell these different
-verbs do not express the fact that I have a different kind of relation
-to the sensibles concerned, but only that I have the <i>same</i> kind of
-relation to a different kind of sensible. Even when I call up a visual
-image of a sensible I saw yesterday, or an auditory image of a sound
-I heard yesterday, I have to those images exactly the same kind of
-relation which I have to the patches of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_173" id="Page_173">[Pg 173]</a></span> colour I now see and which I
-had yesterday to those I saw then.</p>
-
-<p>But this kind of relation, which I sometimes have to sensibles of
-all sorts of different kinds, images as well as others, is evidently
-quite different in kind from another relation which I may also have
-to sensibles. After looking at this black mark, I may turn away my
-head or close my eyes, and then I no longer <i>actually see</i> the mark I
-saw just now. I may, indeed, have (I myself actually do have at this
-moment) a visual <i>image</i> of the mark before my mind; and to this image
-I do now have exactly the same kind of relation which I had just now
-to the mark itself. But the image is not identical with the mark of
-which it is an image; and to the mark itself it is quite certain that
-I have <i>not</i> now got the same kind of relation as I had just now, when
-I was actually seeing it. And yet I certainly may <i>now</i> have to that
-mark itself a kind of relation, which may be expressed by saying that
-I am <i>thinking of</i> it or remembering it. I can <i>now</i> make judgments
-about <i>it itself</i>&mdash;the very sensible which I did see just now and am no
-longer seeing: as, for instance, that I did then see it and that it was
-different from the image of it which I am now seeing. It is, therefore,
-quite certain that there is a most important difference between the
-relation I have to a sensible when I am actually seeing or hearing it,
-and any relation (for there may be several) which I may have to the
-same sensible when I am only thinking or or remembering it. And I want
-to express this difference by using a particular term for the former
-relation. I shall express this relation, which I certainly do have to
-a sensible when I actually see or hear it, and most certainly do not
-have to it, when I only think of or remember it, by saying that there
-is in my mind a <i>direct apprehension</i> of it. I have expressly chosen
-this term<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_174" id="Page_174">[Pg 174]</a></span> because, so far as I know, it has not been used hitherto as
-a technical term; whereas all the terms which have been so used, such
-as "presented," "given," "perceived," seem to me to have been spoilt
-by ambiguity. People sometimes, no doubt, use these terms as names for
-the kind of relation I am concerned with. But you can never be sure,
-when an entity is said to be "given" or "presented" or "perceived,"
-that what is meant is simply and solely that it has to someone that
-relation which sensibles do undoubtedly have to me when I actually see
-or hear them, and which they do <i>not</i> have to me when I only think of
-or remember them.</p>
-
-<p>I have used the rather awkward expression "There is in my mind a
-direct apprehension of this black mark," because I want to insist that
-though, when I see the mark, the mark certainly has to <i>something</i>
-the fundamental relation which I wish to express by saying that it is
-directly apprehended, and though the event which consists in its being
-directly apprehended by that something is certainly a mental act of
-<i>mine</i> or which occurs in my mind, yet the something which directly
-apprehends it may quite possibly not be anything which deserves to be
-called "I" or "me." It is quite possible, I think, that there is <i>no</i>
-entity whatever which deserves to be called "I" or "me" or "my mind";
-and hence that nothing whatever is ever directly apprehended by <i>me.</i>
-Whether this is so or not, depends on the nature of that relation which
-certainly does hold between all those mental acts which are <i>mine</i>, and
-does not hold between any of mine and any of yours; and which holds
-again between all those mental acts which are yours, but does not hold
-between any of yours and any of mine. And I do not feel at all sure
-what the correct analysis of this relation is. It may be the case
-that the<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_175" id="Page_175">[Pg 175]</a></span> relation which unites all those acts of direct apprehension
-which are mine, and which is what we mean to say that they have to one
-another when we say they are all mine, really does consist in the fact
-that one and the same entity is <i>what</i> directly apprehends in each of
-them: in which case this entity could properly be called "me," and it
-<i>would</i> be true to say that, when I see this black mark, <i>I</i> directly
-apprehend it. But it is also quite possible (and this seems to me to
-be the view which is commonest amongst psychologists) that the entity
-which directly apprehends, in those acts of direct apprehension which
-are mine, is numerically different in every different act; and that
-what I mean by calling all these different acts <i>mine</i> is either merely
-that they have some kind of relation to <i>one another</i> or that they
-all have a common relation to some other entity, external to them,
-which may or may not be something which deserves to be called "me."
-On any such view, what I assert to be true of this black mark, when
-I say that it is seen by me, would not be simply that it is directly
-apprehended by me, but something more complex in which, besides
-direct apprehension, some other quite different relation was also
-involved. I should be asserting <i>both</i> (1) that the black mark is being
-directly apprehended by <i>something</i>, <i>and</i> (2) that this act of direct
-apprehension has to something else, external to it, a quite different
-relation, which is what makes it an act of <i>mine.</i> I do not know how to
-decide between these views, and that is why I wished to explain that
-the fundamental relation which I wish to call direct apprehension, is
-one which quite possibly never holds between <i>me</i> and any sensible.
-But, once this has been explained, I think no harm can result from
-using the expression "I directly apprehend A" as a synonym for "A
-direct apprehension of A occurs in my mind." And<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_176" id="Page_176">[Pg 176]</a></span> in future I shall so
-speak, because it is much more convenient.</p>
-
-<p>The only other point, which seems to me to need explanation, in order
-to make it quite clear what the relation I call "direct apprehension"
-is, concerns its relation to <i>attention</i>; and as to this I must confess
-I don't feel clear. In every case where it is quite clear to me that
-I am directly apprehending a given entity, it seems also clear to me
-that I am, more or less, attending to it; and it seems to me possible
-that what I mean by "direct apprehension" may be simply identical with
-what is meant by "attention," in <i>one</i> of the senses in which that word
-can be used. That it can, at most, only be identical with <i>one</i> of the
-relations meant by attention seems to me clear, because I certainly
-can be said to attend, in some sense or other, to entities, which I am
-not directly apprehending: I may, for instance, think, with attention,
-of a sensible, which I saw yesterday, and am certainly not seeing now.
-It is, therefore, clear that to say I am attending to a thing and yet
-am <i>not</i> directly apprehending it, is not a contradiction in terms:
-and this fact alone is sufficient to justify the use of the special
-term "direct apprehension." But whether to say that I am directly
-apprehending a given thing and yet am <i>not</i> attending to it, in any
-degree at all, is or is not a contradiction in terms, I admit I don't
-feel clear.</p>
-
-<p>However that may be, one relation, in which sensibles of all sorts do
-sometimes stand to our minds, is the relation constituted by the fact
-that we directly apprehend them: or, to speak more accurately, by the
-fact that events which consist in their being directly apprehended are
-<i>in</i> our minds, in the sense in which to say that an event is <i>in</i> our
-minds means merely that it is a mental act of <i>ours</i>&mdash;that it has to
-our other mental acts that relation (whatever it may be) which we mean
-by<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_177" id="Page_177">[Pg 177]</a></span> saying that they are all mental acts <i>of the same individual.</i> And
-it is clear that to say of a sensible that it is directly apprehended
-by me, is to say of it something quite different from what I say of a
-mental act of mine, when I say that this <i>mental act is in my mind</i>:
-for nothing is more certain than that an act of direct apprehension or
-belief may be in my mind, without being itself directly apprehended
-by me. If, therefore, by saying that a sensible is <i>in our minds</i>
-or is <i>ours,</i> we mean merely that it is directly apprehended by us,
-we must recognise that we are here using the phrases "in our minds"
-or "ours" in quite a different sense from that in which we use them
-when we talk of our mental acts being "in our minds" or "ours." And
-why I say this is because I think that these two relations are very
-apt to be confused. When, for instance, we say of a given entity that
-it is "experienced," or when the Germans say that it is "erlebt," it
-is sometimes meant, I think, merely that it is directly apprehended,
-but sometimes that it is in my mind, in the sense in which, when I
-entertain a belief, this act of belief is in my mind.</p>
-
-<p>But (2) it seems to me to be commonly held that sensibles are often
-in our minds in some sense quite other than that of being directly
-apprehended by us or that of being thought of by us. This seems to me
-to be often what is meant when people say that they are "immediately
-experienced" or are "subjective modifications"; though, of course,
-both expressions are so ambiguous, that when people say that a given
-entity is immediately experienced or is a subjective modification, they
-<i>may</i> mean merely that it is directly apprehended. And since I think
-this view is held, I want to explain that I see no reason whatever for
-thinking that sensibles ever are experienced by us in any other sense
-than that of being directly apprehended by us.<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_178" id="Page_178">[Pg 178]</a></span> Two kinds of argument,
-I think, are sometimes used to show that they are.</p>
-
-<p>(<i>a</i>) It is a familiar fact that, when, for instance, we are in a room
-with a ticking clock, we may seem suddenly to become aware of the
-ticks, whereas, so far as we can tell, we had previously not heard
-them at all. And it may be urged that in these cases, since the same
-kind of stimulus was acting on our ears all the time, we must have
-<i>experienced</i> the same kind of sensible sounds, although we did not
-directly apprehend them.</p>
-
-<p>But I think most psychologists are now agreed that this argument is
-quite worthless. There seem to me to be two possible alternatives to
-the conclusion drawn. It may, I think, possibly be the case that we
-did directly apprehend the ticks all the time, but that we cannot
-afterwards remember that we did, because the degree of attention (if
-any) with which we heard them was so small, that in ordinary life we
-should say that we did not attend to them at all. But, what, I think,
-is much more likely is that, though the same stimulus was acting on
-our ears, it failed to produce any mental effect whatever, because our
-attention was otherwise engaged.</p>
-
-<p>(<i>b</i>) It is said that sometimes when we suddenly become aware, say,
-of the eighth stroke of a striking clock, we can <i>remember</i> earlier
-strokes, although we seem to ourselves <i>not</i> to have directly
-apprehended them. I cannot say that I have ever noticed this experience
-in myself, but I have no doubt that it is possible. And people seem
-inclined to argue that, since we can remember the earlier strokes, we
-must have experienced them, though we did not directly apprehend them.</p>
-
-<p>But here again, the argument does not seem to me at all conclusive. I
-should say, again, that it is possible that we did directly apprehend
-them, but<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_179" id="Page_179">[Pg 179]</a></span> only with a very slight degree of attention (if any). And,
-as an alternative, I should urge that there is no reason why we should
-not be able to remember a thing, which we never experienced at all.</p>
-
-<p>I do not know what other arguments can be used to show that we
-sometimes <i>experience</i> sensibles in a sense quite other than that of
-directly apprehending them. But I do not know how to show that we do
-not; and since people whose judgment I respect, seem to hold that we
-do, I think it is worth while to say something as to what this sense of
-"experience" can be, in case it does occur.</p>
-
-<p>I have said that sometimes when people say that a given entity is
-"experienced" they seem to mean that it belongs to some individual,
-in the sense in which my acts of belief belong to me. To say that
-sensibles were experienced by me in this sense would, therefore, be to
-say that they sometimes have to my acts of belief and acts of direct
-apprehension the same relation which these have to one another&mdash;the
-relation which constitutes them <i>mine.</i> But that sensibles ever have
-this kind of relation to my mental acts, is a thing which I cannot
-believe. Those who hold that they are ever experienced at all, in some
-sense other than that of being directly apprehended, always hold, I
-think, that, whenever they are directly apprehended by us, they also,
-at the same time, have to us this other relation as well. And it seems
-to me pretty clear that when I do directly apprehend a sensible, it
-does <i>not</i> have to me the same relation which my direct apprehension of
-it has.</p>
-
-<p>If, therefore, sensibles are ever experienced by us at all, in any
-sense other than that of being directly apprehended by us, we must, I
-think, hold that they are so in an entirely new sense, quite different
-both from that in which to be experienced means to be directly
-apprehended, and from that in which to be<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_180" id="Page_180">[Pg 180]</a></span> experienced means to occur
-in some individual's mind. And I can only say that I see no reason to
-think that they ever are experienced in any such sense. If they are,
-the fact that they are so is presumably open to the inspection of us
-all; but I cannot distinguish any such fact as occurring in myself, as
-I can distinguish the fact that they are directly apprehended. On the
-other hand, I see no way of showing that they are <i>not</i> experienced in
-some such sense; and perhaps somebody will be able to point it out to
-me. I do not wish to assume, therefore, that there <i>is</i> no such sense;
-and hence, though I am inclined to think that the <i>only</i> sense in which
-they are experienced is that of being directly apprehended, I shall, in
-what follows, use the phrase "experienced" to mean <i>either</i> directly
-apprehended <i>or</i> having to something this supposed different relation,
-if such a relation there be.</p>
-
-<p>(3) We may now, therefore, raise the question: Do sensibles ever exist
-at times when they are not being experienced at all?</p>
-
-<p>To this question it is usual to give a negative answer, and two
-different <i>a priori</i> reasons may be urged in favour of that answer.</p>
-
-<p>The first is what should be meant by Berkeley's dictum that the <i>esse</i>
-of sensibles is <i>percipi.</i> This should mean, whatever else it may mean,
-at least this: that to suppose a sensible to exist and yet <i>not</i> to
-be experienced in self-contradictory. And this at least seems to me
-to be clearly false. Anything which was a patch of colour would be a
-sensible; and to suppose that there are patches of colour which are not
-being experienced is clearly not self-contradictory, however false it
-may be.</p>
-
-<p>It may, however, be urged (and this is the second argument) that,
-though to suppose a thing to be a sensible and <i>yet</i> not experienced is
-not self-contradictory, yet we can clearly see that nothing<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_181" id="Page_181">[Pg 181]</a></span> can have
-the one property without having the other. And I do not see my way to
-deny that we may be able to know, <i>a priori</i> that such a connection
-holds between two such properties. In the present case, however, I
-cannot see that it does hold, and therefore, so far as <i>a priori</i>
-reasons go, I conclude that there is no reason why sensibles should not
-exist at times when they are not experienced.</p>
-
-<p>It may, however, be asked: Is there any reason to suppose that they
-ever do? And the reason, which weighs with me most, is one which
-applies, I think, to a certain class of sensibles <i>only</i>; a class
-which I will try to define by saying that it consists of those which
-<i>would</i> (under certain conditions which actually exist) be experienced
-in a <i>sensation proper, if only</i> a living body, having a certain
-constitution, existed under those conditions in a position in which no
-such body does actually exist. I think it is very probable that this
-definition does not define at all accurately the kind of sensibles I
-mean; but I think that what the definition aims at will become clearer
-when I proceed to give my reasons for supposing that sensibles, of a
-kind to be defined in <i>some</i> such way, do exist unexperienced. The
-reason is simply that, in Hume's phrase, I have "a strong propensity
-to believe" that, <i>e.g.,</i> the visual sensibles which I directly
-apprehend in looking at this paper, still exist unchanged when I merely
-alter the position of my body by turning away my head or closing my
-eyes, <i>provided</i> that the physical conditions outside my body remain
-unchanged. In such a case it is certainly true in some sense that I
-<i>should</i> see sensibles like what I saw the moment before, <i>if only</i>
-my head were still in the position it was at that moment or my eyes
-unclosed. But if, in such a case, there is reason to think that
-sensibles which I should see, if the position of my body were altered,
-exist in spite of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_182" id="Page_182">[Pg 182]</a></span> the fact that I do not experience them, there is,
-I think, an equal reason to suppose it in other cases. We must, for
-instance, suppose that the sensibles which I should see now, if I were
-at the other end of the room, or if I were looking under the table,
-exist at this moment, though they are not being experienced. And
-similarly we must suppose that the sensibles which <i>you</i> would see, if
-you were in the position in which I am now, exist at this moment, in
-spite of the fact that they may be more or less different from those
-which I see, owing to the different constitution of our bodies. All
-this implies of course, that a vast number of sensibles exist at any
-moment, which are not being experienced at all. But still it implies
-this only with regard to sensibles of a strictly limited class, namely
-sensibles which would be experienced <i>in a sensation proper,</i> if a
-body, having a certain constitution, were in a position in which it is
-not, under the given physical conditions. It does not, for instance,
-imply that any <i>images,</i> of which it may be true that I <i>should</i>
-have them, under present physical conditions, if the position of my
-body were altered, exist now; nor does it imply that sensibles which
-<i>would</i> be experienced by me now in a sensation proper, if the physical
-conditions external to my body were different from what they are, exist
-now.</p>
-
-<p>I feel, of course, that I have only succeeded in defining miserably
-vaguely the kind of sensibles I mean; and I do not know whether the
-fact that I have a strong propensity to believe that sensibles of a
-kind to be defined in some such way, do exist unexperienced, is any
-good reason for supposing that they actually do. The belief may, of
-course, be a mere prejudice. But I do not know of any certain test by
-which prejudices can be distinguished from reasonable beliefs. And I
-cannot help thinking that there may be a class of sensibles, capable
-of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_183" id="Page_183">[Pg 183]</a></span> definition in <i>some</i> such way, which there really is reason to
-think exist unexperienced.</p>
-
-<p>But, if I am not mistaken, there is an empirical argument which,
-though, even if it were sound, it would have no tendency whatever to
-show that <i>no</i> sensibles exist unexperienced, would, if it were sound,
-show that this very class of sensibles, to which alone my argument for
-unexperienced existence applies, certainly do not so exist. This, it
-seems to me, is the most weighty argument which can be used upon the
-subject; and I want, therefore, to give my reasons for thinking that it
-is fallacious.</p>
-
-<p>The argument is one which asserts that there is abundant empirical
-evidence in favour of the view that the existence of the sensibles
-which we experience at any time, always depends upon the condition of
-our nervous system: so that, even where it also depends upon external
-physical conditions, we can safely say that sensibles, which we should
-have experienced, if only our nervous system had been in a different
-condition, certainly do not exist, when it is not in that condition.
-And the fallacy of this argument seems to me to lie in the fact that
-it does not distinguish between the existence of the sensibles <i>which</i>
-we experience and <i>the fact that we experience them.</i> What there <i>is</i>
-evidence for is that <i>our experience</i> of sensibles always depends upon
-the condition of our nervous system; that, according as the condition
-of the nervous system changes, different sensibles are <i>experienced</i>,
-even where other conditions are the same. But obviously the fact that
-our experience of a given sensible depends upon the condition of our
-nervous system does not directly show that the existence of <i>the
-sensible experienced</i> always also so depends. The fact that I am now
-experiencing this black mark is certainly a different fact from the
-fact that this black mark now exists. And hence the evidence which
-does tend to show that<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_184" id="Page_184">[Pg 184]</a></span> the former fact would not have existed if my
-nervous system had been in a different condition, has no tendency to
-show that the latter would not have done so either. I am sure that this
-distinction ought to be made; and hence, though I think there may be
-other reasons for thinking that the very existence of the sensibles,
-which we experience, and not merely the fact that we experience them
-<i>does</i> always depend upon the condition of our nervous systems, it
-seems to me certain that this particular argument constitutes no such
-reason.</p>
-
-<p>And I think that those who suppose that it does are apt to be
-influenced by an assumption, for which also, so far as I can see,
-there is no reason. I have admitted that the only reason I can see for
-supposing that sensibles which we experience ever exist unexperienced,
-seems to lead to the conclusion that the sensibles which would be seen
-by a colour-blind man, if he occupied exactly the position which I, who
-am not colour-blind, now occupy, exist now, just as much as those which
-I now see. And it may be thought that this implies that the sensibles,
-which he would see, and which would certainly be very different from
-those which I see, are nevertheless at this moment in exactly the same
-place as those which I see. Now, for my part, I am not prepared to
-admit that it is impossible they should be in the same place. But the
-assumption against which I wish to protest, is the assumption that,
-if they exist at all, they <i>must</i> be in the same place. I can see no
-reason whatever for this assumption. And hence any difficulties there
-may be in the way of supposing that they could be in the same place at
-the same time as the sensibles which I see, do not at all apply to my
-hypothesis, which is only that they exist <i>now, not</i> that they exist
-<i>in the same place</i> in which mine do.</p>
-
-<p>On this question, therefore, as to whether sensibles ever exist at
-times when they are not<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_185" id="Page_185">[Pg 185]</a></span> experienced, I have only to say (1) that I
-think there is certainly no good reason whatever for asserting that
-<i>no</i> sensibles do; and (2) that I think perhaps a certain amount of
-weight ought to be attached to our instinctive belief that certain
-kinds of sensibles do; and that here again any special arguments which
-may be brought forward to show that, whether some sensibles exist
-unexperienced or not, <i>this</i> kind certainly do not, are, so far as I
-can see, wholly inconclusive.</p>
-
-
-
-<p>(II)</p>
-
-
-<p>I now pass to the question how sensibles are related to physical
-objects. And here I want to say, to begin with, that I feel extremely
-puzzled about the whole subject. I find it extremely difficult to
-distinguish clearly from one another the different considerations which
-ought to be distinguished; and all I can do is to raise, more or less
-vaguely, certain questions as to how certain <i>particular</i> sensibles
-are related to certain <i>particular</i> physical objects, and to give
-the reasons which seem to me to have most weight for answering these
-questions in one way rather than another. I feel that all that I can
-say is very tentative.</p>
-
-<p>To begin with, I do not know how "physical object" is to be defined,
-and I shall not try to define it. I shall, instead, consider certain
-propositions, which everybody will admit to be propositions <i>about</i>
-physical objects, and which I shall assume that I know to be true.
-And the question I shall raise is as to how these propositions are to
-be interpreted<i>&mdash;in what sense</i> they are true; in considering which,
-we shall at the same time consider how they are related to certain
-sensibles.</p>
-
-<p>I am looking at two coins, one of which is a half-crown, the other a
-florin. Both are lying on the ground; and they are situated obliquely
-to<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_186" id="Page_186">[Pg 186]</a></span> my line of sight, so that the visual sensibles which I directly
-apprehend in looking at them are visibly elliptical, and not even
-approximately circular. Moreover, the half-crown is so much farther
-from me than the florin that <i>its</i> visual sensible is visibly smaller
-than that of the florin.</p>
-
-<p>In these circumstances I am going to assume that I know the following
-propositions to be true; and no one, I think, will deny that we can
-know such propositions to be true, though, as we shall see, extremely
-different views may be taken as to what they mean. I know (<i>a</i>) that,
-in the ordinary sense of the word "see" I am <i>really seeing two coins;</i>
-an assertion which includes, if it is not identical with, the assertion
-that the visual experiences, which consist in my direct apprehension
-of those two elliptical patches of colour, <i>are</i> sensations proper,
-and are not either hallucinations nor mere experiences of "images";
-(<i>b</i>) that the upper sides of the coins are <i>really</i> approximately
-circular, and not merely elliptical like the visual sensibles; (<i>c</i>)
-that the coins <i>have</i> another side, and an inside, though I don't see
-it; (<i>d</i>) that the upper side of the half-crown is really <i>larger</i>
-than that of the florin, though its visual sensible is <i>smaller</i> than
-the visual sensible of the upper side of the florin: (<i>e</i>) that both
-coins continue to exist, even when I turn away my head or shut my eyes;
-but in saying this, I do not, of course, mean to say that there is
-absolutely <i>no</i> change in them; I daresay there must be <i>some</i> change,
-and I do not know how to define exactly what I do mean. But we can, I
-think, say at least this: viz., that propositions (<i>h</i>), (<i>c</i>), and
-(<i>d</i>) will still be true, although proposition (<i>a</i>) has ceased to be
-true.</p>
-
-<p>Now all these propositions are, I think, typical propositions of the
-sort which we call propositions about physical objects; and the two
-coins themselves<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_187" id="Page_187">[Pg 187]</a></span> <i>are</i> physical objects, if anything is. My question
-is: <i>In what sense</i> are these propositions true?</p>
-
-<p>And in considering this question, there are, I think, two principles
-which we can lay down as certain to begin with; though they do not
-carry us very far.</p>
-
-<p>The one is (<i>a</i>) that the upper side of the coin, which I am said
-to <i>see,</i> is not simply identical with the visual sensible which I
-<i>directly apprehend</i> in seeing it. That this is so might be thought to
-follow absolutely from each of the two facts which I have called (<i>b</i>)
-and (<i>d</i>); but I am not quite sure that it does follow from either of
-these or from both together: for it seems to me just possible that the
-two sensibles in question, though <i>not</i> circular <i>in my private space,</i>
-may yet be circular in <i>physical</i> space; and similarly that though the
-sensible of the half-crown is smaller than that of the florin <i>in my
-private space,</i> it may be larger <i>in physical space.</i> But what I think
-it does follow from is the fact that another person may be seeing the
-upper side of the coin in exactly the same sense in which I am seeing
-it, and yet his sensible be certainly different from mine. From this it
-follows absolutely that the upper side of the coin cannot be identical
-with <i>both</i> sensibles, since they are <i>not</i> identical with one another.
-And though it does not follow absolutely that it may not be identical
-with <i>one</i> of the two, yet it does follow that we <i>can</i> get a case in
-which it is not identical with <i>mine</i> and I need only assume that the
-case I am taking is such a case.</p>
-
-<p>From this it follows that we must distinguish that sense of the word
-"see" in which we can be said to "see" a physical object, from that
-sense of the word in which "see" means merely to directly apprehend
-a visual sensible. In a proposition of the form "I see A," where A
-is a name or description of some physical object, though, if this
-proposition<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_188" id="Page_188">[Pg 188]</a></span> is to be true, there must be some visual sensible, B,
-which I am directly apprehending, yet the proposition "I see A" is
-certainly not always, and probably never, identical in meaning with the
-proposition "I directly apprehend B." In asserting "I see A" we are
-asserting not only that we directly apprehend some sensible but also
-something else about this sensible&mdash;it may be only some proposition of
-the form, "and this sensible has certain other properties," or it may
-be some proposition of the form "and <i>I know</i> this sensible to have
-certain other properties." Indeed we have not only to distinguish that
-sense of the word "perceive" in which it is equivalent to "directly
-apprehend," from <i>one</i> sense in which we can be said to perceive a
-physical object; we have also to distinguish at least two different
-senses in which we can be said to perceive physical objects, different
-both from one another and from "directly apprehend." For it is obvious
-that though I should be said to be now seeing <i>the half-crown</i>, there
-is a narrower, and more proper, sense, in which I can only be said
-to <i>see</i> one side of it<i>&mdash;not</i> its lower side or its inside, and not
-therefore the whole half-crown.</p>
-
-<p>The other principle, which we can lay down to start with is (<i>β</i>) that
-my knowledge of all the five propositions (<i>a</i>) to (<i>e</i>), is based,
-in the last resort, on experiences of mine consisting in the direct
-apprehension of sensibles and in the perception of relations between
-directly apprehended sensibles. It is <i>based</i> on these, in at least
-this sense, that I should never have known any of these propositions
-if I had never directly apprehended any sensibles nor perceived any
-relations between them.</p>
-
-<p>What, in view of these two principles, can be the sense in which my
-five propositions are true?</p>
-
-<p>(1) It seems to me possible that the only <i>true</i><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_189" id="Page_189">[Pg 189]</a></span> interpretation which
-can be given to any of them is an interpretation of a kind which I
-can only indicate rather vaguely as follows: Namely, that all of them
-express only a kind of fact which we should naturally express by saying
-that, <i>if</i> certain conditions were fulfilled, I or some other person,
-<i>should</i> directly apprehend certain other sensibles. For instance
-the only <i>true</i> thing that can be meant by saying that I really see
-<i>coins</i> may be some such thing as that, <i>if</i> I were to move my body in
-certain ways, I should directly apprehend <i>other</i> sensibles, <i>e.g.</i>
-tactual ones, which I should not directly apprehend as a consequence
-of these movements, if these present visual experiences of mine were
-mere hallucinations or experiences of "images." Again, the only true
-thing that can be meant by saying that the upper sides of the coins
-are <i>really</i> approximately circular may be some such thing as that,
-<i>if</i> I were looking straight at them, I should directly apprehend
-circular sensibles. And similarly, the only true interpretation of
-(<i>c</i>) may be some such fact as that, <i>if</i> I were to turn the coins
-over, or break them up, I <i>should</i> have certain sensations, of a sort I
-can imagine very well; of (<i>d</i>) that <i>if</i> I were at an equal distance
-from the half-crown and the florin, the sensible, I should then see
-corresponding to the half-crown would be bigger than that corresponding
-to the florin, whereas it is now smaller; of (<i>e</i>) that, <i>if,</i> when
-my eyes were closed, they had been open instead, I should have seen
-certain sensibles.</p>
-
-<p>It is obvious, indeed, that if any interpretation on these lines <i>is</i>
-the only true interpretation of our five propositions, none of those
-which I have vaguely suggested comes anywhere near to expressing it in
-its ultimate form. They cannot do so for the simple reason that, in
-them, the conditions under which I <i>should</i> experience certain other
-sensibles are themselves expressed in terms of <i>physical objects,</i> and
-not<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_190" id="Page_190">[Pg 190]</a></span> in terms of sensibles and our experience of them. The conditions
-are expressed in such terms as "if I were to move my body," "if I
-were to look straight at the coins," "if I were to turn the coins
-over," etc.; and all these are obviously propositions, which must
-themselves again be interpreted in terms of sensibles, if our original
-five propositions need to be so. It is obvious, therefore, that any
-<i>ultimate</i> interpretation of our five propositions, on these lines,
-would be immensely complicated; and I cannot come anywhere near to
-stating exactly what it would be. But it seems to me possible that
-<i>some</i> such interpretation could be found, and that it is the <i>only</i>
-true one.</p>
-
-<p>The great recommendation of this view seems to me to be that it enables
-us to see, more clearly than any other view can, how our knowledge of
-physical propositions can be based on our experience of sensibles, in
-the way in which principle (<i>β</i>) asserts it to be. If, when I know
-that the coins are round, all that I know is some such thing as that
-if, after experiencing the sensibles I do now experience, I were to
-experience still others, I should finally experience a third set, we
-can understand, as clearly as we can understand how any knowledge can
-be obtained by induction at all, how such a knowledge could be based on
-our previous experience of sensibles, and how it could be verified by
-our subsequent experience.</p>
-
-<p>On the other hand, apart from the difficulty of actually giving any
-interpretation on these lines, which will meet the requirements,
-the great objection to it seems to me to be this. It is obvious
-that, on this view, though we shall still be allowed to say that the
-coins <i>existed</i> before I saw them, are <i>circular</i> etc., all these
-expressions, if they are to be true, will have to be understood in a
-Pickwickian sense. When I know that the coins existed before<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_191" id="Page_191">[Pg 191]</a></span> I saw
-them, what I know will not be that anything whatever existed at that
-time, in the sense in which those elliptical patches of colour exist
-now. <i>All</i> that I know will be simply that, since the elliptical
-patches exist now, it is true, that, <i>if</i> certain unrealised conditions
-had been realised, I should have had certain sensations that I have
-not had; or, <i>if</i> certain conditions, which may or may not be realised
-in the future, were to be so, I <i>should</i> have certain experiences.
-Something like this will actually be the <i>only true</i> thing that can
-be meant by saying that the coins existed before I saw them. In
-other words, to say of a <i>physical object</i> that it <i>existed</i> at a
-given time will always consist merely in saying of some sensible,
-<i>not</i> that <i>it</i> existed at the time in question, but something quite
-different and immensely complicated. And thus, though, when I know that
-the coins exist, what I know will be merely some proposition about
-these sensibles which I am directly apprehending, yet this view will
-not contradict principle (<i>a</i>) by <i>identifying</i> the coins with the
-sensibles. For it will say that to assert a given thing of the <i>coins</i>
-is not equivalent to asserting the <i>same thing</i> of the sensibles, but
-only to asserting of them something quite different.</p>
-
-<p>The fact that these assertions that the coins exist, are round, etc.,
-will, on this view, only be true in this outrageously Pickwickian
-sense, seems to me to constitute the great objection to it. But it
-seems to me to be an objection only, so far as I can see, because I
-have a "strong propensity to believe" that, when I know that the coins
-existed before I saw them, <i>what</i> I know is that something existed at
-that time, in the very same sense in which those elliptical patches now
-exist. And, of course, this belief <i>may</i> be a mere prejudice. It <i>may</i>
-be that when I believe that I <i>now</i> have, in my body, blood and nerves
-and brain, <i>what</i> I believe is only true, if<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_192" id="Page_192">[Pg 192]</a></span> it does <i>not</i> assert, in
-the proper sense of the word "existence," the <i>present</i> existence of
-anything whatever, other than sensibles which I directly apprehend, but
-only makes assertions as to the kind of experiences a doctor <i>would</i>
-have, if he dissected me. But I cannot feel at all sure that my belief,
-that, when I know of the present Existence of these things (as I think
-I do), I am knowing of the present existence (in the proper sense) of
-things other than any sensibles which I or any one else am now directly
-apprehending, is a mere prejudice. And therefore I think it is worth
-while to consider what, if it is not, these things, of whose existence
-I know, can be.</p>
-
-<p>(2) It is certain that if, when I know that that half-crown existed
-before I saw it, I am knowing that something existed at that time
-in other than a Pickwickian sense, I only know this something <i>by
-description</i>; and it seems pretty clear that the description by
-which I know it is as <i>the</i> thing which has a certain connection
-with this sensible which I am now directly apprehending. But <i>what</i>
-connection? We cannot simply say, as many people have said, that by
-"that half-crown" I mean <i>the</i> thing which <i>caused</i> my experience of
-this sensible; because events which happen between the half-crown and
-my eyes, and events in my eyes, and optic nerves, and brains are just
-as much <i>causes</i> of my experiences as the half-crown itself. But it
-may perhaps be the case that the half-crown has some particular <i>kind</i>
-of causal relation to my experience, which these other events have not
-got&mdash;a kind which may be expressed, perhaps, by saying that it is its
-"source." And hence, when I know that that half-crown is circular, I
-may perhaps be knowing that the <i>source</i> of this experience is circular.</p>
-
-<p>But what sort of a thing can this "source" be?</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_193" id="Page_193">[Pg 193]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>One kind of view, which I think is very commonly held, is that it is
-something "spiritual" in its nature, or something whose nature is
-utterly unknown to us. And those who hold this view are apt to add,
-that it is not really "circular," in any sense at all; nor is the
-"source" of my half-crown experience, in any sense at all, "bigger"
-than that of my florin experience. But if this addition were seriously
-meant, it would, of course, amount to saying that propositions (<i>b</i>)
-and (<i>d</i>) are not true, in any sense at all; and I do not think
-that those who make it, really mean to say this. I think that what
-they mean is only that the only sense in which those "sources" are
-circular, and one bigger than the other, is one in which to say this
-merely amounts to saying that the sensibles, which they <i>would</i> cause
-us to experience, under certain conditions, <i>would</i> be circular, and
-one bigger than the other. In other words, in order to give a true
-interpretation to the propositions that the coins are circular and one
-bigger than the other, they say that we must interpret them in the same
-kind of way in which view (1) interpreted them; and the only difference
-between their view and view (1), is that, whereas <i>that</i> said that you
-must give a Pickwickian interpretation <i>both</i> to the assertion that the
-coins <i>exist, and</i> to the assertion that they are <i>circular</i>, they say
-that you must <i>not</i> give it to the former assertion, and must to the
-latter.</p>
-
-<p>To this view my objection is only that any reason there may be for
-saying that the "sources" exist in other than a Pickwickian sense,
-seems to me to be also a reason for saying that they are "circular" in
-a sense that is not Pickwickian. I have just as strong a propensity to
-believe that they are really circular, in a simple and natural sense,
-as that they exist in such a sense: and I know of no better reason for
-believing either.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_194" id="Page_194">[Pg 194]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>(3) It may be suggested, next, that these "sources," instead of being
-something spiritual in their nature or something of a nature utterly
-unknown, consist simply of sensibles, of a kind which I have previously
-tried to define; namely of all those sensibles, which anybody <i>would,</i>
-under the actual physical conditions, experience in <i>sensations proper</i>
-of which the half-crown and the florin were the source, <i>if</i> their
-bodies were in any of the positions relatively to those coins, in which
-they would get sensations from them at all. We saw before that it seems
-<i>possible</i> that all these sensibles do really exist at times when they
-are not experienced, and that some people, at all events, seem to have
-a strong propensity to believe that they do. And in favour of the view
-that some such huge collection of sensibles <i>is</i> the upper side of the
-half-crown, is the fact that we do seem to have a strong propensity
-to believe that any particular sensible, which we directly apprehend
-in looking at the upper side of the half-crown, and of our direct
-apprehension of which the upper side is the source, is <i>in the place</i>
-in which the upper side is. And that <i>some</i> sense might be given to
-the expression "in the same place as," in which it could be true that
-sensibles of all sorts of different shapes and sizes, and of all sorts
-of different colours, were in the same place at the same time, seems to
-me to be possible. But the objection to this view seems to me to be the
-same as to the last; namely that if the upper side of the half-crown
-were identical with such a collection of sensibles, then the only sense
-in which it could be said to be "circular," or bigger than that of the
-florin, would certainly be very Pickwickian, though not the same as on
-that view.</p>
-
-<p>(4) If, for the reasons given, we reject both (1), (2), and (3) as
-interpretations of our five<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_195" id="Page_195">[Pg 195]</a></span> propositions, the only alternative I
-can think of that remains, is one which is roughly identical, so far
-as I can see, with Locke's view. It is a view which asserts that the
-half-crown and the florin really did exist (in the natural sense)
-before I saw them; that they really are approximately circular (again
-in the natural sense); that, therefore, they are not composed of
-sensibles which I or others should directly apprehend under other
-conditions; and that therefore also neither these sensibles (even if
-such do now exist) nor those which I am now directly apprehending are
-in the place in which the coins are. It holds, therefore, that the
-coins do really <i>resemble</i> some sensibles, in respect of the "primary"
-qualities which these have; that they really are round, and one larger
-than the other, in much the same sense in which some sensibles are
-round and some larger than others. But it holds also that no sensibles
-which we ever do directly apprehend, or should directly apprehend, if
-at a given time we were in other positions, are <i>parts</i> of those coins;
-and that, therefore, there is no reason to suppose that any parts of
-the coins have any of the "secondary qualities"&mdash;colour, etc.&mdash;which
-any of these sensibles have.</p>
-
-<p>On this view, it is plain, there is nothing to prevent us from holding
-that, as suggested in I (3), all sorts of unexperienced sensibles do
-exist. We are only prevented from holding that, if they do, those which
-have the same source all exist in the <i>same place</i> as their source.
-And the natural view to take as to the status of sensibles generally,
-relatively to physical objects, would be that none of them, whether
-experienced or not, were ever in the same place as any physical object.
-That none, therefore, exist "anywhere" in physical space; while, at the
-same time, we can also say, as argued in I (2), that none exist "in the
-mind," except in<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_196" id="Page_196">[Pg 196]</a></span> the sense that some are directly apprehended by some
-minds. And the only thing that would need to be added, is that some,
-and some only, <i>resemble</i> the physical objects which are their source,
-in respect of their shape.</p>
-
-<p>To this view I can see no objection except the serious one that it
-is difficult to answer the questions: How can I ever come to know
-that these sensibles have a "source" at all? And how do I know that
-these "sources" are circular? It would seem that, if I do know these
-things at all, I must know <i>immediately</i>, in the case of <i>some</i>
-sensibles, both that they have a source and what the shape of this
-source is. And to this it may be objected that this is a kind of thing
-which I certainly cannot know immediately. The argument in favour
-of an interpretation of type (i) seems to me to rest wholly on the
-assumption that there are only certain kinds of facts which I can know
-immediately; and hence that if I believe I know a fact, which is not of
-this kind, and which also I cannot have learnt immediately, my belief
-must be a mere prejudice. But I do not know how it can be shown that an
-assertion of the form: Facts of certain kinds are the only ones you can
-know immediately; is itself not a prejudice. I do not think, therefore,
-that the fact that, if this last view were true, we should have to
-admit that we know immediately facts of a kind which many people think
-we cannot know immediately, is a conclusive objection to it.</p>
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_197" id="Page_197">[Pg 197]</a></span></p>
-
-
-
-
-<h4><a name="THE_CONCEPTION_OF_REALITY" id="THE_CONCEPTION_OF_REALITY">THE CONCEPTION OF REALITY</a></h4>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<p>The fourth chapter of Mr. Bradley's <i>Appearance and Reality</i> is a
-chapter headed "Space and Time," and he begins the chapter as follows:&mdash;</p>
-
-<p>"The object of this chapter is far from being an attempt to discuss
-fully the nature of space or of time. It will content itself with
-stating our main justification for regarding them as appearances. It
-will explain why we deny that, <i>in the character which they exhibit</i>,
-they either <i>have</i> or <i>belong</i> to reality."<a name="FNanchor_1_4" id="FNanchor_1_4"></a><a href="#Footnote_1_4" class="fnanchor">[1]</a></p>
-
-<p>Here, it will be seen, Mr. Bradley states that, in his opinion, Time,
-<i>in a certain character</i>, neither has nor belongs to reality; this is
-the conclusion he wishes to maintain. And to say that Time <i>has not</i>
-reality would seem to be plainly equivalent to saying that Time <i>is
-not</i> real. However, if anybody should doubt whether the two phrases
-are meant to be equivalent, the doubt may be easily set at rest by
-a reference to the concluding words of the same chapter, where Mr.
-Bradley uses the following very emphatic expression: "Time," he says,
-"like space, has most evidently proved <i>not to be real,</i> but to be a
-contradictory appearance" (p. 43). Mr. Bradley does, then, say here,
-in so many words, that Time <i>is not</i> real. But there is one other
-difference between this statement at the end of the chapter, and the
-statement at the beginning of it,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_198" id="Page_198">[Pg 198]</a></span> which we must not forget to notice.
-In the statement at the beginning he carefully qualifies the assertion
-"Time neither has nor belongs to reality" by saying "Time, <i>in the
-character which it exhibits,</i> neither has nor belongs to reality,"
-whereas in the final statement this qualification is not inserted;
-here he says simply "Time is not real." This qualification, which is
-inserted in the one place and omitted in the other, might, of course,
-be meant to imply that, in some <i>other</i> character&mdash;some character which
-it does <i>not</i> exhibit&mdash;Time <i>has</i> reality and does belong to it. And I
-shall presently have something to say about this distinction between
-Time in one character and Time in another, because it might be thought
-that this distinction is the explanation of the difficulty as to Mr.
-Bradley's meaning, which I am going to point out.</p>
-
-<p>However, so far it is clear that Mr. Bradley holds that <i>in some
-sense,</i> at all events, the whole proposition "Time is not real" can be
-truly asserted. And, now, I want to quote a passage in which he says
-things which, at first sight, seem difficult to reconcile with this
-view. This new passage is a passage in which he is not talking of Time
-in particular, but of "appearances" in general. But, as we have seen,
-he does regard Time as one among appearances, and I think there is no
-doubt that what he here declares to be true of all appearances is meant
-to be true of Time, among the rest. This new passage is as follows:&mdash;</p>
-
-<p>"For the present," he says,<a name="FNanchor_2_5" id="FNanchor_2_5"></a><a href="#Footnote_2_5" class="fnanchor">[2]</a> "we may keep a fast hold upon this,
-that appearances <i>exist.</i> That is absolutely certain, and to deny it
-is nonsense. And whatever exists must <i>belong to reality.</i> This is
-also quite certain, and its denial once more is self-contradictory.
-Our appearances, no doubt, may be a beggarly show, and their nature to
-an unknown<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_199" id="Page_199">[Pg 199]</a></span> extent may be something which, <i>as it is,</i> is <i>not</i> true
-of reality. That is one thing, and it is quite another thing to speak
-as if these facts had no actual existence, or as if there could be
-anything but reality to which they might belong. And I must venture to
-repeat that such an idea would be sheer nonsense. What appears, for
-that sole reason, most indubitably <i>is;</i> and there is no possibility of
-conjuring its being away from it."</p>
-
-<p>That is the passage which seems to me to raise a difficulty as to his
-meaning when contrasted with the former passage. And the reason why it
-seems to me to raise one is this. In the former passage Mr. Bradley
-declared most emphatically that Time is not real; he said: "Time has
-<i>most evidently</i> proved not to be real." Whereas in this one he seems
-to declare equally emphatically that Time <i>does</i> exist, and <i>is.</i> And
-his language here again is as strong as possible. He says it is sheer
-nonsense to suppose that Time does <i>not</i> exist, is <i>not</i> a fact, does
-<i>not</i> belong to reality. It looks, therefore, as if he meant to make
-a distinction between "being real" on the one hand, and "existing,"
-"being a fact," and "being" on the other hand&mdash;as if he meant to say
-that a thing may exist, and be, and be a fact, and yet <i>not</i> be real.
-And I think there is, at all events, some superficial difficulty in
-understanding this distinction. We might naturally think that to say
-"Time exists, is a fact, and is," is equivalent to saying that it is
-real. What more, we might ask, can a man who says that Time <i>is</i> real
-mean to maintain about it than that it exists, is a fact, and is? All
-that most people would mean by saying that time is real could, it would
-seem, be expressed by saying "There is such a thing as Time." And it
-might, therefore, appear from this new passage as if Mr. Bradley fully
-agreed with the view that most people would express by saying<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_200" id="Page_200">[Pg 200]</a></span> "Time is
-real"&mdash;as if he did not at all mean to contradict anything that most
-people believe about Time. But, if so, then what are we to make of his
-former assertion that, nevertheless, Time is <i>not</i> real? He evidently
-thinks that, in asserting this, he is asserting something which is
-<i>not</i> mere nonsense; and he certainly would not have chosen this way of
-expressing what he means, unless he had supposed that what he is here
-asserting about Time is incompatible with what people <i>often</i> mean when
-they say "Time is real." Yet, we have seen that he thinks that what he
-is asserting is <i>not</i> incompatible with the assertions that Time is,
-and is a fact, and exists. He must, therefore, think that when people
-say "Time is real" they often, at least, mean something <i>more</i> than
-merely that there <i>is</i> such a thing as Time, something therefore, which
-may be denied, without denying this. All the same, there is, I think, a
-real difficulty in seeing that they ever <i>do</i> mean anything more, and,
-<i>if</i> they do, what more it is that they can mean.</p>
-
-<p>The two expressions "There <i>is</i> such a thing as so and so" and "So
-and so is real" are certainly sometimes and quite naturally used as
-equivalents, even if they are not always so used. And Mr. Bradley's own
-language implies that this is so. For, as we have seen, in the first
-passage, he seems to identify belonging to reality with being real.
-The conclusion which he expresses in one place by saying that Time
-does not belong to reality he expresses in another by saying that it
-is not real; whereas in the second passage he seems to identify the
-meaning of the same phrase "belonging to reality" with <i>existing;</i>
-he says that whatever exists must belong to reality, and that it is
-self-contradictory to deny this. But if both being real and existing
-are identical with belonging to reality, it would seem they must be
-identical with one another.<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_201" id="Page_201">[Pg 201]</a></span> And, indeed, in another passage in the
-Appendix to the 2nd Edition (p. 555) we find Mr. Bradley actually using
-the following words: "Anything," he says, "that in any sense <i>is,</i>
-qualifies the absolute reality and so is real." Moreover, as we have
-seen, he declares it to be nonsense to deny that Time <i>is</i>; he must,
-therefore, allow that, <i>in a sense,</i> at all events, it is nonsense to
-deny that Time is real. And yet this denial is the very one he has
-made. Mr. Bradley, therefore, does seem himself to allow that the word
-"real" may, <i>sometimes</i> at all events, be properly used as equivalent
-to the words "exists," "is a fact," "is." And yet his two assertions
-cannot both be true, unless there is <i>some</i> sense in which the whole
-proposition "Time is real" is <i>not</i> equivalent to and cannot be
-inferred from "Time is," or "Time exists," or "Time is a fact."</p>
-
-<p>It seems, then, pretty clear that Mr. Bradley must be holding that the
-statement "Time is real" is in <i>one</i> sense, <i>not</i> equivalent to "Time
-exists"; though he admits that, in <i>another</i> sense, it is. And I will
-only quote one other passage which seems to make this plain.</p>
-
-<p>"If," he says later on (p. 206) "Time is not unreal, I admit that our
-Absolute is a delusion; but, on the other side, it will be urged that
-time cannot be mere appearance. The change in the finite subject, we
-are told, is a matter of direct experience; it is a fact, and hence it
-cannot be explained away. And so much of course is indubitable. Change
-is a fact and, further, <i>this fact, as such,</i> is <i>not</i> reconcilable
-with the Absolute. And, if we could not in any way perceive how <i>the
-fact</i> can be <i>unreal,</i> we should be placed, I admit, in a hopeless
-dilemma.... But our real position is very different from this. For time
-has been shown to contradict itself, and so to be appearance. With
-this, its discord, we see at once, may pass as an<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_202" id="Page_202">[Pg 202]</a></span> element into a wider
-harmony. And with this, the <i>appeal to fact</i> at once becomes worthless."</p>
-
-<p>"It is mere superstition to suppose that an appeal to experience can
-prove <i>reality.</i> That I find something in existence in the world or in
-my self, shows that this something <i>exists</i>, and it cannot show <i>more.</i>
-Any deliverance of consciousness&mdash;whether original or acquired&mdash;is
-but a deliverance of consciousness. It is in no case an oracle and a
-revelation which we have to accept as it is a fact, like other facts,
-to be dealt with; and there is no presumption anywhere that any <i>fact</i>
-is better than appearance."</p>
-
-<p>Here Mr. Bradley seems plainly to imply that to be "real" is something
-<i>more</i> and other than to be a fact or to exist. This is the distinction
-which I think he means to make, and which, I think, is the real
-explanation of his puzzling language, and this is the distinction which
-I am going presently to discuss. But I want first to say something
-as to that other distinction, which I said might be supposed to be
-the explanation of the whole difficulty&mdash;the distinction implied by
-the qualification "Time, <i>in the character which it exhibits</i>"; the
-suggestion that, when we talk of "Time," we may sometimes mean Time in
-one character, sometimes in another, and that what is true of it in the
-one character may not be true of it in the other. It might, I think, be
-suggested that this is the explanation of the whole difficulty. And I
-want briefly to point out why I think it cannot be the only explanation.</p>
-
-<p>Stated very badly and crudely, the difficulty which requires
-explanation is this: Mr. Bradley says, "It is sheer nonsense to say
-Time is not real." But this thing which he says it is sheer nonsense
-to say is the very thing which he himself had formerly said. He had
-said, "Time has most evidently proved not to be real." Now, Mr. Bradley
-certainly does not mean to say that this proposition of his<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_203" id="Page_203">[Pg 203]</a></span> own is
-sheer nonsense; and yet he says, in words, that it <i>is</i> sheer nonsense.
-This is the difficulty. What is the explanation? Quite obviously,
-the explanation can only take one possible form. Mr. Bradley must be
-holding that the words "Time is real" may have two different <i>senses.</i>
-In one sense, the denial of them is sheer nonsense; in the other sense,
-so far from being sheer nonsense, denial of them is, according to him,
-evidently true. Now, what are these two different senses, between
-which the difference is so enormous? It is here that the two different
-explanations come in.</p>
-
-<p>The first and, as I think, the wrong explanation (though I think Mr.
-Bradley's words do give some colour to it) is this. It might be said:
-"The whole business is perfectly easy to explain. When Mr. Bradley
-says that Time is <i>not</i> real, what he means is that Time, <i>in the
-character which it exhibits,</i> is not real. Whereas, when he says, Time
-does exist, is a fact, and is, and that it is nonsense to deny this,
-what he means is that Time does exist, <i>in some other character</i>&mdash;some
-character <i>other</i> than that which it exhibits. He does <i>not</i> mean to
-make any distinction, such as you suppose, between two meanings of
-the word I real '&mdash;the one of them merely equivalent to 'exists,'
-'is,' 'is a fact,' and the other meaning something very different from
-this. The only distinction he means to make is a distinction between
-<i>two</i> meanings of 'Time' or of the whole sentence 'Time is real.' He
-distinguishes between the meaning of this sentence, when it means,
-'Time in the character which it exhibits, is real,' which meaning, he
-says, is evidently false; and its meaning when it means, 'Time in <i>some
-other</i> character, is real,' and this meaning, he says, is evidently
-true. This is the complete explanation of your supposed puzzle, which
-is, in fact, therefore, very easy to solve."</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_204" id="Page_204">[Pg 204]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>This, I think, might be offered as an explanation of Mr. Bradley's
-meaning. And it must be admitted that it <i>would</i> furnish a complete
-explanation of the particular puzzle I have just stated, it would
-completely absolve Mr. Bradley from the charge of inconsistency; and
-would show that where he appears to contradict himself about the
-reality of Time, the contradiction is verbal only and not real. We
-might, indeed, object to this distinction between Time in one character
-and Time in another; on the ground that anything which has not got the
-character which Time exhibits, but only some <i>other</i> character, ought
-not to be called Time at all. We are, indeed, perfectly familiar with
-the conception that one and the same thing may <i>at one time</i> possess a
-character which it does <i>not</i> possess at another, so that what is true
-of it at one time may not be true of it at another. We are, that is,
-familiar with the idea of a thing <i>changing</i> its character. But Time
-itself as a whole obviously cannot change its character in this sense.
-Mr. Bradley cannot mean to say that it possesses the character "which
-it exhibits" and in which it is unreal <i>at one time,</i> and possesses
-some other character, in which it is real, at <i>some other time.</i> And
-hence we might say it is certainly wrong to speak as if Time itself
-could have two incompatible characters; since nothing can have two
-incompatible characters, unless it has them <i>at different times.</i> And
-this is an objection which does seem to apply to Mr. Bradley's doctrine
-in any case, since he does in any case seem to imply this distinction
-between Time in one character and Time in another, whether this
-distinction is the complete explanation of our particular puzzle or
-not. Yet this objection would not necessarily be more than an objection
-to Mr. Bradley's words; it would not necessarily be an objection to
-his meaning. Where he seems to<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_205" id="Page_205">[Pg 205]</a></span> imply that Time, in some character
-other than that which it exhibits, may be fully real, he may only mean
-that something completely different from Time, but which does in some
-sense correspond to it, is fully real; and if he does mean this, our
-objection would only amount to an objection to his giving the name of
-"Time" to this supposed counterpart of Time; we might say, and I think
-justly, that it is misleading to speak of this counterpart of Time as
-if it were Time itself in some other character; but this would go no
-way at all to show that there may not really be such a counterpart of
-Time, which <i>is</i> real, while Time itself is unreal. We might ask, too,
-what this supposed counterpart of Time is like, or (to put it in Mr.
-Bradley's way) what the precise character is, in which Time Areal? And
-I think Mr. Bradley would admit that he cannot tell us. But this, you
-see, would also be no objection to his actual doctrine. He might quite
-well know, and be right in saying, that there is and must be a real
-<i>counterpart</i> of Time, completely different in character from Time, as
-we know it, even though he has not the least idea what this counterpart
-is like.</p>
-
-<p>We must, therefore, admit that this proposed explanation of our puzzle
-would be a complete explanation of it. It would completely vindicate
-Mr. Bradley from the charge of inconsistency, and would give us, as
-his doctrine, a doctrine to which we have hitherto found no objection
-except verbal ones.</p>
-
-<p>But, nevertheless, I think it is a wrong explanation, and I want to
-explain why. If we were to suppose that this distinction between Time
-in one character and Time in another were the only one on which Mr.
-Bradley meant to rely, we should have as his doctrine this: We should
-have to suppose him to affirm most emphatically that Time, in<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_206" id="Page_206">[Pg 206]</a></span> the
-character which it exhibits, neither is real, <i>nor</i> exists, <i>nor</i> is
-a fact, <i>nor</i> is. We should have to suppose him to be using all these
-four expressions always as strict equivalents, and to mean that it
-is <i>only</i> in its other character that Time either exists, or is a
-fact, or is. And if he did mean this, there would, of course, be no
-doubt whatever that he does mean to contradict the common view with
-regard to Time; since, of course, what most people mean by "Time" is
-what he chooses to call "Time in the character which it exhibits."
-Yet, his language, even in the passages that I quoted, seems to me
-to indicate that he does not mean this. I think, on the contrary,
-he means to affirm emphatically that Time <i>even</i> in the character
-which it exhibits, does exist, <i>is</i> a fact, and indubitably <i>is,</i>
-though it is <i>not</i> real in that character. In the second passage, for
-instance, where he insists so emphatically that appearances do exist,
-are facts, and indubitably <i>are,</i> he is, I think, plainly talking of
-appearances, in the character which they exhibit&mdash;or, as he there puts
-it, their nature, <i>as it is</i>&mdash;he does, I think, mean that appearances,
-even in this character, are facts, exist, and are, though, in this
-character, they are not "true of reality." And, so again in the third
-passage, where he says, Change <i>is</i> a fact, and this fact, <i>as such,</i>
-is not reconcilable with the Absolute; this language is surely quite
-inexcusable, unless he means that Change, as such&mdash;change, in the
-<i>character which it exhibits</i>&mdash;change, <i>as it is, is</i> a fact: though,
-of course, he holds that <i>in</i> this character it certainly is not real.
-I think, therefore, we have to assume that Mr. Bradley means to make
-a distinction not merely between Time, in one character, and Time in
-another, but also between "real," in one sense, and "real" in another.
-His meaning is not so simple as it would be, if he were merely making
-a distinction between Time in one character<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_207" id="Page_207">[Pg 207]</a></span> and Time in another, and
-it is not, after all, at all plain whether he means to contradict what
-ordinary people hold about Time or not. He does not mean to assert that
-Time, <i>as such, neither</i> is real, <i>nor</i> exists, <i>nor</i> is a fact, <i>nor</i>
-is; but, on the contrary, that Time, even <i>as such,</i> does exist, <i>is</i>
-a fact, and <i>is</i>; <i>but,</i> nevertheless, is not real. This, at least,
-is what I am going to assume him to mean. And on this assumption, we
-are brought face to face with the question as to the meaning of the
-word "real," and also as to the meaning of these other words "exists,"
-"is a fact," and "is." Mr. Bradley seems to admit, we have seen, that
-"real" may <i>sometimes</i> be properly used as <i>merely</i> equivalent to
-these other phrases. We are, however, now supposing that he also holds
-that in another sense they are not equivalent, but that "real" means
-something more than the others, so that it is quite consistent to
-maintain that Time is <i>not</i> "real," and yet <i>does</i> exist, is a fact,
-and is. In holding this I think he is mistaken; and what I want to do
-is to explain, as clearly as I can, what sort of a mistake I take him
-to be making, and what seems to me to be the source of this mistake. I
-may, perhaps, be quite wrong in thinking that Mr Bradley has made this
-mistake, and that it is in any degree the source of the distinction he
-seems to draw between "reality" and "existence." To maintain that it is
-so is no part of my main object. My main object is simply to make clear
-the nature of this particular mistake, whether committed by Mr. Bradley
-or not, and that it is a mistake; because it seems to me that it is a
-mistake which it is very easy to make, and very important to avoid. I
-am, of course, not concerned at all to discuss the question whether
-Time <i>is</i> real or not, but only to discuss the question what sort of
-things would have to be true, if it were unreal, and whether<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_208" id="Page_208">[Pg 208]</a></span> if those
-things were true it could still be true that Time either exists, or is,
-or is a fact.</p>
-
-<p>Now, to begin with, I think I know pretty well, in part at least, what
-Mr. Bradley means when he says that it is unreal. I think that part
-at least of what he means is just what he <i>ought</i> to mean&mdash;just what
-anyone else would mean if he said that Time was unreal, and what any
-ordinary person would understand to be meant, if he heard those words.
-But I can conceive that, when I have explained as well as I can what
-this is that he <i>ought</i> to mean, some people may be inclined to dispute
-whether he means any such thing at all. They may say that he is using
-the word "real" exclusively in some highly unusual and special sense,
-so that in asserting that "Time is unreal" he is by no means denying
-any part of what ordinary people would mean by saying that "Time is
-real." And that some special sense may <i>come in</i> to his meaning I
-am prepared to admit. I do think it is possible that <i>part</i> of what
-Mr. Bradley is asserting may be something which no unsophisticated
-person would think of expressing in the same way, and I will admit,
-therefore, that he does not, very likely, mean by "Time is unreal"
-<i>merely</i> what other people would mean by this phrase, but something
-else <i>as well.</i> What, however, I cannot help thinking is that, even
-if he means something more, he <i>does</i> mean what ordinary people would
-mean <i>as well</i>: that what they would mean is at least a <i>part</i> of his
-meaning. And if even this is disputed, if it is maintained that he is
-using the words <i>exclusively</i> in some special sense, I own I do not
-know how to argue the question. If anybody really does take the view
-that, when he says "Time is unreal," absolutely all that he means is
-something which is in no way incompatible with what most people would
-mean by saying "Time is real," I do not know how to show that this view
-is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_209" id="Page_209">[Pg 209]</a></span> wrong. I can only say that if this <i>had</i> been all that he meant,
-I cannot believe that he would have expressed his view in the form
-"Time is unreal." The only further argument I shall bring in favour
-of my view that he does mean what he ought to mean will take the form
-of an answer to one possible argument which might be brought against
-it. When I nave explained what he <i>ought</i> to mean by saying that "Time
-is unreal," it will be quite clear that this is something which is in
-fact incompatible with the truth of the propositions that Time <i>is,</i>
-or <i>exists,</i> or <i>is a fact.</i> And it might be urged that the fact that
-it is thus incompatible is a strong argument against the view that
-Mr. Bradley does mean what he <i>ought</i> to mean, since, if he had meant
-it, he could hardly have failed to perceive that what he meant <i>was</i>
-inconsistent with these propositions, whereas, as we have seen, he
-certainly does not perceive this. I have an answer to that argument,
-which consists in giving an explanation, which I think a plausible
-one, as to how he could come to think that the propositions are <i>not</i>
-inconsistent, when in fact they are.</p>
-
-<p>What, then, <i>ought</i> Mr. Bradley to mean by "Time is unreal"? What
-would most people mean by this proposition? I do not think there is
-much difficulty in discovering what sort of thing they would mean by
-it. Of course, Time, with a big T, seems to be a highly abstract kind
-of entity, and to define <i>exactly</i> what can be meant by saying of an
-entity of that sort that it is unreal does seem to offer difficulties.
-But if you try to translate the proposition into the concrete, and to
-ask what it <i>implies,</i> there is, I think, very little doubt as to the
-sort of thing it implies. The moment you try to do this, and think what
-it really comes to, you at once begin thinking of a number of different
-<i>kinds</i> of propositions, all of which plainly must be untrue, if<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_210" id="Page_210">[Pg 210]</a></span> Time
-is unreal. If Time is unreal, then plainly nothing ever happens before
-or after anything else; nothing is ever simultaneous with anything
-else; it is never true that anything is past; never true that anything
-will happen in the future; never true that anything is happening now;
-and so on. You can at once think of a considerable number of kinds of
-propositions (and you could easily add to the list), the falsehood of
-all of which is plainly implied by saying that Time is unreal. And it
-is clear, also, that to say that the falsehood of all propositions of
-these kinds is implied is equivalent to saying that there are no facts
-of certain corresponding kinds&mdash;no facts which consist in one event
-happening before another; none which consist in an event being past or
-future, and so on. That is to say, what "Time is unreal" implies is
-that, in the case of a large number of different <i>properties</i> which
-are such that, if they <i>did</i> belong to anything, what they belonged
-to would be facts having some common characteristic, which we might
-express by calling them "temporal facts," the properties in question
-do, in fact, belong to nothing. It implies that the property of being a
-fact which consists in one event following another belongs to nothing;
-that that of being a past event belongs to nothing, and so on. And
-why it implies that all those different special properties belong to
-nothing is, I think we may say, because what it <i>means</i> is that the
-general property which I have called that of being a "temporal fact"
-belongs to nothing. To say that the property of being a temporal fact
-belongs to nothing <i>does imply</i> that such special properties as that
-of being a fact which consists in one event following another, or that
-of being a fact which consists in something being past, also belong to
-nothing; in exactly the same way as to say that the property of being
-"coloured" belongs to nothing <i>implies</i> with regard<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_211" id="Page_211">[Pg 211]</a></span> to the special
-properties "being red," "being blue," etc., that they also belong to
-nothing. We may, then, I think, say that what "Time is unreal" <i>means</i>
-is simply "The property of being a temporal fact belongs to nothing,"
-or, to express this in the way in which it would be expressed in
-ordinary life, "There <i>are</i> no temporal facts." And this being so, we
-have explained the usage of "unreal," where it is predicated of Time
-with a capital T, by reference to a much more common and perfectly
-familiar usage of the term. The use of "is unreal" in the phrase "Time
-is unreal" has been defined by reference to its use in the phrase
-"Temporal facts are unreal." And its use in this phrase is, so far as
-I can see, exactly the same as in hosts of phrases with which we are
-perfectly familiar; it is, I think, <i>the</i> commonest and by far the most
-important use of the term "unreal." The use is that in which we use it
-when we say, "Unicorns are unreal," "Griffins are unreal," "Chimæras
-are unreal," and so on. It is the usage in which unreal is equivalent
-to "imaginary"; and in which to say "Unicorns are unreal" means the
-same as "There are no unicorns" or "Unicorns do not exist." In just
-the same way the proposition "Temporal facts are unreal," into which
-we have translated "Time is unreal," means the same as "There are no
-temporal facts," or "Temporal facts do not exist," or "Temporal facts
-are imaginary."</p>
-
-<p>I think, then, that what Mr. Bradley <i>ought</i> to mean by "Time is
-unreal" can be defined by reference to one particular usage of the word
-"real" &mdash;or, if you like to put it that way, to one particular one
-among the conceptions for which the term "reality" may stand. And this
-particular conception seems to me to be by far the commonest and most
-important of those for which the term does stand. I want, therefore,
-before going on, to<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_212" id="Page_212">[Pg 212]</a></span> dwell a little upon its nature; although I daresay
-that all that I have to say is perfectly familiar and perfectly well
-understood by every one here. Of course, it has often been said before,
-but I think it is still very far from being generally understood.</p>
-
-<p>I think, perhaps, the point I want to insist on can be brought out in
-this way. I have just said that we have pointed out one particular
-one, and that the most important, among the conceptions for which the
-term "reality" may stand; and that is an excusable way of saying what
-we have done. But it would, I think, be more correct to say that we
-have pointed out one particular, and that the most important, usage
-of the terms "real" and "unreal," and that one of the peculiarities
-of this usage is that it is such that the terms "real" and "unreal"
-cannot, when used in this way, be properly said to stand for any
-conception whatever. I will try to explain what I mean. We have said
-that what "Lions are real" <i>means</i> is that some particular property or
-other&mdash;I will say, for the sake of brevity, <i>the</i> property of being
-a lion, though that is not strictly accurate, does In fact <i>belong
-to</i> some-thing&mdash;that there are things which have it, or, to put it
-in another way, that the conception of being a lion is a conception
-which does apply to some things&mdash;that there are things which <i>fall
-under</i> it. And similarly what "Unicorns are <i>unreal"</i> means is that the
-property of being a unicorn belongs to <i>nothing</i>. Now, if this is so,
-then it seems to me, in a very important sense, "real" and "unreal"
-do <i>not</i> in this usage stand for any conceptions at all. The only
-<i>conceptions</i> which occur in the proposition "Lions are real" are, on
-this interpretation, plainly, (1) the conception of being a lion, and
-(2) the conception of belonging to something, and perfectly obviously
-"real" does not stand for either of these. In the case of the first
-that is obvious; but it is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_213" id="Page_213">[Pg 213]</a></span> worth while pointing out that it is also
-true of the second.</p>
-
-<p>For if "is real" did stand for "belongs to something," then the
-proposition "Lions are real" would stand, not for the assertion
-that the property of "being a lion" belongs to something, but for
-the assertion that lions themselves <i>are properties which belong to
-something</i>; and it is quite obvious that what we mean to assert is
-not any such nonsense as this. "Real," therefore, does not, in this
-proposition, stand for the conception of "belonging to something" nor
-yet, quite plainly, does it stand for the conception of "being a lion."
-And hence, since these are the only two conceptions which do occur in
-the proposition, we may, I think, say that "real," in this usage, does
-not stand for any conception at all. To say that it did would be to
-imply that it stood for some property of which we are asserting that
-everything which has the property of "being a lion" <i>also</i> has this
-other property. But we are not, in fact, asserting any such thing. We
-are not asserting of any property called "reality" that it belongs to
-lions, as in the proposition "Lions are mammalian" we <i>are</i> asserting
-of the property of "being a mammal" that <i>it</i> belongs to lions. The
-two propositions "Lions are real" and "Lions are mammalian," though
-grammatically similar, are in reality of wholly different forms; and
-one difference between them may be expressed by saying that whereas
-"mammalian" does stand for a property or conception, the very point of
-this usage of "real" is that it does not.</p>
-
-<p>To return to Mr. Bradley. "Time is unreal" <i>ought</i> to mean, according
-to me, "Temporal facts are unreal," in the sense I have tried to
-explain. And I cannot help thinking that this which he <i>ought</i> to mean
-is, in part at least, what Mr. Bradley <i>does</i> mean when he says "Time
-is unreal," though<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_214" id="Page_214">[Pg 214]</a></span> possibly be also means something else as well. But
-if so, it is quite clear, I think, that what he means is inconsistent
-with its being true that Time exists or that there is such a thing as
-Time. To say that Time exists or that there is such a thing, is to
-assert at least, that there are some temporal facts: it may assert more
-than this, but it does assert this, at least. And this, we have seen,
-is exactly what is denied when it is said that Time is unreal. "Time
-is unreal" just means "Temporal facts are unreal," <i>or</i> "there are no
-temporal facts," <i>or</i> "Temporal facts do not exist." And just this is
-also what is meant by "Time does not exist" or "There is no such thing
-as Time." There is, in fact, nothing, else for these expressions to
-mean. What, therefore, Mr. Bradley <i>ought</i> to mean and (according to
-me) does mean by "Time is unreal" is, in fact, inconsistent with what
-he ought to mean by "Time exists" or by "Time is." And yet plainly he
-does not think that it is so. Is it possible to explain why he should
-have failed to perceive the inconsistency?</p>
-
-<p>I think his failure can be explained as follows. It may have been
-noticed that, in the passages I quoted from him, he insists in one
-place, that to deny that appearances exist is not merely false but
-<i>self-contradictory,</i> and in another appeals to the principle that "any
-deliverance of consciousness is but a deliverance of consciousness" in
-support of his contention that what <i>is</i> a fact need, nevertheless,
-<i>not</i> be real. And the fact that he does these two things does, I
-think, give colour to the suggestion that the reason why he thinks that
-what is unreal may yet exist, and be a fact, and be, is the following.
-It is undoubtedly the case that, even if temporal facts are unreal,
-<i>i.e.,</i> there <i>are</i> no such things, we can and do <i>think of them,</i> just
-as it is undoubtedly the case that, though unicorns are unreal, we can<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_215" id="Page_215">[Pg 215]</a></span>
-and do imagine them. In other words, "temporal facts" and "unicorns"
-are both quite certainly "deliverances of consciousness," at least
-in the sense that they are "objects of thought"; being "objects of
-thought" they are, in a wide sense, "appearances" also, and I cannot
-help thinking that Mr. Bradley supposes that, merely because they are
-so, they <i>must</i> at least BE. "How" (I imagine he would ask) "can a
-thing 'appear' or even 'be thought of' unless it is there to appear and
-to be thought of? To say that it appears or is thought of, and that yet
-there is no such thing, is plainly self-contradictory. A thing cannot
-have a property, unless it is there to have it, and, since unicorns
-and temporal facts <i>do</i> have the property of being thought of, there
-certainly must be such things. When I think of a unicorn, what I am
-thinking of is certainly not nothing; if it were nothing, then, when
-I think of a griffin, I should also be thinking of nothing, and there
-would be no difference between thinking of a griffin and thinking
-of a unicorn. But there certainly is a difference; and what can the
-difference be except that in the one case what I am thinking of is a
-unicorn, and in the other a griffin? And if the unicorn is what I am
-thinking of, then there certainly must <i>be</i> a unicorn, in spite of the
-fact that unicorns are unreal. In other words, though in one sense of
-the words there certainly <i>are</i> no unicorns&mdash;that sense, namely, in
-which to assert that there are would be equivalent to asserting that
-unicorns are real&mdash;yet there <i>must</i> be <i>some</i> other sense in which
-there <i>are</i> such things; since, <i>if</i> there were not, we could not think
-of them."</p>
-
-<p>Perhaps, it may be thought that the fallacy involved in this argument
-is too gross for it to be possible that Mr. Bradley should have
-been guilty of it. But there are other passages in <i>Appearance<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_216" id="Page_216">[Pg 216]</a></span> and
-Reality</i>&mdash;particularly what he says about Error &mdash;which look to me as
-if he certainly was guilty of it. I suppose it will be quite obvious to
-everyone here that it is a fallacy; that the fact that we can think of
-unicorns is not sufficient to prove that, in any sense at all, there
-<i>are</i> any unicorns. Yet, I am not sure that I know myself what is <i>the</i>
-mistake involved in thinking that it <i>is</i> sufficient, and I am going,
-therefore, to try to put as clearly as I can, what I think it is, in
-the hope that somebody may be able, if I am wrong, to correct me.</p>
-
-<p>The main mistake, I suppose, is the mistake of thinking that the
-proposition "Unicorns are thought of" is a proposition of the same form
-as "Lions are hunted"; or the proposition "I am thinking of a unicorn"
-of the same form as "I am hunting a lion"; or the proposition "Unicorns
-are objects of thought" of the same form as "Lions are objects of the
-chase." Of the second proposition in each of these three pairs, it is
-in fact the case that it could not be true unless there were lions&mdash;at
-least one. Each of them does, in fact, assert both with regard to a
-certain property&mdash;which we will call that of "being a lion"&mdash;that there
-<i>are</i> things which possess it, and also with regard to another&mdash;that of
-being hunted&mdash;that some of the things which possess the former possess
-this property too. But it is obvious enough to common sense that the
-same is by no means true of the <i>first</i> proposition in each pair, in
-spite of the fact that their grammatical expression shows no trace of
-the difference. It is perfectly obvious that if I say "I am thinking of
-a unicorn,"</p>
-
-<p>I am not saying both that there is a unicorn and that I am thinking of
-it, although, if I say "I am hunting a lion," I am saying both that
-there is a lion, and that I am hunting it. In the former case,</p>
-
-<p>I am <i>not</i> asserting that the two properties of being a unicorn and of
-being thought of by me both<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_217" id="Page_217">[Pg 217]</a></span> belong to one and the same thing; whereas,
-in the latter case, I am asserting that the two properties of being a
-lion and of being hunted by me <i>do</i> belong to one and the same thing.
-It is quite clear that there is <i>in fact</i>, this difference between
-the two propositions; although no trace of it appears in their verbal
-expression. And why we should use the same form of verbal expression
-to convey such different meanings is more than I can say. It seems to
-me very curious that language, in this, as in the other instance which
-we have just considered of "Lions are real" and "Lions are mammalian,"
-should have grown up just as if it were expressly designed to mislead
-philosophers; and I do not know why it should have. Yet, it seems to
-me there is no doubt that in ever so many instances it has. Moreover,
-<i>exactly</i> what <i>is</i> meant by saying "I am thinking of a unicorn" is
-not by any means clear to me. I think we can assert at least this:
-In order that this proposition should be true, it is necessary (1)
-that I should be conceiving, with regard to a certain property, the
-hypothesis that there Is something which possesses it, and (2) that the
-property in question should be such that, if anything did possess it
-there would be a unicorn. Although this is plainly true, it does not
-give us completely what is <i>meant</i> by the statement, "I am thinking
-of a unicorn"; and I do not know what the complete meaning is. It is
-certainly <i>not</i> that I am conceiving with regard to the property of
-"being a unicorn," that there is something which possesses it; since
-I may be thinking of a unicorn, without ever having conceived the
-property of "being a unicorn" at all. Whatever it does mean, the point
-which concerns us is that it is certainly <i>not</i> necessary for its
-truth, that the property of being a unicorn should, in fact, belong
-to anything whatever, or, therefore, that there should in any sense<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_218" id="Page_218">[Pg 218]</a></span>
-whatever <i>be</i> a unicorn. And the fallacy I am attributing to Mr.
-Bradley is that of supposing that, <i>in some sense,</i> it must imply this
-latter.</p>
-
-<p>This, then, is what I imagine to be at least one of the reasons
-which have led Mr. Bradley to suppose that the proposition "Time is
-unreal," <i>must</i> be consistent with the proposition "There <i>is</i> such
-a thing as Time." Put shortly, it is that he sees (what is perfectly
-true) that "Time is unreal" <i>must</i> be consistent with "We do think of
-Time;" he thinks (falsely) that "We <i>do</i> think of Time" must imply,
-in some sense, "There <i>is</i> such a thing as Time;" and finally, infers
-(correctly) from this true and this false premiss, that there <i>must</i> be
-some sense of the proposition "There is such a thing as Time" which is
-consistent with "Time is unreal."</p>
-
-<p>It follows, then, that if Mr. Bradley means what he ought mean <i>both</i>
-by "Time is unreal" <i>and</i> by "Time exists," he is contradicting himself
-when he combines these two propositions. And I have said I feel
-convinced that he <i>does</i> mean what he ought to mean by the former.
-But I feel a good deal of doubt as to whether, all the same, he is
-contradicting himself, because it does seem to me doubtful whether he
-means what he ought to mean by the latter. The kind of thing which I
-imagine may be happening to him when he insists so strongly that Time
-<i>does</i> exist, <i>is a fact,</i> and <i>is,</i> is that, properly speaking, he is
-not attaching to these phrases any meaning whatever&mdash;<i>not,</i> therefore,
-that which they properly bear. It seems to me very possible that he
-has so strongly convinced himself of the false proposition that there
-<i>must</i> be <i>some</i> sense in which, if I think of a unicorn, there must
-<i>be</i> a unicorn, that wherever he knows the former proposition holds,
-he allows himself to use the latter <i>form of words,</i> without attaching
-any meaning to them. What he is really asserting so emphatically may,
-I think, be<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_219" id="Page_219">[Pg 219]</a></span> not anything which his words stand for, but simply this
-verbal proposition that there <i>must</i> be <i>some</i> sense in which they are
-true.</p>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<div class="footnote">
-
-<p><a name="Footnote_1_4" id="Footnote_1_4"></a><a href="#FNanchor_1_4"><span class="label">[1]</span></a> <i>Appearance and Reality</i> (2nd edn.), p. 35. The Italics
-are mine.</p></div>
-
-<div class="footnote">
-
-<p><a name="Footnote_2_5" id="Footnote_2_5"></a><a href="#FNanchor_2_5"><span class="label">[2]</span></a> <i>Op. cit.</i> pp. 131-2.</p>
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_220" id="Page_220">[Pg 220]</a></span></p></div>
-
-
-
-
-<h4><a name="SOME_JUDGMENTS_OF_PERCEPTION" id="SOME_JUDGMENTS_OF_PERCEPTION">SOME JUDGMENTS OF PERCEPTION</a></h4>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<p>I want to raise some childishly simple questions as to what we are
-doing when we make judgments of a certain kind, which we all do in fact
-exceedingly commonly make. The kind of judgments I mean are those which
-we make when, with regard to something which we are seeing, we judge
-such things as '"That is an inkstand," "That is a tablecloth," "That
-is a door," etc., etc.; or when, with regard to something which we are
-feeling with our hands, we judge such things as "This is cloth," "This
-is a finger," "This is a coin," etc., etc.</p>
-
-<p>It is scarcely possible, I think, to exaggerate the frequency with
-which we make such judgments as these, nor yet the certainty with
-which we are able to make vast numbers of them. Any man, who is not
-blind, can, at almost any moment of his waking life, except when he
-is in the dark, make a large number of judgments of the first kind,
-with the greatest certainty. He has only to look about him, if he is
-indoors, to judge with regard to various things which he is seeing,
-such things as "That is a window," "That is a chair," "This is a book";
-or, if he is out-of-doors, such things as "That is a house," "That
-is a motor-car," "That is a man," or "That is a stone," "That is a
-tree," "That is a cloud." And all of us, who are not blind, do in fact
-constantly make such judgments, even if, as a rule, we only make them
-as parts of more complicated<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_221" id="Page_221">[Pg 221]</a></span> judgments. What I mean is that, when
-we make such judgments as "Hullo! that clock has stopped," or "This
-chair is more comfortable than that one," or "That man looks like a
-foreigner," judgments of the simpler kind with which I am concerned
-are, so far as I can see, actually a part of what we are judging. In
-judging "That clock has stopped," part of what I am actually judging
-is, so far as I can see, "That is a clock;" and similarly if I judge
-"That tree is taller than this one," my judgment actually contains the
-two simpler judgments "That is a tree," and "This is a tree." Perhaps
-most judgments which we make, of the kind I mean, are, in this way,
-only parts of more complicated judgments: I do not know whether this
-is so or not. But in any case there can be no doubt that we make them
-exceedingly commonly. And even a blind man, or a man in the dark, can
-and does, very frequently, make judgments of the second kind&mdash;judgments
-about things which he is feeling with his hands. All of us, for
-instance, at almost any moment of our waking life, whether we are in
-the dark or not, have only to feel certain parts of our own bodies or
-of our clothes, in order to make, with great certainty, such judgments
-as "This is a finger," "This is a nose," "This is cloth." And similarly
-I have only to feel in my pockets to judge, with regard to objects
-which I meet with there, such things as "This is a coin," "This is a
-pencil," "This is a pipe."</p>
-
-<p>Judgments of this kind would, I think, commonly, and rightly, be taken
-to be judgments, the truth of which involves the existence of material
-things or physical objects. If I am right in judging that this is
-an inkstand, it follows that there is at least one inkstand in the
-Universe; and if there is an inkstand in the Universe, it follows that
-there is in it at least one material thing or physical object. This<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_222" id="Page_222">[Pg 222]</a></span>
-may, of course, be disputed. Berkeley, if I understand him rightly,
-was clearly of opinion that there was no inconsistency in maintaining
-that there were in the Universe thousands of inkstands and trees and
-stones and stars, and that yet there was in it no such thing as matter.
-And perhaps the definition of matter, which he adopted, was such
-that there really was no inconsistency in maintaining this. Perhaps,
-similarly, other philosophers have sometimes adopted definitions of
-the expressions "material things" and "physical objects," which were
-such that all the judgments of this kind that we make might quite
-well be true, without its being true that there are in the Universe
-any material things whatever. Perhaps, even, there may be some
-justification for adopting definitions of those terms which would yield
-the surprising result that we may, with perfect consistency, maintain
-that the world is full of minerals and vegetables and animals, of all
-sorts of different kinds, and that yet there is not to be found in
-it a single material thing. I do not know whether there is or is not
-any utility in using the terms "material thing" or "physical object"
-in such a sense as this. But, whether there is or not, I cannot help
-thinking that there is ample justification for using them in another
-sense&mdash;a sense in which from the proposition that there are in the
-Universe such things as inkstands or fingers or clouds, it strictly
-follows that there are in it at least as many material things, and in
-which, therefore, we can <i>not</i> consistently maintain the existence of
-inkstands, fingers, and clouds, while denying that of material things.
-The kinds of judgment which I have mentioned, and thousands of others
-which might easily be mentioned, are obviously all of the same sort
-in one very important respect&mdash;a respect in which, for instance, such
-judgments as "This is an emotion," "This is a judgment," "This<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_223" id="Page_223">[Pg 223]</a></span> is a
-colour," are <i>not</i> of the same sort as they are. And it seems to me
-that we are certainly using the term "material thing" in <i>a</i> correct
-and useful way, if we express this important common property which they
-have, by saying that of each of them the same can truly be said as was
-said of the judgment "That is an inkstand": that, just as from the
-proposition "There is an inkstand" it follows that there is at least
-one material thing, so from the proposition "There is a tablecloth,"
-it follows that there is at least one material thing; and similarly
-in all the other cases. We can certainly use the expression "Things
-<i>such as</i> inkstands, tablecloths, fingers, clouds, stars, etc.," to
-mean things such as these in a certain very important respect, which
-we all understand, though we may not be able to define it. And the
-term "material thing" certainly is and can be correctly used to mean
-simply things such as these in that respect&mdash;whatever it may be. Some
-term is certainly required to mean merely things such as these in that
-important respect; and, so far as I can see, there is no term which can
-be naturally used in this sense except the term "material things" and
-its equivalents. Thus understood, the term "material thing" certainly
-does stand for an important notion, which requires a name.</p>
-
-<p>And, if we agree to use the term in this sense, then it is obvious that
-no more can be necessary for the truth of the assertion that there are
-material things, than is necessary for the truth of judgments of the
-kind with which I propose to deal. But no more can be necessary for
-the truth of these judgments than is actually asserted in or logically
-implied by them. And if we approach the question what is necessary for
-the truth of the assertion that there are material things, by asking
-what it is that we actually assert when we make<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_224" id="Page_224">[Pg 224]</a></span> such judgments as
-these, certain reasons for doubting how much is necessary are, I think,
-brought out much more clearly, than if we approach the question in
-any other way. Many philosophers have told us a very great deal as to
-what they suppose to be involved in the existence of material things;
-and some, at least, among them seem to have meant by "material things"
-such things as inkstands, fingers and clouds. But I can think of only
-one type of view as to the constitution of material things, which is
-such that it is tolerably clear what answer those who hold it would
-give to the simple question; What is it that I am judging, when I
-judge, as I now do, that that is an inkstand? The type of view I mean
-is that to which the view that Mill suggests, when he explains what he
-means by saying that Matter is a Permanent Possibility of Sensation,
-and also the view or views which Mr. Russell seems to suggest in his
-"Our Knowledge of the External World," seem to belong. In the case of
-views of this kind, it is, I think, tolerably clear what answer those
-who hold them would give to <i>all</i> the questions I want to raise about
-judgments of the kind I have described. But it does not seem to me at
-all certain that any view of this type is true; and certainly many
-philosophers have held and do hold that all views of this type are
-false. But in the case of those who do hold them to be false, I do
-not know, in any single case, what answer would be given to <i>all</i> the
-questions which I want to raise. In the case of philosophers, who do
-not accept any view of the Mill-Russell type, none, so far as I know,
-has made it clear what answer he would give to <i>all</i> my questions: some
-have made it clear what answer they would give to <i>some</i> of them; but
-many, I think, have not even made it clear what answer they would give
-to any. Perhaps there is some simple and satisfactory answer, which has
-escaped me, that such<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_225" id="Page_225">[Pg 225]</a></span> philosophers could give to all my questions; but
-I cannot help thinking that assumptions as to the nature of material
-things have too often been made, without its even occurring to those
-who made them to ask, what, if they were true, we could be judging when
-we make such judgments as these; and that, if this question had been
-asked, it would have become evident that those assumptions were far
-less certain than they appeared to be.</p>
-
-<p>I do not know that there is any excuse whatever for calling <i>all</i>
-judgments of the kind I mean "judgments of perception." All of them
-are, of course, judgments <i>about</i> things which we are at the moment
-perceiving, since, by definition, they are judgments about things
-which we are seeing or feeling with our hands; and all of them are, no
-doubt, also <i>based upon</i> something which we perceive about the thing
-in question. But the mere fact that a judgment is both about a thing
-which I am perceiving, and also based upon something which I perceive
-about that thing, does not seem to be a sufficient reason for calling
-it a judgment of perception; and I do not know that there is any
-other reason than this for calling <i>all</i> judgments of the kind I mean
-judgments of perception. I do not want therefore, to assert that <i>all</i>
-of them are so. But it seems to me quite plain that enormous numbers
-of them are so, in a perfectly legitimate sense. This judgment, which
-I now make, to the effect that <i>that</i> is a door, seems to me quite
-plainly to be a judgment of perception, in the simple sense that I
-make it because I do, in fact, see that that <i>is</i> a door, and assert
-in it no more than what I see; and what I see I, of course, perceive.
-In every case in which I judge, with regard to something which I am
-seeing or feeling with my hands, that it is a so-and-so, simply because
-I do perceive, by sight or touch, that it is in fact a thing of that
-kind, we can, I think, fairly say that<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_226" id="Page_226">[Pg 226]</a></span> the judgment in question is a
-judgment of perception. And enormous numbers of judgments of the kind
-I mean are, quite plainly, judgments of perception in this sense. They
-are not <i>all,</i> for the simple reason that some of them are mistaken.
-I may, for instance, judge, with regard to an animal which I see at
-a distance, that it is a sheep, when in fact it is a pig. And here
-my judgment is certainly not due to the fact that I see it to be a
-sheep; since I cannot possibly see a thing to be a sheep, unless it is
-one. It, therefore, is <i>not</i> a judgment of perception in this sense.
-And moreover, even where such a judgment is true, it may not always
-be a judgment of perception, for the reason that, whereas I only see
-the thing in question, the kind of thing which I judge it to be is of
-such a nature, that it is impossible for any one, by sight alone, to
-perceive anything to be of that kind. How to draw the line between
-judgments of this kind, which are judgments of perception, and those
-which are not, I do not know. That is to say, I do not know what
-conditions must be fulfilled in order that I may be truly said to be
-<i>perceiving,</i> by sight or touch, such things as that that is a door,
-this is a finger, and not <i>merely</i> inferring them. Some people may no
-doubt think that it is very unphilosophical in me to say that we <i>ever</i>
-can perceive such things as these. But it seems to me that we do, in
-ordinary life, constantly talk of <i>seeing</i> such things, and that, when
-we do so, we are neither using language incorrectly, nor making any
-mistake about the facts&mdash;supposing something to occur which never does
-in fact occur. The truth seems to me to be that we are using the term
-"perceive" in a way which is both perfectly correct and expresses a
-kind of thing which constantly does occur, only that some philosophers
-have not recognised that this is a correct usage of the term and have
-not been able to define it. I am not,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_227" id="Page_227">[Pg 227]</a></span> therefore, afraid to say that I
-do now perceive that that is a door, and that that is a finger. Only,
-of course, when I say that I do, I do not mean to assert that part of
-what I "perceive," when I "perceive" these things, may not be something
-which, in an important sense, is known to me only by inference. It
-would be very rash to assert that "perception," in this sense of the
-word, entirely excludes inference. All that seems to me certain is that
-there is an important and useful sense of the word "perception," which
-is such that the amount and kind of inference, if inference there be,
-which is involved in my present perception that that is a door, is no
-bar to the truth of the assertion that I do perceive that it is one.
-Vast numbers, then, of the kind of judgments with which I propose to
-deal seem to me to be, in an important and legitimate sense, judgments
-of perception; although I am not prepared to define, any further than I
-have done, what that sense is. And though it is true that the questions
-which I shall raise apply just as much to those of them which are not
-judgments of perception as to those which are, it is, of course, also
-true that they apply just as much to those which are as to those which
-are not; so that I shall be really dealing with a large and important
-class among judgments of perception.</p>
-
-<p>It is true that, if certain views which, if I understand them rightly,
-some Philosophers have seriously entertained, were true ones, it would
-be quite impossible that any of them should be judgments of perception.
-For some philosophers seem to me to have denied that we ever do in fact
-know such things as these, and others not only that we ever know them
-but also that they are ever true. And, if, in fact, I never do know
-such a thing, or if it is never true, it will of course, follow that I
-never perceive such a thing; since I certainly cannot, in this<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_228" id="Page_228">[Pg 228]</a></span> sense,
-perceive anything whatever, unless I both know it and it is true. But
-it seems to me a sufficient refutation of such views as these, simply
-to point to cases in which we do know such things. This, after all, you
-know, really is a finger: there is no doubt about it: I know it, and
-you all know it. And I think we may safely challenge any philosopher to
-bring forward any argument in favour either of the proposition that we
-do not know it, or of the proposition that it is not true, which does
-not at some point, rest upon some premiss which is, beyond comparison,
-less certain than is the proposition which it is designed to attack.
-The questions whether we do ever know such things as these, and whether
-there are any material things, seem to me, therefore, to be questions
-which there is no need to take seriously: they are questions which it
-is quite easy to answer, with certainty, in the affirmative. What does,
-I think, need to be taken seriously, and what is really dubious, is not
-the question, whether this is a finger, or whether I know that it is,
-but the question <i>what,</i> in certain respects, I am knowing, when I know
-that it is. And this is the question to which I will now address myself.</p>
-
-<p>To begin with there is one thing which seems to me to be very certain
-indeed about such judgments. It is unfortunately a thing which I do
-not know how properly to express. There seem to me to be objections
-to every way of expressing it which I can think of. But I hope I
-may be able to make my meaning clear, in spite of the inadequacy of
-my expression. The thing I mean is a thing which may to some people
-seem so obvious as to be scarcely worth saying. But I cannot help
-thinking that it is not always clearly recognised, and even that some
-philosophers, to judge from what they say, might perhaps dispute it.
-It seems to me to be an assumption which is silently made in many<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_229" id="Page_229">[Pg 229]</a></span>
-treatments of the subject, and, as I say, it seems to me to be very
-certain indeed. But I think it is at all events worth while to try to
-make the assumption explicit, in case it should be disputed. If it
-really is not true, then the other questions to which I shall go on,
-and which seem to me really dubious and difficult, do not, I think,
-arise at all.</p>
-
-<p>I will try to express this fundamental assumption, which seems to me
-so very certain, by saying it is the assumption that, in all cases in
-which I make a judgment of this sort, I have no difficulty whatever
-in picking out a thing, which is, quite plainly, in a sense in which
-nothing else is, <i>the</i> thing about which I am making my judgment; and
-that yet, though this thing is <i>the</i> thing about which I am judging, I
-am, quite certainly, <i>not</i>, in general, judging with regard to it, that
-<i>it</i> is a thing of that kind for which the term, which seems to express
-the predicate of my judgment, is a name. Thus, when I judge, as now,
-that That is an inkstand, I have no difficulty whatever in picking out,
-from what, if you like, you can call my total field of presentation
-at the moment, an object, which is undoubtedly, in a sense in which
-nothing else is, <i>the</i> object about which I am making this judgment;
-and yet it seems to me quite certain that of <i>this</i> object I am not
-judging that it is a whole inkstand. And similarly when I judge, with
-regard to something which I am feeling in my pocket, "This is a coin,"
-I have no difficulty in picking out, from my field of presentation,
-an object, which is undoubtedly <i>the</i> object with which my judgment
-is concerned; and yet I am certainly not judging with regard to this
-object that it is a whole coin. I say that <i>always</i><i>t</i> when I make
-such a judgment, I can pick out <i>the</i> one, among the objects presented
-to me at the time, about which I am making it; but I have only said
-that <i>in general</i> I am not judging with regard to this<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_230" id="Page_230">[Pg 230]</a></span> object that
-it is a thing of the kind, for which the term, which seems to express
-the predicate of my judgment, is a name. And I have limited my second
-proposition in this way, because there are cases, in which it does
-not, at first sight, seem quite so certain that I am not doing this,
-as in the two instances I have just given. When, for instance, I judge
-with regard to something, which I am seeing, "This is a soap-bubble,"
-or "This is a drop of water," or even when I judge "This is a spot
-of ink," it may not seem quite so plain, that I may not be judging,
-with regard to the very object presented to me, that it is, itself, a
-whole soap-bubble, a whole drop of water, or a whole spot of ink, as
-it always is, in the case of an inkstand, or a coin, that I never take
-the presented object, about which I am judging, to be a whole inkstand,
-or a whole coin. The sort of reason why I say this will, of course,
-be obvious to any one, and it is obviously of a childish order. But I
-cannot say that it seems to me quite obvious that in such a case I am
-not judging of the presented object that it is a whole drop of water,
-in the way in which it does seem to be obvious that I am not judging
-of <i>this</i> presented object that it is an inkstand. That is why I limit
-myself to saying that, <i>in general</i>, when I judge "That is a so-and-so"
-I am not judging with regard to the presented object, about which my
-judgment is that <i>it</i> is a thing of the kind in question. As much as
-this seems to me to be a thing which any child can see. Nobody will
-suppose, for a moment, that when he judges such things as "This is a
-sofa," or "This is a tree," he is judging, with regard to the presented
-object about which his judgment plainly is, that it is a whole sofa or
-a whole tree: he can, at most, suppose that he is judging it to be a
-part of the surface of a sofa or a part of the surface of a tree. And
-certainly in the case of most judgments of this kind which we make,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_231" id="Page_231">[Pg 231]</a></span>
-whether in the case of all or not, this is plainly the case: we are not
-judging, with regard to the presented object about which our judgment
-plainly is, that it is a thing of the kind, for which the term which
-appears to express the predicate of our judgment, is a name. And that
-this should be true of <i>most</i> judgments of this kind, whether of all or
-not, is quite sufficient for my purpose.</p>
-
-<p>This much, then, seems to me to be very certain indeed. But I will try
-to make clearer exactly what I mean by it, by mentioning a ground on
-which I imagine it might perhaps be disputed.</p>
-
-<p>The object of which I have spoken as <i>the</i> object, about which, in
-each particular case, such a judgment as this always is a judgment,
-is, of course, always an object of the kind which some philosophers
-would call a sensation, and others would call a sense-datum. Whether
-all philosophers, when they talk of sensations, mean to include among
-them such objects as these, I do not know. Some, who have given a great
-deal of attention to the subject, and for whom I have a great respect,
-talk of sensations in such a way, that I cannot be sure what they are
-talking about at all or whether there are such things. But many, I
-think, undoubtedly do mean to include such subjects as these. No doubt,
-in general, when they call them sensations, they mean to attribute to
-them properties, which it seems to me extremely doubtful whether they
-possess. And perhaps even those who call them sense-data, may, in part,
-be attributing to them properties which it may be doubtful whether
-they possess. If we want to define a sensation or a sense-datum, in a
-manner which will leave it not open to doubt what sort of things we are
-talking of, and that there are such things, I do not know that we can
-do it better than by saying that sense-data are the sort of things,
-<i>about</i> which such judgments<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_232" id="Page_232">[Pg 232]</a></span> as these always seem to be made&mdash;the sort
-of things which seem to be the real or ultimate subjects of all such
-judgments. Such a way of defining how the term "sense-datum" is used,
-may not seem very satisfactory; but I am inclined to think it may be as
-satisfactory as any which can be found. And it is certainly calculated
-to obviate some misunderstandings which may arise; since everybody can
-see, I think, what the thing is which I am describing as <i>the</i> thing
-about which he is making his judgment, when he judges "That is an
-inkstand," and that there is such a thing, even if he does not agree
-that this description applies to it.</p>
-
-<p>I can, in fact, imagine that some of those who would call this thing a
-sensation would deny that my judgment is <i>about</i> it at all. It would
-sometimes be spoken of as the sensation which mediates my perception
-of this inkstand in this instance. And I can imagine that some of
-those who would so speak of it might be inclined to say that when
-I judge "This is an inkstand," my judgment is about this inkstand
-which I perceive, and not, in any sense at all, about the sensation
-which mediates my perception of it. They may perhaps imagine that the
-sensation mediates my perception of the inkstand only in the sense
-that it brings the inkstand before my mind in such a way that, once it
-is before my mind, I can make a judgment about it, which is <i>not</i> a
-judgment about the mediating sensation at all; and that such a judgment
-is the one I am actually expressing when I say "This is an inkstand."
-Such a view, if it is held, seems to me to be quite certainly false,
-and is what I have intended to deny. And perhaps I can put most clearly
-the reason why it seems to me false, by saying that, if (which may
-be doubted) there is anything which is this inkstand, that thing is
-certainly not given to me independently of this sense-datum, in such
-a<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_233" id="Page_233">[Pg 233]</a></span> sense that I can possibly make a judgment about it which is <i>not</i>
-a judgment about this sense-datum. I am not, of course, denying that
-I do perceive this inkstand, and that my judgment is, in a sense, a
-judgment about it. Both these things seem to me to be quite obviously
-true. I am only maintaining that my judgment is <i>also,</i> in another
-sense, a judgment about this sense-datum which mediates my perception
-of the inkstand. Those who say that this sense-datum does mediate my
-perception of the inkstand, would, of course, admit that my perception
-of the inkstand is, in a sense, dependent upon the sense-datum; that
-it is dependent is implied in the mere statement that it is mediated
-by it. But it might be maintained that it is dependent on it only in
-the sense in which, when the idea of one object is called up in my
-mind, through association, by the idea of another, the idea which is
-called up is dependent on the idea which calls it up. What I wish to
-maintain, and what seems to me to be quite certainly true, is that my
-perception of this inkstand is dependent on this sense-datum, in a
-quite different and far more intimate sense than this. It is dependent
-on it in the sense that, if there is anything which is this inkstand,
-then, in perceiving that thing, I am knowing it <i>only</i> as <i>the</i> thing
-which stands in a certain relation to this sense-datum. When the idea
-of one object is called up in my mind by the idea of another, I do
-not know the second object <i>only</i> as <i>the</i> thing which has a certain
-relation to the first: on the contrary, I can make a judgment about the
-second object, which is not a judgment about the first. And similarly
-in the case of two sense-data which are presented to me simultaneously,
-I do not know the one <i>only</i> as a thing which has a certain relation to
-the other. But in the case of this sense-datum and this inkstand the
-case seems to me to be plainly<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_234" id="Page_234">[Pg 234]</a></span> quite different. If there be a thing
-which is this inkstand at all, it is certainly <i>only</i> known to me as
-<i>the</i> thing which stands in a certain relation to this sense-datum. It
-is not given to me, in the sense in which this sense-datum is given.
-If there be such a thing at all, it is quite certainly only known to
-me by description, in the sense in which Mr. Russell uses that phrase;
-and the description by which it is known is that of being <i>the</i> thing
-which stands to this sense-datum in a certain relation. That is to
-say, when I make such a judgment as "This inkstand is a good big one";
-what I am really judging is: "There is a thing which stands to <i>this</i>
-in a certain relation, and which is an inkstand, and that thing is
-a good big one"&mdash;where "<i>this</i>" stands for this presented object. I
-am referring to or identifying the thing which is this inkstand, if
-there be such a thing at all, only as the thing which stands to this
-sense-datum in a certain relation; and hence my judgment, though in
-one sense it may be said to be a judgment about the inkstand, is quite
-certainly also, in another sense, a judgment about this sense-datum.
-This seems to me so clear, that I wonder how anyone can deny it; and
-perhaps nobody would. But I cannot help thinking that it is not clear
-to everybody; partly because, so far as I can make out, nobody before
-Mr. Russell had pointed out the extreme difference there is between a
-judgment about a thing known only by description to the individual who
-makes the judgment, and a judgment about a thing not known to him only
-in this way; and partly because so many people seem still utterly to
-have failed to understand what the distinction is which he expresses in
-this way. I will try to make the point clear, in a slightly different
-way. Suppose I am seeing two coins, lying side by side, and am not
-perceiving them in any other way except by sight.<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_235" id="Page_235">[Pg 235]</a></span> It will be plain to
-everybody, I think, that, when I identify the one as "This one" and
-the other as "That one," I identify them only by reference to the two
-visual presented objects, which correspond respectively to the one and
-to the other. But what may not, I think, be realised, is that the sense
-in which I identify them by reference to the corresponding sense-data,
-is one which involves that every judgment which I make about the one
-is a judgment about the sense-datum which corresponds to it, and every
-judgment I make about the other, a judgment about the sense-datum which
-corresponds to <i>it</i>: I simply cannot make a judgment about either,
-which is not a judgment about the corresponding sense-datum. But if the
-two coins were given to me, in the sense in which the two sense-data
-are, this would certainly not be the case. I can identify and
-distinguish the two sense-data <i>directly,</i> this as this one, and that
-as that one: I do not need to identify either as <i>the</i> thing which has
-this relation to this other thing. But I certainly cannot thus directly
-identify the two coins. I have not four things presented to me (1)
-<i>this</i> sense-datum, (2) <i>that</i> sense-datum, (3) <i>this</i> coin, and (4)
-<i>that</i> coin, but two only<i>&mdash;this</i> sense-datum and <i>that</i> sense-datum.
-When, therefore, I judge "<i>This</i> is a coin," my judgment is certainly
-a judgment about the one sense-datum, and when I judge "And <i>that</i>
-is also a coin," it is certainly a judgment about the other. Only,
-in spite of what my language might seem to imply, I am certainly not
-judging either of the one sense-datum that it is a whole coin, nor yet
-of the other that it is one.</p>
-
-<p>This, then, seems to me fundamentally certain about judgments of this
-kind. Whenever we make such a judgment we can easily pick out an object
-(whether we call it a sensation or a sense-datum, or not), which is,
-in an easily intelligible sense, <i>the</i><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_236" id="Page_236">[Pg 236]</a></span> object which is the real or
-ultimate subject of our judgment; and yet, in many cases at all events,
-what we are judging with regard to this object is certainly not that it
-is an object of the kind, for which the term which appears to express
-the predicate of our judgment is a name.</p>
-
-<p>But if this be so, what is it that I am judging, in all such cases,
-about the presented object, which is the real or ultimate subject of my
-judgment? It is at this point that we come to questions which seem to
-me to be really uncertain and difficult to answer.</p>
-
-<p>To begin with, there is one answer which is naturally suggested by the
-reason I have given for saying that, in this case, it is quite obvious
-that I am not judging, with regard to this presented object, that
-<i>it</i> is an inkstand, whereas it is not in the same way, quite obvious
-that, in making such a judgment as "This is a soap-bubble" or "This is
-a drop of water," I may not be judging, of the object about which my
-judgment is, that that very object really is a soap-bubble or a drop
-of water. The reason I gave is that it is quite obvious that I do not
-take this presented object to be a <i>whole</i> inkstand: that, at most, I
-only take it to be part of the surface of an inkstand. And this reason
-naturally suggests that the true answer to our question may be that
-what I am judging of the presented object is just that it is a part of
-the surface of an inkstand. This answer seems to me to be obviously on
-quite a different level from the suggestion that I am judging it really
-to be an inkstand. It is not childishly obvious that I am not judging
-it to be part of the surface of an inkstand, as it is that I am not
-judging it to be an inkstand&mdash;a whole one.</p>
-
-<p>On this view, when I say such things as "That is an inkstand," "That
-is a door," "This is a coin," these expressions would really only be
-a loose way of saying "That is part of the surface of an inkstand,"<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_237" id="Page_237">[Pg 237]</a></span>
-"That is part of the surface of a door," "This is part of the surface
-of a coin." And there would, I think, plainly be nothing surprising
-in the fact that we should use language thus loosely. What, at first
-sight, appears to be a paradox, namely that, whereas I appear to be
-asserting of a given thing that it is of a certain kind, I am not
-really asserting of the thing in question that it is of that kind at
-all, would be susceptible of an easy explanation. And moreover, if
-this view were true, it would offer an excellent illustration of the
-difference between a thing known only by description and a thing not so
-known, and would show how entirely free from mystery that distinction
-is. On this view, when I judge "That inkstand is a good big one" I
-shall in effect be judging: "There is one and only one inkstand of
-which <i>this</i> is part of the surface, and the inkstand of which this is
-true is a good big one." It would be quite clear that the part of the
-surface of the inkstand was given to me in a sense in which the whole
-was not, just as it is in fact clear that I do now <i>"see"</i> this part
-of the surface of this inkstand, in a sense in which I do <i>not</i> "see"
-the whole; and that my judgment, while it is, in fact, <i>about</i> both the
-whole inkstand, and also <i>about</i> one particular part of its surface, is
-<i>about</i> them in two entirely different senses.</p>
-
-<p>This view is one, which it is at first sight, I think, very natural to
-suppose to be true. But before giving the reasons, why, nevertheless,
-it seems to me extremely doubtful, I think it is desirable to try
-to explain more precisely what I mean by it. The word "part" is one
-which is often used extremely vaguely in philosophy; and I can imagine
-that some people would be willing to assent to the proposition that
-this sense-datum really is, in some sense or other, a "part" of this
-inkstand, and that what I am judging with regard to<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_238" id="Page_238">[Pg 238]</a></span> it, when I
-judge "This is an inkstand," is, in effect, "There is an inkstand,
-of which <i>this</i> is a part," who would be far from allowing that this
-can possibly be what I am judging, when once they understand what the
-sense is in which I am here using the word "part." What this sense
-is, I am quite unable to define; but I hope I may be able to make my
-meaning sufficiently clear, by giving instances of things which are
-undoubtedly "parts" of other things in the sense in question. There is,
-it seems to me, a sense of the word "part," in which we all constantly
-use the word with perfect precision, and, which, therefore, we all
-understand very well, however little we may be able to define it. It is
-the sense in which the trunk of any tree is undoubtedly a part of that
-tree; in which this finger of mine is undoubtedly a part of my hand,
-and my hand a part of my body. This is a sense in which every part
-of a material thing or physical object is itself a material thing or
-physical object; and it is, so far as I can see, the only proper sense
-in which a material thing can be said to have parts. The view which I
-wish to discuss is the view that I am judging this presented object to
-be a part of an inkstand, in this sense. And the nature of the view
-can perhaps be brought out more clearly, by mentioning one important
-corollary which would follow from it. I am, of course, at this moment,
-seeing many parts of the surface of this inkstand. But all these
-parts, except one, are, in fact, themselves parts of that one. That
-one is the one of which we should naturally speak as "<i>the</i> part of
-the surface that I am now seeing" or as "<i>this</i> part of the surface of
-this inkstand." There is only one part of the surface of this inkstand,
-which does thus contain, as parts, all the other parts that I am now
-seeing. And, if it were true that I am judging this presented object to
-be a part of the surface of an inkstand at<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_239" id="Page_239">[Pg 239]</a></span> all, in the sense I mean,
-it would follow that this presented object must, if my judgment "This
-is an inkstand" be true (as it certainly is), be identical with this
-part, which contains all the other parts which I am seeing; since there
-is plainly no other part with which it could possibly be identified.
-That is to say, if I am really judging of this presented object that it
-is part of the surface of an inkstand, in the sense I mean, it must be
-the case that everything which is true of what I should call "this part
-of the surface of this inkstand" is, in fact, true of this presented
-object.</p>
-
-<p>This view, therefore, that what we are judging of the ultimate subject
-of our judgment, when we judge "This is a so-and-so," is, in general,
-merely that the subject in question is a <i>part</i> of a thing of the
-kind in question, can, I think, be most clearly discussed, by asking
-whether, in this case, this presented object can really be identical
-with this part of the surface of this inkstand. If it can't, then most
-certainly I am not judging of it that it is a part of the surface of an
-inkstand at all. For my judgment, whatever it is, is true. And yet, if
-this presented object is not identical with this part of the surface of
-this inkstand, it certainly is not a part of an inkstand at all; since
-there is no other part, either of this inkstand or of any other, with
-which it could possibly be supposed to be identical.</p>
-
-<p>Can we, then, hold that this sense-datum really is identical with this
-part of the surface of this inkstand? That everything which is true of
-the one is true of the other?</p>
-
-<p>An enormous number of very familiar arguments have been used by various
-philosophers, which, if they were sound, would show that we can not.
-Some of these arguments seem to me to be quite clearly not sound&mdash;all,
-for instance, which rest either on the assumption that this sense-datum
-can only<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_240" id="Page_240">[Pg 240]</a></span> exist so long as it is perceived, or on the assumption that
-it can only exist so long as it is perceived <i>by me.</i> Of others I
-suspect that they may have some force, though I am quite unable to see
-that they have any. Such, for instance, are all those which assume
-either that this sense-datum is a sensation or feeling of mine, in a
-sense which includes the assertion that it is dependent on my mind
-in the very same sense in which my perception of it obviously is so;
-or that it is causally dependent on my body in the sense in which my
-perception of it admittedly is so. But others do seem to me to have
-great force. I will, however, confine myself to trying to state one,
-which seems to me to have as much as any. It will be found that this
-one involves an assumption, which does seem to me to have great force,
-but which yet seems to me to be doubtful. So far as I know, all good
-arguments against the view that this sense-datum really is identical
-with this part of the surface of the inkstand, do involve this same
-assumption, and have no more force than it has. But in this, of course,
-I may be wrong. Perhaps some one will be able to point out an argument,
-which is obviously quite independent of it, and which yet has force.</p>
-
-<p>The argument I mean involves considerations which are exceedingly
-familiar, so familiar that I am afraid every one may be sick of
-hearing them alluded to. But, in spite of this fact, it seems to
-me not quite easy to put it quite precisely, in a way which will
-distinguish it clearly from other arguments involving the same familiar
-considerations, but which do not seem to me to be equally cogent. I
-want, therefore, to try to put it with a degree of precision, which
-will prevent irrelevant objections from being made to it&mdash;objections
-which would, I think, be relevant against some of these other
-arguments, but are not, I think, relevant against it.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_241" id="Page_241">[Pg 241]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>The fact is that we all, exceedingly commonly, when, at each of two
-times, separated by a longer or shorter interval, we see a part of the
-surface of a material thing, in the sense in which I am now seeing
-this part of the surface of this inkstand, or when at one time we see
-such a surface and at another perceive one by touch, make, on the
-second occasion, the judgment "<i>This</i> part of a surface is the <i>same</i>
-part of the surface of the same thing, as that which I was seeing
-(or perceiving by touch) just now." How commonly we all do this can
-scarcely be exaggerated. I look at this inkstand, and then I look
-again, and on the second occasion I judge "This part of the surface
-of this inkstand is the same as, or at least contains a part which is
-the same as a part of, the part of its surface which I was seeing just
-now." Or I look at this finger and then I touch it, and I judge, on the
-second occasion, "This part of the surface of this finger is the same
-as one of those I was seeing just now." We all thus constantly identify
-a part of a surface of a material thing which we are perceiving at one
-time with a part which we <i>were</i> perceiving at another.</p>
-
-<p>Now, when we do this&mdash;when we judge "This is the <i>same</i> part of the
-same thing as I was seeing or touching just now," we, of course, do
-not mean to exclude the possibility that the part in question may
-have changed during the interval; that it is really different, on the
-second occasion, either in shape or size or quality, or in all three,
-from what it was on the first. That is to say, the sense of sameness
-which we are here concerned with is one which clearly does not exclude
-change. We may even be prepared to assert, on general grounds, in all
-such cases, that the surface in question certainly must have changed.
-But nevertheless there is a great difference in one respect, between
-two kinds of such<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_242" id="Page_242">[Pg 242]</a></span> cases, both of which occur exceedingly commonly.
-If I watch somebody blowing air into a child's balloon, it constantly
-happens, at certain stages in the process, that I judge with regard
-to the part of the surface which I am seeing at that stage, not only
-that it <i>is</i> larger than it was at an earlier stage, but that it is
-<i>perceptibly</i> larger. Or, if I pull the face of an india-rubber doll,
-I may judge at a certain stage in the process that the patch of red
-colour on its cheek not only is different in shape from what it was
-at the beginning, but is <i>perceptibly</i> so; it may, for instance, be a
-perceptibly flatter ellipse than it was to start with. Or, if I watch
-a person blushing, I may judge at a certain stage that a certain part
-of the surface of his face not only is different in colour from what
-it was, when I saw it before he began to blush, but is <i>perceptibly</i>
-so&mdash;perceptibly redder. In enormous numbers of cases we do thus judge
-of a surface seen at a given time that it is thus <i>perceptibly</i>
-different in size, or in shape, or in colour, from what it was when we
-saw it before. But cases are at least equally numerous in which, though
-we might, on general grounds be prepared to assert that it <i>must</i> have
-changed in some respect, we should not be prepared to assert that it
-had, in any respect whatever, changed <i>perceptibly.</i> Of this part
-of this surface of this inkstand, for instance, I am certainly not
-prepared to assert that it is now perceptibly different in any respect
-from what it was when I saw it just now. And similar cases are so
-numerous that I need not give further instances. We can, therefore,
-divide cases, in which we judge, of a part of a surface which we are
-seeing, "This is the same part of the surface of the same material
-thing as the one I saw just now," into cases where we should also judge
-"But it is perceptibly different from what it was then," and cases in
-which, even though we might assert "It <i>must</i> be different," we are<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_243" id="Page_243">[Pg 243]</a></span>
-certainly not prepared to assert that it is <i>perceptibly</i> so.</p>
-
-<p>But now let us consider the cases in which we are not prepared to
-assert that the surface in question has changed perceptibly. The
-strange fact, from which the argument I mean is drawn, is that, in a
-very large number of such cases, it seems as if it were unmistakably
-true that the presented object, about which we are making our judgment
-when we talk of "This surface" at the later time, <i>is</i> perceptibly
-different, from that about which we are making it when we talk of the
-surface I saw just now. If, at the later time, I am at a sufficiently
-greater distance from the surface, the presented object which
-corresponds to it at the time seems to be perceptibly smaller, than
-the one which corresponded to it before. If I am looking at it from
-a sufficiently oblique angle, the later presented object often seems
-to be perceptibly different in shape&mdash;a perceptibly flatter ellipse,
-for instance. If I am looking at it, with blue spectacles on, when
-formerly I had none, the later presented object seems to be perceptibly
-different in colour from the earlier one. If I am perceiving it by
-touch alone, whereas formerly I was perceiving it by sight alone,
-the later presented object seems to be perceptibly different from
-the earlier, in respect of the fact that it is not coloured at all,
-whereas the earlier was, and that, on the other hand, it has certain
-tactual qualities, which the earlier had not got. All this seems to
-be as plain as it can be, and yet it makes absolutely no difference
-to the fact that of the surface in question we are <i>not</i> prepared to
-judge that it is perceptibly different from what it was. Sometimes,
-of course, where there seems to be no doubt that the later presented
-object is perceptibly different from the earlier, we may not notice
-that it is so. But even where we do notice the apparent difference, we
-do<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_244" id="Page_244">[Pg 244]</a></span> still continue to judge of the surface in question: This surface
-is not, so far as I can tell with certainty by perception, in any way
-different from what it was when I saw it or touched it just now; I am
-<i>not</i> prepared to assert that it has changed perceptibly. It seems,
-therefore, to be absolutely impossible that the surface seen at the
-later time should be identical with the object presented then, and the
-surface seen at the earlier identical with the object presented then,
-for the simple reason that, whereas with regard to the later seen
-surface I am not prepared to judge that it is in any way perceptibly
-different from that seen earlier, it seems that with regard to the
-later sense-datum I cannot fail to judge that it <i>is</i> perceptibly
-different from the earlier one: the fact that they are perceptibly
-different simply stares me in the face. It seems, in short, that when,
-in such a case, I judge: "This surface is not, so far as I can tell,
-perceptibly different from the one I saw just now," I cannot possibly
-be judging of the presented object "<i>This</i> is not, so far as I can
-tell, perceptibly different from that object which was presented to
-me just now," for the simple reason that I <i>can</i> tell, as certainly,
-almost, as I can tell anything, that it is perceptibly different.</p>
-
-<p>That is the argument, as well as I can put it, for saying that this
-presented object, is <i>not</i> identical with this part of the surface of
-this inkstand; and that, therefore, when I judge "This is part of the
-surface of an inkstand," I am not judging of this presented object,
-which nevertheless is the ultimate subject of my judgment, that <i>it</i> is
-part of the surface of an inkstand. And this argument does seem to me
-to be a very powerful one.</p>
-
-<p>But nevertheless it does not seem to me to be quite conclusive, because
-it rests on an assumption, which, though it seems to me to have great
-force, does not seem to me quite certain. The assumption<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_245" id="Page_245">[Pg 245]</a></span> I mean is the
-assumption that, in such cases as those I have spoken of, the later
-presented object really is perceptibly different from the earlier. This
-assumption has, if I am not mistaken, seemed to many philosophers to
-be quite unquestionable; they have never even thought of questioning
-it; and I own that it used to be so with me. And I am still not sure
-that I may not be talking sheer nonsense in suggesting that it can
-be questioned. But, if I am, I am no longer able to see that I am.
-What now seems to me to be possible is that the sense-datum which
-corresponds to a tree, which I am seeing, when I am a mile off, may not
-really be perceived to <i>be</i> smaller than the one, which corresponds
-to the same tree, when I see it from a distance of only a hundred
-yards, but that it is only perceived to <i>seem</i> smaller; that the
-sense-datum which corresponds to a penny, which I am seeing obliquely,
-is not really perceived to <i>be</i> different in shape from that which
-corresponded to the penny, when I was straight in front of it, but is
-only perceived to <i>seem</i> different&mdash;that all that is perceived is that
-the one <i>seems</i> elliptical and the other circular; that the sense-datum
-presented to me when I have the blue spectacles on is not perceived
-to <i>be</i> different in colour from the one presented to me when I have
-not, but only to <i>seem</i> so; and finally that the sense-datum presented
-when I touch this finger is not perceived to <i>be</i> different in any way
-from that presented to me when I see it, but only to <i>seem</i> so that
-I do not perceive the one to be coloured and the other not to be so,
-but only that the one <i>seems</i> coloured and the other not. If such a
-view is to be possible, we shall have, of course, to maintain that
-the kind of experience which I have expressed by saying one <i>seems</i>
-different from the other<i>&mdash;"seems</i> circular," <i>"seems</i> blue," <i>"seems</i>
-coloured," and so on&mdash;involves an ultimate, not further analysable,
-kind<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_246" id="Page_246">[Pg 246]</a></span> of psychological relation, not to be identified either with that
-involved in being "perceived" to be so and so, or with that involved
-in being "judged" to be so and so; since a presented object might, in
-this sense, <i>seem</i> to be elliptical, <i>seem</i> to be blue, etc., when it
-is neither perceived to be so, nor judged to be so. But there seems to
-me to be no reason why there should not be such an ultimate relation.
-The great objection to such a view seems to me to be the difficulty of
-believing that I don't actually perceive this sense-datum to <i>be</i> red,
-for instance, and that other to <i>be</i> elliptical; that I only perceive,
-in many cases, that it <i>seems</i> so. I cannot, however, now persuade
-myself that it is quite clear that I do perceive it to <i>be</i> so. And,
-if I don't, then it seems really possible that this presented object
-really is identical with this part of the surface of this inkstand;
-since, when I judge, as in the cases supposed, that the surface in
-question is <i>not</i>, so far as I can tell, perceptibly different from
-what it was, I might really be judging of the two sense-data that they
-also were not, so far as I can tell, perceptibly different, the only
-difference between the two that <i>is</i> perceptible, being that the one
-<i>seems</i> to be of a certain size, shape or colour, and the other to
-be of a different and incompatible size, shape or colour. Of course,
-in those cases, as in that of the balloon being blown up, where I
-"perceive" that the surface has changed, <i>e.g.</i> in size, it would have
-to be admitted that I do perceive of the two sense-data not merely that
-they <i>seem</i> different in size, but that they <i>are</i> so. But I think it
-would be possible to maintain that the sense in which, in these cases,
-I "perceive" them to <i>be</i> different, is a different one from that in
-which, both in these and in the others, I perceive them to <i>seem</i> so.</p>
-
-<p>Possibly in making this suggestion that sense-data, in cases where most
-philosophers have<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_247" id="Page_247">[Pg 247]</a></span> assumed unhesitatingly that they are <i>perceived</i> to
-be different, are only really perceived to <i>seem</i> different, I am, as I
-said, talking sheer nonsense, though I cannot, at the moment, see that
-I am. And possibly, even if this suggestion itself is not nonsense,
-even if it is true, there may be other fatal objections to the view
-that this presented object really is identical with this part of the
-surface of this inkstand. But what seems to me certain is that, unless
-this suggestion is true, then this presented object is certainly <i>not</i>
-identical with this part of the surface of this inkstand. And since it
-is doubtful whether it is not nonsense, and still more doubtful whether
-it is true, it must, I think, be admitted to be highly doubtful whether
-the two <i>are</i> identical. But, if they are not identical, then what I am
-judging with regard to this presented object, when I judge "This is an
-inkstand," is certainly <i>not</i> that it is itself part of the surface of
-an inkstand; and hence, it is worth while to inquire further, what, if
-I am not judging this, I <i>can</i> be judging with regard to it.</p>
-
-<p>And here, I think, the first natural suggestion to make is that just
-as, when I talk of "this inkstand," what I seem really to mean is
-"<i>the</i> inkstand of which <i>this</i> is part of the surface," so that the
-inkstand is only known to me by description as the inkstand of which
-this material surface is part of the surface, so again when I talk of
-"this material surface," what I really mean is "<i>the</i> material surface
-to which <i>this</i> (presented object) has a certain relation," so that
-this surface is, in its turn, only known to me by description as <i>the</i>
-surface which has a certain relation to this presented object. If that
-were so, then what I should be judging of this presented object, when I
-judge "This is part of the surface of an inkstand," would be not that
-it is itself such a part, but that <i>the</i> thing which stands to it<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_248" id="Page_248">[Pg 248]</a></span> in
-a certain relation is such a part: in short, what I should be judging
-with regard to <i>it,</i> would be "There's one thing and one only which
-stands to <i>this</i> in <i>this</i> relation, and the thing which does so is
-part of the surface of an inkstand."</p>
-
-<p>But if we are to adopt the view that something of this sort is what we
-are judging, there occurs at once the pressing question: What on earth
-can the relation be with regard to which we are judging, that one and
-only one thing stands in it to this presented object? And this is a
-question to which, so far as I know, none of those philosophers, who
-<i>both</i> hold (as many do) that this presented object is <i>not</i> identical
-with this part of the surface of this inkstand, <i>and</i> also that there
-really is something of which it could be truly predicated that it is
-this part of the surface of this inkstand (that is to say, who reject
-all views of the Mill-Russell type), have given anything like a clear
-answer. It does not seem to have occurred to them that it requires an
-answer, chiefly, I think, because it has not occurred to them to ask
-what we can be judging when we make judgments of this sort. There are
-only two answers, that I can think of, which might be suggested with
-any plausibility.</p>
-
-<p>Many philosophers, who take the view that the presented objects about
-which we make these judgments are sensations of ours, and some even who
-do not, are in the habit of talking of <i>"the</i> causes" of these objects
-as if we knew, in the case of each, that it had one and only one cause;
-and many of them seem to think that this part of the surface of this
-inkstand could be correctly described as <i>the</i> cause of this presented
-object. They suggest, therefore, the view that what I am judging in
-this case might be: "This presented object has one and only one cause,
-and that cause is part of the surface of an inkstand." It seems to me
-quite<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_249" id="Page_249">[Pg 249]</a></span> obvious that <i>this</i> view, at all events, is utterly untenable. I
-do not believe for a moment, nor does any one, and certainly therefore
-do not judge, that this presented object has <i>only</i> one cause: I
-believe that it has a whole series of different causes. I do, in fact,
-believe that this part of the surface of this inkstand is <i>one</i> among
-the causes of my perception of this presented object: that seems to
-me to be a very well established scientific proposition. And I am
-prepared to admit that there <i>may</i> be good reasons for thinking that
-it is one among the causes of this presented object itself, though I
-cannot myself see that there are any. But that it is the <i>only</i> cause
-of this presented object I certainly do not believe, nor, I think,
-does anybody, and hence my judgment certainly cannot be "<i>The</i> cause
-of this is part of the surface of an inkstand." It might no doubt, be
-possible to define some <i>kind</i> of causal relation, such that it might
-be plausibly held that it and it alone causes this presented object <i>in
-that particular way.</i> But any such definition would, so far as I can
-see, be necessarily very complicated. And, even when we have got it,
-it seems to me it would be highly improbable we could truly say that
-what we are judging in these cases is: "This presented object has one
-and only one cause, of this special kind." Still, I do not wish to deny
-that some such view may <i>possibly</i> be true.</p>
-
-<p>The only other suggestion I can make is that there may be some
-ultimate, not further definable relation, which we might for instance,
-call the relation of "being a manifestation of," such that we might
-conceivably be judging: "There is one and only one thing of which this
-presented object is a manifestation, and <i>that</i> thing is part of the
-surface of an inkstand." And here again, it seems to me just possible
-that this <i>may</i> be a true account of what we are judging; only I cannot
-find the slightest<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_250" id="Page_250">[Pg 250]</a></span> sign that I am in fact aware of any such relation.</p>
-
-<p>Possibly other suggestions could be made as to what the relation is,
-with regard to which it could be plausibly supposed that in all cases,
-where we make these judgments we are in fact judging of the presented
-object "There is one and only one thing which stands to this object in
-<i>this</i> relation." But it seems to me at least very doubtful whether
-there is any such relation at all; whether, therefore, our judgment
-really is of this form, and whether therefore, this part of the surface
-of this inkstand really is known to me by description as <i>the</i> thing
-which stands in a certain relation to this presented object. But if it
-isn't, and if, also, we cannot take the view that what I am judging
-is that this presented object <i>itself</i> is a part of the surface of an
-inkstand, there would seem to be no possible alternative but that we
-must take some view of what I have called the Mill-Russell type. Views
-of this type, if I understand them rightly, are distinguished from
-those which I have hitherto considered, by the fact that, according to
-them, there is nothing whatever in the Universe of which it could truly
-be predicated that it is this part of the surface of this inkstand,
-or indeed that it is <i>a</i> part of the surface of an inkstand, or an
-inkstand, at all. They hold, in short, that though there are plenty of
-material things in the Universe, there is nothing in it of which it
-could truly be asserted that <i>it</i> is a material thing: that, though,
-when I assert "This is an inkstand," my assertion is true, and is such
-that it follows from it that there is in the Universe at least one
-inkstand, and, therefore, at least one material thing, yet it does not
-follow from it that there is anything which is a material thing. When
-I judge "This is an inkstand," I am judging this presented object to
-possess a certain property, which is such that, if there are things,
-which possess<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_251" id="Page_251">[Pg 251]</a></span> that property, there are inkstands and material things,
-but which is such that nothing which possesses it is itself a material
-thing; so that in judging that there are material things, we are really
-always judging of some <i>other</i> property, which is not that of being a
-material thing, that there are things which possess <i>it.</i> It seems to
-me quite possible, of course, that some view of this type is the true
-one. Indeed, this paper may be regarded, if you like, as an argument in
-favour of the proposition that some such view <i>must</i> be true. Certainly
-one of my main objects in writing it was to put as plainly as I can
-some grave difficulties which seem to me to stand in the way of any
-other view; in the hope that some of those, who reject all views of
-the Mill-Russell type, may explain clearly which of the alternatives
-I have suggested they would adopt, or whether, perhaps, some other
-which has not occurred to me. It does not seem to me to be always
-sufficiently realised how difficult it is to find <i>any</i> answer to my
-question "What are we judging in these cases?" to which there are not
-very grave objections, unless we adopt an answer of the Mill-Russell
-type. That an answer of this type <i>is</i> the true one, I am not myself,
-in spite of these objections, by any means convinced. The truth is I am
-completely puzzled as to what the true answer can be. At the present
-moment, I am rather inclined to favour the view that what I am judging
-of this presented object is that it is itself a part of the surface of
-an inkstand&mdash;that, therefore, it really is identical with this part of
-the surface of this inkstand, in spite of the fact that this involves
-the view that, where, hitherto, I have always supposed myself to be
-perceiving of two presented objects that they really were different, I
-was, in fact, only perceiving that they <i>seemed</i> to be different. But,
-as I have said, it seems to me quite possible that this<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_252" id="Page_252">[Pg 252]</a></span> view is, as I
-have hitherto supposed, sheer nonsense; and, in any case, there are, no
-doubt, other serious objections to the view that this presented object
-is this part of the surface of this inkstand.</p>
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_253" id="Page_253">[Pg 253]</a></span></p>
-
-
-
-
-<h4><a name="THE_CONCEPTION_OF_INTRINSIC_VALUE" id="THE_CONCEPTION_OF_INTRINSIC_VALUE">THE CONCEPTION OF INTRINSIC VALUE</a></h4>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<p>My main object in this paper is to try to define more precisely the
-most important question, which, so far as I can see, is really at issue
-when it is disputed with regard to any predicate of value, whether it
-is or is not a "subjective" predicate. There are three chief cases in
-which this controversy is apt to arise. It arises, first, with regard
-to the conceptions of "right" and "wrong," and the closely allied
-conception of "duty" or "what <i>ought</i> to be done." It arises, secondly,
-with regard to "good" and "evil," in some sense of those words in which
-the conceptions for which they stand are certainly quite distinct from
-the conceptions of "right" and "wrong," but in which nevertheless it is
-undeniable that ethics has to deal with them. And it arises, lastly,
-with regard to certain aesthetic conceptions, such as "beautiful" and
-"ugly;" or "good" and "bad," in the sense in which these words are
-applied to works of art, and in which, therefore, the question what is
-good and bad is a question not for ethics but for aesthetics.</p>
-
-<p>In all three cases there are people who maintain that the predicates
-in question are purely "subjective," in a sense which can, I think,
-be fairly easily defined. I am not here going to attempt a perfectly
-accurate definition of the sense in question; but, as the term
-"subjective" is so desperately ambiguous, I had better try to indicate<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_254" id="Page_254">[Pg 254]</a></span>
-roughly the sense I am thinking of. Take the word "beautiful" for
-example. There is a sense of the term "subjective," such that to say
-that "beautiful" stands for a subjective predicate, means, roughly,
-that any statement of the form "This is beautiful" merely expresses a
-psychological assertion to the effect that some particular individual
-or class of individuals either actually has, or would, under certain
-circumstances, have, a certain kind of mental attitude towards the
-thing in question. And what I mean by "having a mental attitude"
-towards a thing, can be best explained by saying that to desire a thing
-is to have one kind of mental attitude towards it, to be pleased with
-it is to have another, to will it is to have another; and in short
-that to have any kind of feeling or emotion <i>towards</i> it is to have a
-certain mental attitude towards it&mdash;a different one in each case. Thus
-anyone who holds that when we say that a thing is beautiful, what we
-<i>mean</i> is merely that we ourselves or some particular class of people
-actually do, or would under certain circumstances, have, or permanently
-have, a certain feeling towards the thing in question, is taking a
-"subjective" view of beauty.</p>
-
-<p>But in all three cases there are also a good many people who hold that
-the predicates in question are not, in this sense "subjective"; and I
-think that those who hold this are apt to speak as if the view which
-they wish to maintain in opposition to it consisted simply and solely
-in holding its contradictory&mdash;in holding, that is, that the predicates
-in question are "objective," where "objective" simply means the same as
-"not subjective." But in fact I think this is hardly ever really the
-case. In the case of goodness and beauty, what such people are really
-anxious to maintain is by no means merely that these conceptions are
-"objective," but that, besides being "objective," they are also, in
-a sense<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_255" id="Page_255">[Pg 255]</a></span> which I shall try to explain, "intrinsic" kinds of value.
-It is this conviction&mdash;the conviction that goodness and beauty are
-<i>intrinsic</i> kinds of value, which is, I think, the strongest ground of
-their objection to any subjective view. And indeed, when they speak
-of the "objectivity" of these conceptions, what they have in mind is,
-I believe, always a conception which has no proper right to be called
-"objectivity," since it includes as an essential part this other
-characteristic which I propose to call that of being an "intrinsic"
-kind of value.</p>
-
-<p>The truth is, I believe, that though, from the proposition that a
-particular kind of value is "intrinsic" it does follow that it must
-be "objective," the converse implication by no means holds, but on
-the contrary it is perfectly easy to conceive theories of <i>e.g.</i>
-"goodness," according to which goodness would, in the strictest sense,
-be "objective," and yet would not be "intrinsic." There is, therefore,
-a very important difference between the conception of "objectivity,"
-and that which I will call "internality" but yet, if I am not mistaken,
-when people talk about the "objectivity" of any kind of value, they
-almost always confuse the two, owing to the fact that most of those
-who deny the "internality" of a given kind of value, also assert its
-"subjectivity." How great the difference is, and that it is a fact that
-those who maintain the "objectivity" of goodness do, as a rule, mean by
-this not mere "objectivity," but "internality," as well, can, I think,
-be best brought out by considering an instance of a theory, according
-to which goodness would be objective but would not be intrinsic.</p>
-
-<p>Let us suppose it to be held, for instance, that what is meant by
-saying that one type of human being A is "better" than another type B,
-is merely that the course of evolution tends to increase the numbers of
-type A and to decrease those of type<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_256" id="Page_256">[Pg 256]</a></span> B. Such a view has, in fact, been
-often suggested, even if it has not been held in this exact form; it
-amounts merely to the familiar suggestion that "better" means "better
-fitted to survive." Obviously "better," on this interpretation of its
-meaning, is in no sense a "subjective" conception: the conception of
-belonging to a type which tends to be favoured by the struggle for
-existence more than another is as "objective" as any conception can be.
-But yet, if I am not mistaken, all those who object to a subjective
-view of "goodness," and insist upon its "objectivity," would object
-just as strongly to this interpretation of its meaning as to any
-"subjective" interpretation. Obviously, therefore, what they are really
-anxious to contend for is not merely that goodness is "objective,"
-since they are here objecting to a theory which is "objective;" but
-something else. And this something else is, I think, certainly just
-that it is "intrinsic"&mdash;a character which is just as incompatible
-with this objective evolutionary interpretation as with any and every
-subjective interpretation. For if you say that to call type A "better"
-than type B means merely that it is more favoured in the struggle for
-existence, it follows that the being "better" is a predicate which does
-<i>not depend merely on the intrinsic nature of A and B respectively.</i>
-On the contrary, although here and now A may be more favoured than B,
-it is obvious that under other circumstances or with different natural
-laws the very same type B might be more favoured than A, so that the
-very same type which, under one set of circumstances, is better than
-B, would, under another set, be worse. Here, then, we have a case
-where an interpretation of "goodness," which does make it "objective,"
-is incompatible with its being "intrinsic." And it is just this same
-fact&mdash;the fact that, on any "subjective" interpretation, the very<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_257" id="Page_257">[Pg 257]</a></span> same
-kind of thing which, under some circumstances, is better than another,
-would, under others, be worse&mdash;which constitutes, so far as I can
-see, the fundamental objection to all "subjective" interpretations.
-Obviously, therefore, to express this objection by saying that goodness
-is "objective" is very incorrect; since goodness might quite well be
-"objective" and yet <i>not</i> possess the very characteristic which it is
-mainly wished to assert that it has.</p>
-
-<p>In the case, therefore, of ethical and aesthetic "goodness," I think
-that what those who contend for the "objectivity" of these conceptions
-really wish to contend for is not mere "objectivity" at all, but
-principally and essentially that they are <i>intrinsic</i> kinds of value.
-But in the case of "right" and "wrong" and "duty," the same cannot
-be said, because many of those who object to the view that these
-conceptions are "subjective," nevertheless do not hold that they are
-"intrinsic." We cannot, therefore, say that what those who contend for
-the "objectivity" of right and wrong really mean is always chiefly
-that those conceptions are intrinsic, but we can, I think, say that
-what they do mean is certainly <i>not</i> "objectivity" in this case any
-more than the other; since here, just as there, it would be possible
-to find certain views, which are in every sense "objective," to
-which they would object just as strongly as to any subjective view.
-And though what is meant by "objectivity" in this case, is not that
-"right" and "wrong" are <i>themselves</i> "intrinsic," what is, I think,
-meant here too is that they have a fixed relation to a kind of value
-which <i>is</i> "intrinsic." It is this fixed relation to an intrinsic
-kind of value, so far as I can see, which gives to right and wrong
-that kind and degree of fixity and impartiality which they actually
-are felt to possess, and which is what people are thinking of when
-they talk of their "objectivity." Here, too, therefore,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_258" id="Page_258">[Pg 258]</a></span> to talk of
-the characteristic meant as "objectivity" is just as great a misnomer
-as in the other cases; since though it is a characteristic which is
-incompatible with any kind of "subjectivity," it is also incompatible,
-for the same reason, with many kinds of "objectivity."</p>
-
-<p>For these reasons I think that what those who contend for the
-"objectivity" of certain kinds of value, or for the "objectivity" of
-judgments of value, commonly have in mind is not really "objectivity"
-at all, but either that the kinds of value in question are themselves
-"intrinsic," or else that they have a fixed relation to some kind that
-is so. The conception upon which they really wish to lay stress is not
-that of "objective value," but that of "intrinsic value," though they
-confuse the two. And I think this is the case to a considerable extent
-not only with the defenders of so-called "objectivity," but also with
-its opponents. Many of those who hold strongly (as many do) that <i>all</i>
-kinds of value are "subjective" certainly object to the so-called
-"objective" view, not so much because it is <i>objective</i>, as because it
-is not <i>naturalistic ox positivistic</i>&mdash;a characteristic which does
-naturally follow from the contention that value is "intrinsic," but
-does not follow from the mere contention that it is "objective." To a
-view which is at the same time both "naturalistic" or "positivistic"
-and also "objective," such as the Evolutionary view which I sketched
-just now, they do not feel at all the same kind or degree of objection
-as to any so-called "objective" view. With regard to so-called
-"objective" views they are apt to feel not only that they are false,
-but that they involve a particularly poisonous kind of falsehood&mdash;the
-erecting into a "metaphysical" entity of what is really susceptible of
-a simple naturalistic explanation. They feel that to hold such a view
-is not merely to make a mistake, but to make a superstitious<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_259" id="Page_259">[Pg 259]</a></span> mistake.
-They feel the same kind of contempt for those who hold it, which we
-are apt to feel towards those whom we regard as grossly superstitious,
-and which is felt by certain persons for what they call "metaphysics."
-Obviously, therefore, what they really object to is not simply the view
-that these predicates are "objective," but something else&mdash;something
-which does not at all follow from the contention that they are
-"objective," but which does follow from the contention that they are
-"intrinsic."</p>
-
-<p>In disputes, therefore, as to whether particular kinds of value are
-or are not "subjective," I think that the issue which is really felt
-to be important, almost always by one side, and often by both, is not
-really the issue between "subjective" and "non-subjective," but between
-"intrinsic" and "non-intrinsic." And not only is this felt to be the
-more important issue; I think it really is so. For the difference that
-must be made to our view of the Universe, according as we hold that
-some kinds of value are "intrinsic" or that none are, is much greater
-than any which follows from a mere difference of opinion as to whether
-some are "non-subjective," or all without exception "subjective." To
-hold that any kinds of value are "intrinsic" entails the recognition of
-a kind of predicate extremely different from any we should otherwise
-have to recognise and perhaps unique; whereas it is in any case certain
-that there are "objective" predicates as well as "subjective."</p>
-
-<p>But now what is this "internality" of which I have been speaking?
-What is meant by saying with regard to a kind of value that it is
-"intrinsic?" To express roughly what is meant is, I think, simple
-enough; and everybody will recognise it at once, as a notion which
-is constantly in people's heads; but I want to dwell upon it at some
-length,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_260" id="Page_260">[Pg 260]</a></span> because I know of no place where it is expressly explained and
-defined, and because, though it seems very simple and fundamental, the
-task of defining it precisely is by no moans easy and involves some
-difficulties which I must confess that I do not know how to solve.</p>
-
-<p>I have already given incidentally the main idea in speaking of that
-evolutionary interpretation of "goodness," according to which, as I
-said, goodness would be "objective" but would not be "intrinsic."
-I there used as equivalent to the assertion that 'better,' on
-that definition, would not be 'intrinsic,' the assertion that the
-question whether one type of being A was better than another B would
-<i>not</i> depend <i>solely on the intrinsic natures of A and B,</i> but on
-circumstances and the laws of nature. And I think that this phrase will
-in fact suggest to everybody just what I do mean by "intrinsic" value.
-We can, in fact, set up the following definition. <i>To say that a kind
-of value is "intrinsic" means merely that the question whether a thing
-possesses it, and in what degree it possesses it, depends solely on the
-intrinsic nature of the thing in question.</i></p>
-
-<p>But though this definition does, I think, convey exactly what I mean,
-I want to dwell upon its meaning, partly because the conception of
-'differing in intrinsic nature which I believe to be of fundamental
-importance, is liable to be confused with other conceptions, and partly
-because the definition involves notions, which I do not know how to
-define exactly.</p>
-
-<p>When I say, with regard to any particular kind of value, that the
-question whether and in what degree anything possesses it <i>depends
-solely on the intrinsic nature of the thing in question</i>, I mean to say
-two different things at the same time. I mean to say (1) that it is
-<i>impossible</i> for what is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_261" id="Page_261">[Pg 261]</a></span> strictly <i>one and the same</i> thing to possess
-that kind of value at one time, or in one set of circumstances, and
-<i>not</i> to possess it at another; and equally <i>impossible</i> for it to
-possess it in one degree at one time, or in one set of circumstances,
-and to possess it in a different degree at another, or in a different
-set. This, I think, is obviously part of what is naturally conveyed by
-saying that the question whether and in what degree a thing possesses
-the kind of value in question always depends <i>solely</i> on the intrinsic
-nature of the thing. For if <i>x</i> and <i>y</i> have different intrinsic
-natures, it follows that <i>x</i> cannot be quite strictly one and the same
-thing as <i>y</i>; and hence if <i>x</i> and <i>y</i> can have a different intrinsic
-value, only where their intrinsic natures are different, it follows
-that one and the same thing must always have the same intrinsic value.
-This, then, is part of what is meant; and about this part I think I
-need say no more, except to call attention to the fact that it involves
-a conception, which as we shall see is also involved in the other part,
-and which involves the same difficulty in both cases&mdash;I mean, the
-conception which is expressed by the word 'impossible.' (2) The second
-part of what is meant is that if a given thing possesses any kind of
-intrinsic value in a certain degree, then not only must that same thing
-possess it, under all circumstances, in the same degree, but also
-anything <i>exactly like</i> it, must, under all circumstances, possess it
-in exactly the same degree. Or to put it in the corresponding negative
-form: It is <i>impossible</i> that of two exactly similar things one should
-possess it and the other not, or that one should possess it in one
-degree, and the other in a different one.</p>
-
-<p>I think this second proposition also is naturally conveyed by saying
-that the kind of value in question depends solely on the intrinsic
-nature of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_262" id="Page_262">[Pg 262]</a></span> what possesses it. For we should naturally say of two
-things which were <i>exactly alike</i> intrinsically, in spite of their
-being <i>two,</i> that they possessed the <i>same</i> intrinsic nature. But
-it is important to call attention expressly to the fact that what
-I mean by the expression 'having a different intrinsic nature' is
-equivalent to 'not exactly alike' because here there is real risk of
-confusion between this conception and a different one. This comes
-about as follows. It is natural to suppose that the phrase 'having a
-different intrinsic nature' is equivalent to the phrase 'intrinsically
-different' or 'having different intrinsic properties.' But, if we do
-make this identification, there is a risk of confusion. For it is
-obvious that there is a sense in which, when things are exactly like,
-they must be 'intrinsically different' and have different intrinsic
-properties, merely because they are two. For instance, two patches of
-colour may be exactly alike, in spite of the fact that each possesses a
-constituent which the other does not possess, provided only that their
-two constituents are exactly alike. And yet, in a certain sense, it
-is obvious that the fact that each has a constituent, which the other
-has not got, does constitute an intrinsic difference between them, and
-implies that each has an intrinsic property which the other has not
-got. And even where the two things are simple the mere fact that they
-are <i>numerically</i> different does in a sense constitute an intrinsic
-difference between them, and each will have at least one intrinsic
-property which the other has not got&mdash;namely that of being identical
-with itself. It is obvious therefore that the phrases 'intrinsically
-different' and 'having different intrinsic properties' are ambiguous.
-They may be used in such a sense that to say of two things that they
-are intrinsically different or have different intrinsic properties does
-<i>not</i> imply that they are not exactly alike, but only<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_263" id="Page_263">[Pg 263]</a></span> that they are
-<i>numerically</i> different. Or they may be used in a sense in which two
-things can be said to be intrinsically different, and to have different
-intrinsic properties <i>only</i> when they are not exactly alike. It is,
-therefore, extremely important to insist that when I say: Two things
-can differ in intrinsic value, only when they have different intrinsic
-natures, I am using the expression 'having different intrinsic natures'
-in the latter sense and not the former:&mdash;in a sense in which the mere
-fact that two things are two, or differ numerically, does <i>not</i> imply
-that they have different intrinsic natures, but in which they can
-be said to have different intrinsic natures, <i>only</i> where, besides
-differing numerically, they are also <i>not</i> exactly alike.</p>
-
-<p>But as soon as this is explained, another risk of confusion arises
-owing to the fact that when people contrast mere numerical difference
-with a kind of intrinsic difference, which is <i>not</i> merely numerical,
-they are apt to identify the latter with <i>qualitative</i> difference. It
-might, therefore, easily be thought that by 'difference in intrinsic
-nature' I mean 'difference in quality.' But this identification of
-difference in quality with difference in intrinsic nature would also
-be a mistake. It is true that what is commonly meant by difference
-of quality, in the strict sense, always is a difference of intrinsic
-nature: two things cannot differ in quality without differing in
-intrinsic nature; and that fact is one of the most important facts
-about qualitative difference. But the converse is by no means also
-true: although two things cannot differ in quality without differing in
-intrinsic nature, they can differ in intrinsic nature without differing
-in quality; or, in other words, difference in quality is only <i>one</i>
-species of difference in intrinsic nature. That this is so follows
-from the fact that, as I explained, I am using the phrase 'different
-in intrinsic nature' as<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_264" id="Page_264">[Pg 264]</a></span> equivalent to 'not exactly like for it is
-quite plain that two things may not be exactly alike, in spite of the
-fact that they don't differ in quality, <i>e.g.</i> if the only difference
-between them were in respect of the <i>degree</i> in which they possess
-some quality they do possess. Nobody would say that a very loud sound
-was exactly like a very soft one, even if they were exactly like in
-quality; and yet it is plain there is a sense in which their intrinsic
-nature is different For this reason alone qualitative difference cannot
-be identified with difference in intrinsic nature. And there are still
-other reasons. Difference in size, for instance may be a difference
-in intrinsic nature, in the sense I mean, but it can hardly be called
-a difference in quality. Or take such a difference as the difference
-between two patterns consisting in the fact that the one is a yellow
-circle with a red spot in the middle, and the other a yellow circle
-with a blue spot in the middle. This difference would perhaps be
-loosely called a difference of quality; but obviously it would be more
-accurate to call it a difference which consists in the fact that the
-one pattern has a <i>constituent</i> which is qualitatively different from
-any which the other has; and the difference between being qualitatively
-different and having qualitatively different constituents is important
-both because the latter can only be defined in terms of the former, and
-because it is possible for simple things to differ from one another
-in the former way, whereas it is only possible for complex things to
-differ in the latter.</p>
-
-<p>I hope this is sufficient to make clear exactly what the conception is
-which I am expressing by the phrase "different in intrinsic nature."
-The important points are (1) that it is a kind of difference which
-does <i>not</i> hold between two things, when they are <i>merely</i> numerically
-different, but only when, besides being numerically different, they
-are also<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_265" id="Page_265">[Pg 265]</a></span> <i>not</i> exactly alike and (2) that it is <i>not</i> identical
-with qualitative difference; although qualitative difference is one
-particular species of it. The conception seems to me to be an extremely
-important and fundamental one, although, so far as I can see, it has no
-quite simple and unambiguous name: and this is the reason why I have
-dwelt on it at such length. "Not exactly like" is the least ambiguous
-way of expressing it; but this has the disadvantage that it looks as
-if the idea of exact likeness were the fundamental one from which this
-was derived, whereas I believe the contrary to be the case. For this
-reason it is perhaps better to stick to the cumbrous phrase "different
-in intrinsic nature."</p>
-
-<p>So much for the question what is meant by saying of two things that
-they "differ in intrinsic nature." We have now to turn to the more
-difficult question as to what is meant by the words "impossible" and
-"necessary" in the statement: A kind of value is intrinsic if and only
-if, it is <i>impossible</i> that <i>x</i> and <i>y</i> should have different values of
-the kind, unless they differ in intrinsic nature; and in the equivalent
-statement: A kind of value is intrinsic if and only if, when anything
-possesses it, that same thing or anything exactly like it would
-<i>necessarily</i> or <i>must</i> always, under all circumstances, possess it in
-exactly the same degree.</p>
-
-<p>As regards the meaning of this necessity and impossibility, we may
-begin by making two points clear.</p>
-
-<p>(1) It is sometimes contended, and with some plausibility, that what
-we mean by saying that it is <i>possible</i> for a thing which possesses
-one predicate F to possess another G, is, sometimes at least, merely
-that some things which possess F do in fact also possess G. And if
-we give this meaning to "possible," the corresponding meaning of the
-statement it is <i>impossible</i> for a thing which<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_266" id="Page_266">[Pg 266]</a></span> possesses F to possess
-G will be merely: Things which possess F never do in fact possess G.
-If, then, we understood "impossible" in this sense, the condition for
-the "internality" of a kind of value, which I have stated by saying
-that if a kind of value is to be "intrinsic" it must be <i>impossible</i>
-for two things to possess it in different degrees, if they are exactly
-like one another, will amount merely to saying that no two things
-which are exactly like one another ever do, in fact, possess it in
-different degrees. It follows, that, if this were all that were meant,
-this condition would be satisfied, if only it were true (as for all
-I know it may be) that, in the case of all things which possess any
-particular kind of intrinsic value, there happens to be nothing else
-in the Universe exactly like any one of them; for if this were so, it
-would, of course, follow that no two things which are exactly alike did
-in fact possess the kind of value in question in different degrees,
-for the simple reason that everything which possessed it at all would
-be unique in the sense that there was nothing else exactly like it. If
-this were all that were meant, therefore, we could prove any particular
-kind of value to satisfy this condition, by merely proving that there
-never has in fact and never will be anything exactly like any one of
-the things which possess it: and our assertion that it satisfied this
-condition would merely be an empirical generalisation. Moreover if
-this were all that was meant it would obviously be by no means certain
-that purely subjective predicates could not satisfy the condition in
-question; since it would be satisfied by any subjective predicate of
-which it happened to be true that everything which possessed it was,
-in fact, unique&mdash;that there was nothing exactly like it; and for all
-I know there may be many subjective predicates of which this is true.
-It is, therefore, scarcely necessary to say that I am<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_267" id="Page_267">[Pg 267]</a></span> not using
-"impossible" in this sense. When I say that a kind of value, to be
-intrinsic, must satisfy the condition that it must be <i>impossible</i> for
-two things exactly alike to possess it in different degrees, I do not
-mean by this condition anything which a kind of value could be proved
-to satisfy, by the mere empirical fact that there was nothing else
-exactly like any of the things which possessed it. It is, of course,
-an essential part of my meaning that we must be able to say not merely
-that no two exactly similar things do <i>in fact</i> possess it in different
-degrees, but that, <i>if</i> there had been or were going to be anything
-exactly similar to a thing which does possess it, even though, in
-fact, there has not and won't be any such thing, that thing would have
-possessed or would possess the kind of value in question in exactly the
-same degree. It is essential to this meaning of "impossibility" that
-it should entitle us to assert what <i>would</i> have been the case, under
-conditions which never have been and never will be realised; and it
-seems obvious that no mere empirical generalisation can entitle us to
-do this.</p>
-
-<p>But (2) to say that I am not using 'necessity' in this first sense,
-is by no means sufficient to explain what I do mean. For it certainly
-seems as if causal laws (though this is disputed) do entitle us to make
-assertions of the very kind that mere empirical generalisations do not
-entitle us to make. In virtue of a causal law we do seem to be entitled
-to assert such things as that, if a given thing had had a property
-or were to have a property F which it didn't have or won't have, it
-<i>would</i> have had or <i>would</i> have some other property G. And it might,
-therefore, be thought that the kind of 'necessity' and 'impossibility'
-I am talking of is this kind of causal 'necessity' and 'impossibility.'
-It is, therefore, important to insist that I do <i>not</i> mean this kind
-either. If this were all I meant, it would<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_268" id="Page_268">[Pg 268]</a></span> again be by no means
-obvious, that purely subjective predicates might not satisfy our second
-condition. It may, for instance, for all I know, be true that there
-are causal laws which insure that in the case of everything that is
-'beautiful,' anything exactly like any of these things would, in this
-Universe, excite a particular kind of feeling in everybody to whom it
-were presented in a particular way: and if that were so, we should have
-a subjective predicate which satisfied the condition that, when a given
-thing possesses that predicate, it is impossible (in the causal sense)
-that any exactly similar thing should not also possess it. The kind
-of necessity I am talking of is not, therefore, mere causal necessity
-either. When I say that if a given thing possesses a certain degree of
-intrinsic value, anything precisely similar to it <i>would</i> necessarily
-<i>have</i> possessed that value in exactly the same degree, I mean that it
-<i>would</i> have done so, even if it had existed in a Universe in which
-the causal laws were quite different from what they are in this one. I
-mean, in short, that it is <i>impossible</i> for any precisely similar thing
-to possess a different value, in precisely such a sense as that, in
-which it is, I think, generally admitted that it is <i>not</i> impossible
-that causal laws should have been different from what they are&mdash;a sense
-of impossibility, therefore, which certainly does not depend merely on
-causal laws.</p>
-
-<p>That there is such a sense of necessity&mdash;a sense which entitles us to
-say that what has F <i>would have</i> G, even if causal laws were quite
-different from what they are&mdash;is, I think, quite clear from such
-instances as the following. Suppose you take a particular patch of
-colour, which is yellow. We can, I think, say with certainty that any
-patch exactly like that one, <i>would</i> be yellow, even if it existed in
-a Universe in which causal laws were quite different<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_269" id="Page_269">[Pg 269]</a></span> from what they
-are in this one. We can say that any such patch <i>must</i> be yellow,
-quite unconditionally, whatever the circumstances, and whatever
-the causal laws. And it is in a sense similar to this, in respect
-of the fact that it is neither empirical nor causal, that I mean
-the 'must' to be understood, when I say that if a kind of value is
-to be 'intrinsic,' then, supposing a given-thing possesses it in a
-certain degree, anything exactly like that thing <i>must</i> possess it in
-exactly the same degree. To say, of 'beauty' or 'goodness' that they
-are 'intrinsic' is only, therefore, to say that this thing which is
-obviously true of 'yellowness' and 'blueness' and 'redness' is true
-of them. And if we give this sense to 'must' in our definition, then
-I think it is obvious that to say of a given kind of value that it is
-intrinsic <i>is</i> inconsistent with its being 'subjective.' For there
-is, I think, pretty clearly no subjective predicate of which we can
-say thus unconditionally, that, <i>if</i> a given thing possesses it, then
-anything exactly like that thing, <i>would,</i> under any circumstances, and
-under any causal laws, also possess it. For instance, whatever kind of
-feeling you take, it is plainly not true that supposing I have that
-feeling towards a given thing A, then <i>I</i> should necessarily under any
-circumstances have that feeling towards anything precisely similar to
-A: for the simple reason that a thing precisely similar to A <i>might</i>
-exist in a Universe in which I did not exist at all. And similarly
-it is not true of any feeling whatever, that if <i>somebody</i> has that
-feeling towards a given thing A, then, in arty Universe, in which
-a thing precisely similar to A existed, <i>somebody</i> would have that
-feeling towards it. Nor finally is it even true, that if it is true of
-a given thing A, that, under actual causal laws, any one to whom A were
-presented in a certain way <i>would</i> have a certain feeling towards it,
-then the same hypothetical<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_270" id="Page_270">[Pg 270]</a></span> predicate would, in any Universe, belong to
-anything precisely similar to A: in every case it seems to be possible
-that there <i>might</i> be a Universe, in which the causal laws were such
-that the proposition would not be true.</p>
-
-<p>It is, then, because in my definition of 'intrinsic' value the 'must'
-is to be understood in this unconditional sense, that I think that the
-proposition that a kind of value is 'intrinsic' is inconsistent with
-its being subjective. But it should be observed that in holding that
-there is this inconsistency, I am contradicting a doctrine which seems
-to be held by many philosophers. There are, as you probably know, some
-philosophers who insist strongly on a doctrine which they express by
-saying that no relations are purely external. And so far as I can make
-out one thing which they mean by this is just that, whenever r has any
-relation whatever which <i>y</i> has not got, <i>x</i> and <i>y cannot</i> be exactly
-alike: That any difference in relation necessarily entails a difference
-in intrinsic nature. There is, I think, no doubt that when these
-philosophers say this, they mean by their 'cannot' and 'necessarily'
-an unconditional 'cannot' and 'must.' And hence it follows they are
-holding that, if, for instance, a thing A pleases me now, then any
-other thing, B, precisely similar to A, must, under any circumstances,
-and in any Universe, please me also: since, if B did not please me, it
-would <i>not</i> possess a relation which A does possess, and therefore, by
-their principle, <i>could</i> not be precisely similar to A<i>&mdash;must</i> differ
-from it in intrinsic nature. But it seems to me to be obvious that this
-principle is false. If it were true, it would follow that I can know <i>a
-priori</i> such things as that no patch of colour which is seen by you and
-is not seen by me is ever exactly like any patch which is seen by me
-and is not seen by you; or that no patch of colour which is surrounded
-by a<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_271" id="Page_271">[Pg 271]</a></span> red ring is ever exactly like one which is not so surrounded. But
-it is surely obvious, that, whether these things are true or not they
-are things which I cannot know <i>a priori.</i> It is simply <i>not</i> evident
-<i>a priori</i> that no patch of colour which is seen by A and not by B is
-ever exactly like one which is seen by B and not by A, and that no
-patch of colour which is surrounded by a red ring is ever exactly like
-one which is not. And this illustration serves to bring out very well
-both what is meant by saying of such a predicate as 'beautiful 'that
-it is intrinsic,' and why, if it is, it cannot be subjective. What is
-meant is just that if A is beautiful and B is not, you could know <i>a
-priori</i> that A and B are <i>not</i> exactly alike; whereas, with any such
-subjective predicate, as that of exciting a particular feeling in me,
-or that of being a thing which would excite such a feeling in any
-spectator, you cannot tell <i>a priori</i> that a thing A which did possess
-such a predicate and a thing B which did not, could not be exactly
-alike.</p>
-
-<p>It seems to me, therefore, quite certain, in spite of the dogma that no
-relations are purely external, that there are many predicates, such for
-instance as most (if not all) subjective predicates or the objective
-one of being surrounded by a red ring, which do <i>not</i> depend solely
-on the intrinsic nature of what possesses them: or, in other words,
-of which it is <i>not</i> true that if <i>x</i> possesses them and <i>y</i> does
-not, <i>x</i> and <i>y must</i> differ in intrinsic nature. But what precisely
-is meant by this unconditional 'must,' I must confess I don't know.
-The obvious thing to suggest is that it is the logical 'must,' which
-certainly is unconditional in just this sense: the kind of necessity,
-which we assert to hold, for instance, when we say that whatever is a
-right-angled triangle <i>must</i> be a triangle, or that whatever is yellow
-<i>must</i> be either yellow or blue. But I must<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_272" id="Page_272">[Pg 272]</a></span> say I cannot see that
-all unconditional necessity is of this nature. I do not see how it
-can be deduced from any logical law that, if a given patch of colour
-be yellow, then any patch which were exactly like the first would be
-yellow too. And similarly in our case of 'intrinsic' value, though I
-think it is true that beauty, for instance, is 'intrinsic,' I do not
-see how it can be deduced from any logical law, that if A is beautiful,
-anything that were exactly like A would be beautiful too, in exactly
-the same degree.</p>
-
-<p>Moreover, though I do believe that both "yellow" (in the sense in
-which it applies to sense-data) and "beautiful" are predicates which,
-in this unconditional sense, depend only on the intrinsic nature of
-what possesses them, there seems to me to be an extremely important
-difference between them which constitutes a further difficulty in the
-way of getting quite clear as to what this unconditional sense of
-"must" is. The difference I mean is one which I am inclined to express
-by saying that though both yellowness and beauty are predicates which
-<i>depend</i> only on the intrinsic nature of what possesses them, yet
-while yellowness is itself an <i>intrinsic</i> predicate, <i>beauty</i> is not.
-Indeed it seems to me to be one of the most important truths about
-predicates of value, that though many of them <i>are</i> intrinsic kinds of
-value, in the sense I have defined, yet <i>none</i> of them are intrinsic
-properties, in the sense in which such properties as "yellow" or the
-property of "being a state of pleasure" or "being a state of things
-which contains a balance of pleasure" are intrinsic properties. It is
-obvious, for instance, that, if we are to reject <i>all</i> naturalistic
-theories of value, we must not only reject those theories, according to
-which no kind of value would be intrinsic, but must also reject such
-theories as those which assert, for instance, that to say that a state
-of mind is good<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_273" id="Page_273">[Pg 273]</a></span> is to say that it is a state of being pleased; or
-that to say that a state of things is good is to say that it contains
-a balance of pleasure over pain. There are, in short, two entirely
-different types of naturalistic theory, the difference between which
-may be illustrated by the difference between the assertion, "A is good"
-<i>means</i> "A is pleasant" and the assertion "A is good" <i>means</i> "A is a
-state of pleasure." Theories of the former type imply that goodness is
-<i>not</i> an intrinsic kind of value, whereas theories of the latter type
-imply equally emphatically that it is: since obviously such predicates
-as that "of being a state of pleasure," or "containing a balance of
-pleasure," <i>are</i> predicates like "yellow" in respect of the fact that
-if a given thing possesses them, anything exactly like the thing in
-question must possess them. It seems to me equally obvious that <i>both</i>
-types of theory are false: but I do not know how to exclude them both
-except by saying that two different propositions are both true of
-<i>goodness</i>, namely: (1) that it does depend <i>only</i> on the intrinsic
-nature of what possesses it&mdash;which excludes theories of the first type
-and (2) that, <i>though</i> this is so, it is yet not itself an intrinsic
-property&mdash;which excludes those of the second. It was for this reason
-that I said above that, if there are any intrinsic kinds of value,
-they would constitute a class of predicates which is, perhaps, unique;
-for I cannot think of any other predicate which resembles them in
-respect of the fact, that though <i>not</i> itself intrinsic, it yet shares
-with intrinsic properties the characteristics of depending solely on
-the intrinsic nature of what possesses it. So far as I know, certain
-predicates of value are the only non-intrinsic properties which share
-with intrinsic properties this characteristic of depending only on the
-intrinsic nature of what possesses them.</p>
-
-<p>If, however, we are thus to say that predicates of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_274" id="Page_274">[Pg 274]</a></span> value, though
-<i>dependent</i> solely on intrinsic properties, are not themselves
-intrinsic properties, there must be some characteristic belonging to
-intrinsic properties which predicates of value never possess. And
-it seems to me quite obvious that there is; only I can't see <i>what</i>
-it is. It seems to me quite obvious that if you assert of a given
-state of things that it contains a balance of pleasure over pain, you
-are asserting of it not only a <i>different</i> predicate, from what you
-would be asserting of it if you said it was "good"&mdash;but a predicate
-which is of quite a different <i>kind</i>; and in the same way that when
-you assert of a patch of colour that it is "yellow," the predicate
-you assert is not only <i>different</i> from "beautiful," but of quite a
-different <i>kind,</i> in the same way as before. And of course the mere
-fact that many people have thought that goodness and beauty were
-subjective is evidence that there is <i>some</i> great difference of kind
-between them and such predicates as being yellow or containing a
-balance of pleasure. But <i>what</i> the difference is, if we suppose, as I
-suppose, that goodness and beauty are <i>not</i> subjective, and that they
-do share with "yellowness" and "containing pleasure," the property
-of depending <i>solely</i> on the intrinsic nature of what possesses
-them, I confess I cannot say. I can only vaguely express the kind of
-difference I feel there to be by saying that intrinsic properties seem
-to <i>describe</i> the intrinsic nature of what possesses them in a sense
-in which predicates of value never do. If you could enumerate <i>all</i>
-the intrinsic properties a given thing possessed, you would have given
-a <i>complete</i> description of it, and would not need to mention any
-predicates of value it possessed; whereas no description of a given
-thing could be <i>complete</i> which omitted any intrinsic property. But,
-in any case, owing to the fact that predicates of intrinsic value are
-not themselves<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_275" id="Page_275">[Pg 275]</a></span> intrinsic properties, you cannot define "intrinsic
-property," in the way which at first sight seems obviously the right
-one. You cannot say that an intrinsic property is a property such that,
-if one thing possesses it and another does not, the intrinsic nature of
-the two things <i>must</i> be different. For this is the very thing which we
-are maintaining to be true of predicates of intrinsic value, while at
-the same time we say that they are <i>not</i> intrinsic properties. Such a
-definition of "intrinsic property" would therefore only be possible if,
-we could say that the necessity there is that, if <i>x</i> and <i>y</i> possess
-different intrinsic properties, their nature must be different, is a
-necessity of a <i>different kind</i> from the necessity there is that, if
-<i>x</i> and <i>y</i> are of different intrinsic values, their nature must be
-different, although both necessities are unconditional. And it seems to
-me possible that this is the true explanation. But, if so, it obviously
-adds to the difficulty of explaining the meaning of the unconditional
-"must," since, in this case, there would be two different meanings of
-"must," both unconditional, and yet neither, apparently, identical with
-the logical "must."</p>
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_276" id="Page_276">[Pg 276]</a></span></p>
-
-
-
-
-<h4><a name="EXTERNAL_AND_INTERNAL_RELATIONS" id="EXTERNAL_AND_INTERNAL_RELATIONS">EXTERNAL AND INTERNAL RELATIONS</a></h4>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-
-<p>In the index to <i>Appearance and Reality</i> (First Edition) Mr. Bradley
-declares that <i>all</i> relations are "intrinsical"; and the following are
-some of the phrases by means of which he tries to explain what he means
-by this assertion. "A relation must at both ends <i>affect,</i> and pass
-into, the being of its terms" (p. 364). "Every relation essentially
-penetrates the being of its terms, and is, in this sense, intrinsical"
-(p. 392). "To stand in a relation and not to be relative, to support
-it and yet not to be infected and undermined by it, seems out of the
-question" (p. 142). And a good many other philosophers seem inclined to
-take the same view about relations which Mr. Bradley is here trying to
-express. Other phrases which seem to be sometimes used to express it,
-or a part of it, are these: "No relations are purely external"; "All
-relations qualify or modify or make a difference to the terms between
-which they hold"; "No terms are independent of any of the relations in
-which they stand to other terms." (See <i>e.g.,</i> Joachim, <i>The Nature of
-Truth,</i> pp. 11, 12, 46).</p>
-
-<p>It is, I think, by no means easy to make out exactly what these
-philosophers mean by these assertions. And the main object of this
-paper is to try to define clearly one proposition, which, even if it
-does not give the whole of what they mean, seems to me to be always
-implied by what they<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_277" id="Page_277">[Pg 277]</a></span> mean, and to be certainly false. I shall try to
-make clear the exact meaning of this proposition, to point out some
-of its most important consequences, and to distinguish it clearly
-from certain other propositions which are, I think, more or less
-liable to be confused with it. And I shall maintain that, if we give
-to the assertion that a relation is "internal" the meaning which this
-proposition would give to it, then, though, in that sense, <i>some</i>
-relations are "internal," others, no less certainly, are not, but are
-"purely external."</p>
-
-<p>To begin with, we may, I think, clear the ground, by putting on
-one side two propositions about relations, which, though they seem
-sometimes to be confused with the view we are discussing, do, I think,
-quite certainly not give the whole meaning of that view.</p>
-
-<p>The first is a proposition which is quite certainly and obviously true
-of all relations, without exception, and which, though it raises points
-of great difficulty, can, I think, be clearly enough stated for its
-truth to be obvious. It is the proposition that, in the case of any
-relation whatever, the kind of fact which we express by saying that
-a given term A has that relation to another term B, or to a pair of
-terms B and C, or to three terms B, C, and D, and so on, in no case
-simply consists in the terms in question <i>together with</i> the relation.
-Thus the fact which we express by saying that Edward VII was father
-of George V, obviously does not simply consist in Edward, George,
-<i>and</i> the relation of fatherhood. In order that the fact may be, it
-is obviously not sufficient that there should merely be George and
-Edward and the relation of fatherhood; it is further necessary that the
-relation should <i>relate</i> Edward to George, and not only so, but also
-that it should relate them in the particular way which we express by
-saying that Edward was<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_278" id="Page_278">[Pg 278]</a></span> father of George, and not merely in the way
-which we should express by saying that George was father of Edward.
-This proposition is, I think, obviously true of all relations without
-exception: and the only reason why I have mentioned it is because,
-in an article in which Mr. Bradley criticises Mr. Russell (<i>Mind,</i>
-1910, p. 179), he seems to suggest that it is inconsistent with the
-proposition that any relations are merely external, and because, so far
-as I can make out, some other people who maintain that all relations
-are internal seem sometimes to think that their contention follows
-from this proposition. The way in which Mr. Bradley puts it is that
-such facts are unities which are not <i>completely analysable</i>; and this
-is, of course, true, if it means merely that in the case of no such
-fact is there any set of constituents of which we can truly say: This
-fact is <i>identical with</i> these constituents. But whether from this it
-follows that all relations are internal must of course depend upon
-what is meant by the latter statement. If it be merely used to express
-this proposition itself, or anything which follows from it, then, of
-course, there can be no doubt that all relations are internal. But I
-think there is no doubt that those who say this do not mean by their
-words <i>merely</i> this obvious proposition itself; and I am going to point
-out something which I think they always imply, and which certainly does
-<i>not</i> follow from it.</p>
-
-<p>The second proposition which, I think, may be put aside at once as
-certainly not giving the whole of what is meant, is the proposition
-which is, I think, the natural meaning of the phrases "All relations
-modify or affect their terms" or "All relations make a difference to
-their terms." There is one perfectly natural and intelligible sense in
-which a given relation may be said to modify a term which stands in
-that relation, namely, the sense in<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_279" id="Page_279">[Pg 279]</a></span> which we should say that, if, by
-putting a stick of sealing-wax into a flame, we make the sealing-wax
-melt, its relationship to the flame has modified the sealing-wax.
-This is a sense of the word "modify" in which part of what is meant
-by saying of any term that it is modified, is that it has actually
-undergone a change: and I think it is clear that a sense in which this
-is part of its meaning is the only one in which the word "modify" can
-properly be used. If, however, those who say that all relations modify
-their terms were using the word in this, its proper, sense, part of
-what would be meant by this assertion would be that all terms which
-have relations at all actually undergo changes. Such an assertion would
-be obviously false, for the simple reason that there are terms which
-have relation? and which yet never change at all. And I think it is
-quite clear that those who assert that all relations are internal, in
-the sense we are concerned with, mean by this something which could be
-consistently asserted to be true of all relations without exception,
-even if it were admitted that some terms which have relations do
-not change. When, therefore, they use the phrase that all relations
-"modify" their terms as equivalent to "all relations are internal,"
-they must be using "modify" in some metaphorical sense other than its
-natural one. I think, indeed, that most of them would be inclined to
-assert that in every case in which a term A comes to have to another
-term B a relation, which it did not have to B in some immediately
-preceding interval, its having of that relation to that term causes
-it to undergo some change, which it would not have undergone if it
-had not stood in precisely that relation to B and I think perhaps
-they would think that this proposition follows from some proposition
-which is true of all relations, without exception, and which is what
-they mean by saying<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_280" id="Page_280">[Pg 280]</a></span> that all relations are internal. The question
-whether the coming into a new relation does thus always cause some
-modification in the term which comes into it is one which is often
-discussed, as if it had something to do with the question whether all
-relations are internal as when, for instance, it is discussed whether
-knowledge of a thing alters the thing known. And for my part I should
-maintain that this proposition is certainly not true. But what I am
-concerned with now is not the question whether it is true, but simply
-to point out that, so far as I can see, it can have nothing to do
-with the question whether all relations are internal, for the simple
-reason that it cannot possibly follow from any proposition with regard
-to <i>all</i> relations without exception. It asserts with regard to all
-relational properties of a certain kind, that they have a certain kind
-of <i>effect</i>; and no proposition of this sort can, I think follow from
-any universal proposition with regard to <i>all</i> relations.</p>
-
-<p>We have, therefore, rejected as certainly not giving the whole meaning
-of the dogma that all relations are internal: (1) the obviously true
-proposition that no relational facts are <i>completely</i> analysable,
-in the precise sense which I gave to that assertion; and (2) the
-obviously false proposition that all relations modify their terms,
-in the natural sense of the term "modify," in which it always has as
-part of its meaning "cause to undergo a change." And we have also seen
-that this false proposition that any relation which a term comes to
-have always causes it to undergo a change is wholly irrelevant to the
-question whether <i>all</i> relations are internal or not. We have seen
-finally that if the assertion that all relations modify their terms is
-to be understood as equivalent to the assertion that all are internal,
-"modify" must be<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_281" id="Page_281">[Pg 281]</a></span> understood in some metaphorical sense. The question
-is: What is this metaphorical sense?</p>
-
-<p>And one point is, I think, pretty clear to begin with. It is obvious
-that, in the case of some relations, a given term A may have the
-relation in question, not only to one other term, but to several
-different terms. If, for instance, we consider the relation of
-fatherhood, it is obvious that a man may be father, not only of
-one, but of several different children. And those who say that all
-relations modify their terms always mean, I think, not merely that
-every different relation which a term has modifies it; but also that,
-where the relation is one which the term has to several different other
-terms, then, in the case of <i>each</i> of these terms, it is modified by
-the fact that it has the relation in question to that particular term.
-If, for instance, A is father of three children, B, C, and D, they
-mean to assert that he is modified, not merely by being a father, but
-by being the father of B, also by being the father of C, and also by
-being the father of D. The mere assertion that all <i>relations</i> modify
-their terms does not, of course, make it quite clear that this is what
-is meant; but I think there is no doubt that it is always meant; and
-I think we can express it more clearly by using a term, which I have
-already introduced, and saying the doctrine is that all <i>relational
-properties</i> modify their terms, in a sense which remains to be
-defined. I think there is no difficulty in understanding what I mean
-by a <i>relational property.</i> If A is father of B, then what you assert
-of A when you say that he is so is a <i>relational property</i>&mdash;namely
-the property of being father of B; and it is quite clear that this
-property is not itself a <i>relation</i>, in the same fundamental sense
-in which the relation of fatherhood is so; and also that, if C is a
-different child from B, then the property of being father of C is a
-different relational<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_282" id="Page_282">[Pg 282]</a></span> property from that of being father of B, although
-there is only <i>one</i> relation, that of fatherhood, from which both are
-derived. So far as I can make out, those philosophers who talk of
-all <i>relations</i> being internal, often actually mean by "relations"
-"relational properties"; when they talk of all the "relations" of a
-given term, they mean all its relational properties, and not merely
-all the different relations, of each of which it is true that the term
-has that relation to something. It will, I think, conduce to clearness
-to use a different word for these two entirely different uses of the
-term "relation" to call "fatherhood" a relation, and "fatherhood of
-B" a "relational property." And the fundamental proposition, which is
-meant by the assertion that all relations are internal, is, I think, a
-proposition with regard to relational properties, and not with regard
-to relations properly so-called. There is no doubt that those who
-maintain this dogma mean to maintain that all relational properties are
-related in a peculiar way to the terms which possess them&mdash;that they
-modify or are internal to them, in some metaphorical sense. And once we
-have defined what this sense is in which a <i>relational property</i> can be
-said to be internal to a term which possesses it, we can easily derive
-from it a corresponding sense in which the <i>relations</i>, strictly so
-called, from which relational properties are derived, can be said to be
-internal.</p>
-
-<p>Our question is then: What is the metaphorical sense of "modify" in
-which the proposition that all relations are internal is equivalent to
-the proposition that all relational properties "modify" the terms which
-possess them? I think it is clear that the term "modify" would never
-have been used at all to express the relation meant, unless there had
-been some analogy between this relation and that which we have seen is
-the proper sense of "modify,"<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_283" id="Page_283">[Pg 283]</a></span> namely, <i>causes</i> to change. And I think
-we can see where the analogy comes in by considering the statement,
-with regard to any particular term A and any relational property P
-which belongs to it, that A <i>would have been different from what it
-is if it had not had</i> P: the statement, for instance, that Edward VII
-would have been different if he had not been father of George V. This
-is a thing which we can obviously truly say of A and P, in some sense,
-whenever it is true of P that it <i>modified</i> A in the proper sense of
-the word: if the being held in the flame causes the sealing-wax to
-melt, we can truly say (in some sense) that the sealing-wax would not
-have been in a melted state if it had not been in the flame. But it
-seems as if it were a thing which might also be true of A and P, where
-it is <i>not</i> true that the possession of P <i>caused</i> A to change; since
-the mere assertion that A would have been different, if it had not
-had P, does not necessarily imply that the possession of P <i>caused
-A</i> to have any property which it would not have had otherwise. And
-those who say that all relations are internal do sometimes tend to
-speak as if what they meant could be put in the form: In the case of
-every relational property which a thing has, it is always true that
-the thing which has it would have been different if it had not had
-that property; they sometimes say even: If P be a relational property
-and A a term which has it, then it is always true that A <i>would not
-have been A</i> if it had not had P. This is, I think, obviously a clumsy
-way of expressing anything which could possibly be true, since, taken
-strictly, it implies the self-contradictory proposition that if A had
-not had P, it would not have been true that A did not have P. But it
-is nevertheless a more or less natural way of expressing a proposition
-which might quite well be true, namely, that, supposing<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_284" id="Page_284">[Pg 284]</a></span> A has P, then
-anything which had not had P would necessarily have been different
-from A. This is the proposition which I wish to suggest as giving the
-metaphorical meaning of "P <i>modifies</i> A," of which we are in search.
-It is a proposition to which I think a perfectly precise meaning can
-be given, and one which does not at all imply that the possession of P
-<i>caused</i> any change in A, but which might conceivably be true of all
-terms and all the relational properties they have, without exception.
-And it seems to me that it is not unnatural that the proposition that
-this is true of P and A, should have been expressed in the form, "P
-modifies A," since it can be more or less naturally expressed in the
-perverted form, "If A had not had P it would have been different,"&mdash;a
-form of words, which, as we saw, can also be used whenever P does, in
-the proper sense, modify A.</p>
-
-<p>I want to suggest, then, that one thing which is always implied by
-the dogma that, "All relations are internal," is that, in the case of
-every relational property, it can always be truly asserted of any term
-A which has that property, that any term which had not had it would
-necessarily have been different from A.</p>
-
-<p>This is the proposition to which I want to direct attention. And there
-are two phrases in it, which require some further explanation.</p>
-
-<p>The first is the phrase "would necessarily have been." And the meaning
-of this can be explained, in a preliminary way, as follows:&mdash;To say
-of a pair of properties P and Q, that any term which had had P would
-necessarily have had Q, is equivalent to saying that, in every case,
-from the proposition with regard to any given term that it has P, it
-<i>follows</i> that that term has Q: <i>follows</i> being understood in the sense
-in which from the proposition with regard to any term, that it is a
-right angle, it<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_285" id="Page_285">[Pg 285]</a></span> <i>follows</i> that it is an angle, and in which from the
-proposition with regard to any term that it is red it <i>follows</i> that
-it is coloured. There is obviously some very important sense in which
-from the proposition that a thing is a right angle, it does follow
-that it is an angle, and from the proposition that a thing is red it
-does follow that it is coloured. And what I am maintaining is that the
-metaphorical sense of "modify," in which it is maintained that all
-relational properties modify the subjects which possess them, can be
-defined by reference to this sense of "follows." The definition is: To
-say of a given relational property P that it modifies or is internal to
-a given term A which possesses it, is to say that from the proposition
-that a thing has not got P it follows that that thing is different
-from A. In other words, it is to say that the property of <i>not</i>
-possessing P, and the property of being different from A are related
-to one another in the peculiar way in which the property of being a
-right-angled triangle is related to that of being a triangle, or that
-of being red to that of being coloured.</p>
-
-<p>To complete the definition it is necessary, however, to define the
-sense in which "different from A" is to be understood. There are two
-different senses which the statement that A is different from B may
-bear. It may be meant merely that A is <i>numerically</i> different from
-B, <i>other</i> than B, not identical with B. Or it may be meant that not
-only is this the case, but also that A is related to B in a way which
-can be roughly expressed by saying that A is <i>qualitatively</i> different
-from B. And of these two meanings, those who say "All relations make
-a <i>difference</i> to their terms," always, I think, mean difference
-in the latter sense and not merely in the former. That is to say,
-they mean, that if P be a relational property which belongs to A,
-then the<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_286" id="Page_286">[Pg 286]</a></span> absence of P entails not only numerical difference from A,
-but qualitative difference. But, in fact, from the proposition that
-a thing is qualitatively different from A, it does follow that it
-is also numerically different. And hence they are maintaining that
-every relational property is "internal to" its terms in both of two
-different senses at the same time. They are maintaining that, if P be a
-relational property which belongs to A, then P is internal to A both in
-the sense (1) that the absence of P entails qualitative difference from
-A; and (2) that the absence of P entails numerical difference from A.
-It seems to me that neither of these propositions is true; and I will
-say something about each in turn.</p>
-
-<p>As for the first, I said before that I think some relational properties
-really are "internal to" their terms, though by no means all are.
-But, if we understand "internal to" in this first sense, I am not
-really sure that any are. In order to get an example of one which
-was, we should have, I think, to say that any two different qualities
-are always <i>qualitatively</i> different from one another: that, for
-instance, it is not only the case that anything which is pure red is
-qualitatively different from anything which is pure blue, but that
-the quality "pure red" itself is qualitatively different from the
-quality "pure blue." I am not quite sure that we can say this, but I
-think we can; and if so, it is easy to get an example of a relational
-property which is internal in our first sense. The quality "orange" is
-intermediate in shade between the qualities yellow and red. This is a
-relational property, and it is quite clear that, on our assumption,
-it is an internal one. Since it is quite clear that any quality which
-were <i>not</i> intermediate between yellow and red, would necessarily
-be <i>other</i> than orange; and if any quality <i>other</i> than orange must
-be <i>qualitatively</i> different<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_287" id="Page_287">[Pg 287]</a></span> from orange, then it follows that
-"intermediate between yellow and red" is internal to "orange." That is
-to say, the absence of the relational property "intermediate between
-yellow and red," <i>entails</i> the property "different in quality from
-orange."</p>
-
-<p>There is then, I think, a difficulty in being sure that <i>any</i>
-relational properties are internal in this first sense. But, if what we
-want to do is to show that some are <i>not,</i> and that therefore the dogma
-that all relations are internal is false, I think the most conclusive
-reason for saying this is that if <i>all</i> were internal in this first
-sense, all would necessarily be internal in the second, and that this
-is plainly false. I think, in fact, the most important consequence of
-the dogma that all relations are internal, is that it follows from it
-that all relational properties are internal in this second sense. I
-propose, therefore, at once to consider this proposition, with a view
-to bringing out quite clearly what it means and involves, and what are
-the main reasons for saying that it is false.</p>
-
-<p>The proposition in question is that, if P be a relational property
-and A a term to which it does in fact belong, then, no matter what
-P and A may be, it may always be truly asserted of them, that any
-term which had <i>not</i> possessed P would necessarily have been other
-than&mdash;numerically different from&mdash;A: or in other words, that A would
-necessarily, in all conceivable circumstances, have possessed P.
-And with this sense of "internal," as distinguished from that which
-says <i>qualitatively different,</i> it is quite easy to point out some
-relational properties which certainly are internal in this sense.
-Let us take as an example the relational property which we assert to
-belong to a visual sense-datum when we say of it that it has another
-visual sense-datum as a spatial part: the assertion, for instance,
-with regard to a coloured patch half of which is red and<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_288" id="Page_288">[Pg 288]</a></span> half yellow.
-"This whole patch contains this patch" (where "this patch" is a proper
-name for the red half). It is here, I think, quite plain that, in a
-perfectly clear and intelligible sense, we can say that any whole,
-which had not contained that red patch, could not have been identical
-with the whole in question: that from the proposition with regard to
-any term whatever that it does not contain <i>that</i> particular patch it
-<i>follows</i> that that term is <i>other</i> than the whole in question&mdash;though
-<i>not</i> necessarily that it is qualitatively different from it. <i>That</i>
-particular whole could not have existed without having that particular
-patch for a part. But it seems no less clear, at first sight, that
-there are many other relational properties of which this is not true.
-In order to get an example, we have only to consider the relation which
-the red patch has to the whole patch, instead of considering as before
-that which the whole has to it. It seems quite clear that, though the
-whole could not have existed without having the red patch for a part,
-the red patch might perfectly well have existed without being part
-of that particular whole. In other words, though every relational
-property of the form "having <i>this</i> for a spatial part" is "internal"
-in our sense, it seems equally clear that every property of the form
-"is a spatial part of this whole" is <i>not</i> internal, but purely
-external. Yet this last, according to me, is one of the things which
-the dogma of internal relations denies. It implies that it is just
-as necessary that anything, which is in fact a part of a particular
-whole, should be a part of that whole, as that any whole, which has
-a particular thing for a part, should have that thing for a part. It
-implies, in fact, quite generally, that any term which does in fact
-have a particular relational property, could not have existed without
-having that property. And in saying this it obviously flies in the
-face of common<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_289" id="Page_289">[Pg 289]</a></span> sense. It seems quite obvious that in the case of many
-relational properties which things have, the fact that they have them
-is <i>a mere matter of fact:</i> that the things in question <i>might</i> have
-existed without having them. That this, which seems obvious, is true,
-seems to me to be the most important thing that can be meant by saying
-that some relations are purely external. And the difficulty is to see
-how any philosopher could have supposed that it was not true: that, for
-instance, the relation of part to whole is no more external than that
-of whole to part. I will give at once one main reason which seems to me
-to have led to the view, that <i>all</i> relational properties are internal
-in this sense.</p>
-
-<p>What I am maintaining is the common-sense view, which seems obviously
-true, that it may be true that A has in fact got P and yet also true
-that A might have existed without having P. And I say that this
-is equivalent to saying that it may be true that A has P, and yet
-<i>not</i> true that from the proposition that a thing has <i>not</i> got P it
-<i>follows</i> that that thing is <i>other</i> than A&mdash;numerically different from
-it. And one reason why this is disputed is, I think, simply because it
-is in fact true that if A has P, and <i>x</i> has <i>not</i>, it <i>does</i> follow
-that <i>x</i> is other than A. These two propositions, the one which I admit
-to be true (1) that if A has P, and <i>x</i> has not, it <i>does</i> follow that
-<i>x</i> is other than A, and the one which I maintain to be false (2) that
-if A has P, then from the proposition with regard to any term <i>x</i>
-that it has not got P, it <i>follows</i> that <i>x</i> is other than A, are, I
-think, easily confused with one another. And it is in fact the case
-that if they are not different, or if (2) follows from (1), then no
-relational properties are external. For (1) is certainly true, and (2)
-is certainly equivalent to asserting that none are. It is therefore
-absolutely essential, if we are to maintain external relations, to
-maintain that (2)<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_290" id="Page_290">[Pg 290]</a></span> does <i>not</i> follow from (1). These two propositions
-(1) and (2), with regard to which I maintain that (1) is true, and (2)
-is false, can be put in another way, as follows: (1) asserts that if A
-has P, then any term which has not, <i>must</i> be other than A. (2) asserts
-that if A has P, then any term which had not, <i>would necessarily be</i>
-other than A. And when they are put in this form, it is, I think, easy
-to see why they should be confused: you have only to confuse "must"
-or "is necessarily" with "would necessarily be." And their connexion
-with the question of external relations can be brought out as follows:
-To maintain external relations you have to maintain such things as
-that, though Edward VII was in fact father of George V, he <i>might</i>
-have existed without being father of George V. But to maintain this,
-you have to maintain that it is <i>not</i> true that a person who was <i>not</i>
-father of George would necessarily have been other than Edward. Yet
-it is, in fact, the case, that any person who was not the father of
-George, <i>must</i> have been other than Edward. Unless, therefore, you can
-maintain that from this true proposition it does <i>not</i> follow that any
-person who was <i>not</i> father of George <i>would necessarily</i> have been
-other than Edward, you will have to give up the view that Edward might
-have existed without being father of George.</p>
-
-<p>By far the most important point in connexion with the dogma of internal
-relations seems to me to be simply to see clearly the difference
-between these two propositions (1) and (2), and that (2) does <i>not</i>
-follow from (1). If this is not understood, nothing in connexion with
-the dogma, can, I think, be understood. And perhaps the difference may
-seem so clear, that no more need be said about it. But I cannot help
-thinking it is not clear to everybody, and that it does involve the
-rejection of certain views, which are sometimes held as to the meaning<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_291" id="Page_291">[Pg 291]</a></span>
-of "follows." So I will try to put the point again in a perfectly
-strict form.</p>
-
-<p>Let P be a relational property, and A a term to which it does in fact
-belong. I propose to define what is meant by saying that P is internal
-to A (in the sense we are now concerned with) as meaning that from the
-proposition that a thing has not got P, it "follows" that it is <i>other</i>
-than A.</p>
-
-<p>That is to say, this proposition asserts that between the two
-properties "not having P" and "other than A," there holds that relation
-which holds between the property "being a right angle" and the property
-"being an angle," or between the property "red" and the property
-"coloured," and which we express by saying that, in the case of any
-thing whatever, from the proposition that that thing is a right angle
-it follows, or is deducible, that it is an angle.</p>
-
-<p>Let us now adopt certain conventions for expressing this proposition.</p>
-
-<p>We require, first of all, some term to express the <i>converse</i> of that
-relation which we assert to hold between a particular proposition <i>q</i>
-and a particular proposition <i>p</i>, when we assert that <i>q follows from</i>
-or <i>is deducible from p.</i> Let us use the term "entails" to express the
-converse of this relation. We shall then be able to say truly that "<i>p</i>
-entails <i>q</i>," when and only when we are able to say truly that "<i>q</i>
-follows from <i>p</i>" or "is deducible from <i>p</i>," in the sense in which the
-conclusion of a syllogism in Barbara follows from the two premisses,
-taken as one conjunctive proposition; or in which the proposition
-"This is coloured" follows from "This is red." "<i>p</i> entails <i>q</i>" will
-be related to "<i>q</i> follows from, <i>p</i>" in the same way in which "A is
-greater than B" is related to "B is less than A."</p>
-
-<p>We require, next, some short and clear method of expressing the
-proposition, with regard to two properties P and Q, that <i>any</i>
-proposition which<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_292" id="Page_292">[Pg 292]</a></span> asserts of a given thing that it has the property
-P <i>entails</i> the proposition that the thing in question also has the
-property Q. Let us express this proposition in the form</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>P entails <i>x</i>Q<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>That is to say "<i>x</i>P entails <i>x</i>Q" is to mean the same as "Each one of
-all the various propositions, which are alike in respect of the fact
-that each asserts with regard to some given thing that that thing has
-P, entails <i>that one</i> among the various propositions, alike in respect
-of the fact that each asserts with regard to some given thing that
-that thing has Q, which makes this assertion with regard to the <i>same
-thing</i>, with regard to which the proposition of the first class asserts
-that it has P." In other words "<i>x</i>P entails <i>x</i>Q" is to be true, if
-and only if the proposition "AP entails AQ" is true, and if also all
-propositions which resemble this, in the way in which "BP entails BQ"
-resembles it, are true also; where "AP" means the same as "A has P,"
-"AQ" the same as "A has Q" etc., etc.</p>
-
-<p>We require, next, some way of expressing the proposition, with regard
-to two properties P and Q, that any proposition which <i>denies</i> of a
-given thing that it has P <i>entails</i> the proposition, with regard to the
-thing in question, that it has Q.</p>
-
-<p>Let us, in the case of any proposition, <i>p</i>, express the contradictory
-of that proposition by <i>p</i>. The proposition "It is not the case that A
-has P" will then be expressed by <span class="over">AP</span>; and it will then be natural, in
-accordance with the last convention to express the proposition that any
-proposition which <i>denies</i> of a given thing that it has P <i>entails</i> the
-proposition, with regard to the thing in question,</p>
-
-<p>that it has Q, by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<span class="over"><i>x</i>P</span> entails <i>xQ.</i><br />
-</p>
-
-<p>And we require, finally, some short way of expressing the proposition,
-with regard to two<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_293" id="Page_293">[Pg 293]</a></span> things B and A, that B is <i>other</i> than (or not
-identical with) A. Let us express "B is identical with A" by "B = A";
-and it will then be natural, according to the last convention, to
-express "B is not identical with A" by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<span class="over">B = A</span>
-</p>
-
-<p>We have now got everything which is required for expressing, in a short
-symbolic form, the proposition, with regard to a given thing A and
-a given relational property P, which A in fact possesses, that P is
-<i>internal</i> to A. The required expression is</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>xP</i> entails (<span class="over"><i>x</i> = A</span>)<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>which is to mean the same as "Every proposition which asserts of any
-given thing that it has not got P <i>entails</i> the proposition, with
-regard to the thing in question, that it is other than A." And this
-proposition is, of course, logically equivalent to</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-(<i>x</i> = A) entails <i>x</i> P<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>where we are using "logically equivalent," in such a sense that to
-say of any proposition <i>p</i> that it is logically equivalent to another
-proposition <i>q</i> is to say that both <i>p</i> entails <i>q</i> and <i>q</i> entails
-<i>p.</i> This last proposition again, is, so far as I can see, either
-identical with or logically equivalent to the propositions expressed
-by "anything which were identical with A would, in any conceivable
-universe, necessarily have P" or by "A could not have existed in any
-possible world without having P"; just as the proposition expressed by
-"In any possible world a right angle must be an angle" is, I take it,
-either identical with or logically equivalent to the proposition "(<i>x</i>
-is a right angle) entails (r is an angle)."</p>
-
-<p>We have now, therefore, got a short means of symbolising, with
-regard to any particular thing A and any particular property P, the
-proposition that P is <i>internal</i> to A in the second of the two senses<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_294" id="Page_294">[Pg 294]</a></span>
-distinguished on <a href="#Page_286">p. 286</a>. But we still require a means of symbolising
-the general proposition that <i>every</i> relational property is internal
-to any term which possesses it&mdash;the proposition, namely, which was
-referred to on <a href="#Page_287">p. 287</a>, as the most important consequence of the dogma
-of internal relations, and which was called (2) on <a href="#Page_289">p. 289</a>.</p>
-
-<p>In order to get this, let us first get a means of expressing with
-regard to some one particular relational property P, the proposition
-that P is internal to <i>any</i> term which possesses it. This is a
-proposition which takes the form of asserting with regard to one
-particular property, namely P, that any term which possesses that
-property also possesses another&mdash;namely the one expressed by saying
-that P is internal to it. It is, that is to say, an ordinary universal
-proposition, like "All men are mortal." But such a form of words is,
-as has often been pointed out, ambiguous. It may stand for either of
-two different propositions. It may stand merely for the proposition
-"There is nothing, which both is a man, and is not mortal"&mdash;a
-proposition which may also be expressed by "If anything is a man,
-that thing is mortal," and which is distinguished by the fact that
-it makes no assertion as to whether there are any men or not; or it
-may stand for the conjunctive proposition "If anything is a man, that
-thing is mortal, <i>and there are men."</i> It will be sufficient for our
-purposes to deal with propositions of the first kind&mdash;those namely,
-which assert with regard to some two properties, say Q and R, that
-there is nothing which both does possess Q and does not possess R,
-without asserting that anything does possess Q. Such a proposition is
-obviously equivalent to the assertion that <i>any</i> pair of propositions
-which resembles the pair "AQ" and "AR," in respect of the fact that
-one of them asserts of some particular<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_295" id="Page_295">[Pg 295]</a></span> thing that it has Q and the
-other, of the same thing, that it has R, stand to one another in a
-certain relation: the relation, namely, which, in the case of "AQ"
-and "AR," can be expressed by saying that "It is not the case both
-that A has Q and that A has not got R." When we say "There is nothing
-which does possess Q and does not possess R" we are obviously saying
-something which is either identical with or logically equivalent to the
-proposition "In the case of every such pair of propositions it is not
-the case both that the one which asserts a particular thing to have
-Q is true, and that the one which asserts it to have R is false." We
-require, therefore, a short way of expressing the relation between two
-propositions <i>p</i> and <i>q,</i> which can be expressed by "It is not the case
-that <i>p</i> is true and <i>q</i> false." And I am going, quite arbitrarily to
-express this relation by writing</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>p</i> * <i>q</i><br />
-</p>
-
-<p>for "It is not the case that <i>p</i> is true and <i>q</i> false."</p>
-
-<p>The relation in question is one which logicians have sometimes
-expressed by "<i>p</i> implies <i>q</i>." It is, for instance, the one which
-Mr. Russell in the <i>'Principles of Mathematics</i> calls "material
-implication," and which he and Dr. Whitehead in <i>Principia Mathematica</i>
-call simply "implication." And if we do use "implication" to stand for
-this relation, we, of course, got the apparently paradoxical results
-that every false proposition implies every other proposition, both
-true and false, and that every true proposition implies every other
-true proposition: since it is quite clear that if <i>p</i> is false then,
-whatever <i>q</i> may be, "it is not the case that <i>p</i> is true and <i>q</i>
-false," and quite clear also, that if <i>p</i> and <i>q</i> are both true, then
-also "it is not the case that <i>p</i> is true and <i>q</i> false." And these
-results, it seems to me, appear to be paradoxical, solely because,
-if we use "implies" in any ordinary sense, they are quite certainly
-false.<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_296" id="Page_296">[Pg 296]</a></span> Why logicians should have thus chosen to use the word "implies"
-as a name for a relation, for which it never is used by any one else,
-I do not know. It is partly, no doubt, because the relation for which
-they do use it&mdash;that expressed by saying "It is not the case that <i>p</i>
-is true and <i>q</i> false"&mdash;is one for which it is very important that
-they should have a short name, because it is a relation which is very
-fundamental and about which they need constantly to talk, while (so far
-as I can discover) it simply has no short name in ordinary life. And
-it is partly, perhaps, for a reason which leads us back to our present
-reason for giving some name to this relation. It is, in fact, natural
-to use "<i>p</i> implies <i>q</i>" to mean the same as "If <i>p,</i> then <i>q."</i> And
-though "If <i>p</i> then <i>q</i>" is hardly ever, if ever, used to mean the
-same as "It is not the case that <i>p</i> is true and <i>q</i> false"; yet the
-expression "If <i>anything</i> has Q, <i>it</i> has R" may, I think, be naturally
-used to express the proposition that, in the case of <i>every</i> pair of
-propositions which resembles the pair A Q and A R in respect of the
-fact that the first of the pair asserts of some particular thing that
-it has Q and the second, of the same thing, that it has R, it is not
-the case that the first is true and the second false. That is to say,
-if (as I propose to do) we express "It is not the case both that AQ is
-true and AR false" by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-AQ * AR,<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>and if, further (on the analogy of the similar case with regard
-to "entails)," we express the proposition that of <i>every</i> pair of
-propositions which resemble A Q and A R in the respect just mentioned,
-it is true that the first has the relation * to the second by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>Q * <i>x</i>R<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>then, it <i>is</i> natural to express <i>x</i>Q * <i>x</i>R, by "If <i>anything</i> has
-Q, then <i>that thing</i> has R." And logicians may, I think, have falsely
-inferred that <i>since</i> it is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_297" id="Page_297">[Pg 297]</a></span> natural to express "<i>x</i>Q * <i>x</i>R" by "If
-<i>anything</i> has Q, then <i>that thing</i> has R," it <i>must</i> be natural to
-express "AQ * AR" by "If AQ, then AR," and therefore also by "AQ
-implies AR." If this has been their reason for expressing "<i>p * q</i>"
-by "<i>p</i> implies <i>q</i>" then obviously their reason is a fallacy. And,
-whatever the reason may have been, it seems to me quite certain that
-"AQ * AR" cannot be properly expressed either by "AQ implies AR" or by
-"If AQ, then AR," although "<i>r</i>Q * <i>x</i>R" can be properly expressed by
-"If anything has Q, then that thing has R."</p>
-
-<p>I am going, then, to express the universal proposition, with regard to
-two particular properties Q and R, which asserts that "Whatever has
-Q, has R" or "If anything has Q, it has R," without asserting that
-anything has Q, by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>Q * <i>x</i>R<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>&mdash;a means of expressing it, which since we have adopted the convention
-that "<i>p</i> * <i>q</i>" is to mean the same as "It is not the case that
-<i>p</i> is true and <i>q</i> false," brings out the important fact that this
-proposition is either identical with or logically equivalent to the
-proposition that of <i>every</i> such pair of propositions as AQ and AR,
-it is true that it is not the case that the first is true and the
-second false. And having adopted this convention, we can now see how,
-in accordance with it, the proposition, with regard to a particular
-property P, that P is <i>internal</i> to <i>everything</i> which possesses it, is
-to be expressed. We saw that P is <i>internal</i> to A is to be expressed by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<span class="over"><i>xP</i></span> entails (<span class="over"><i>x</i> = A</span>)<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>or by the logically equivalent proposition</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-(<i>x =</i> A) entails <i>xP</i><br />
-</p>
-
-<p>And we have now only to express the proposition that <i>anything</i> that
-has P, has also the property that P is <i>internal</i> to it. The required
-expression is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_298" id="Page_298">[Pg 298]</a></span> obviously as follows. Just as "Anything that has Q, has
-R" is to be expressed by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>Q * <i>x</i>R<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>so "Anything that has P, has also the property that P is internal to
-it" will be expressed by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>P * {<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span> entails (<span class="over"><i>y x</i></span>)}<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>or by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>P * {(<i>v x</i>) entails <i>y</i>P}.<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>We have thus got, in the case of any particular property P, a means
-of expressing the proposition that it is <i>internal</i> to <i>every</i> term
-that possesses it, which is both short and brings out clearly the
-notions that are involved in it. And we do not need, I think, any
-further special convention for symbolising the proposition that <i>every</i>
-relational property is internal to any term which possesses it&mdash;the
-proposition, namely, which I called (2) above (pp. <a href="#Page_289">289</a>, <a href="#Page_290">290</a>), and which
-on <a href="#Page_287">p. 287</a>, I called the most important consequence of the dogma of
-internal relations. We can express it simply enough as follows:&mdash;</p>
-
-<p>(2) = "What we assert of P when we say <i>xP</i> * {<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span> entails
-(<span class="over"><i>y = x</i></span>)} can be truly asserted of every relational property."</p>
-
-<p>And now, for the purpose of comparing (2) with (1), and seeing exactly
-what is involved in my assertion that (2) does not follow from (1), let
-us try to express (1) by means of the same conventions.</p>
-
-<p>Let us first take the assertion with regard to a particular thing A
-and a particular relational property P that, from the proposition that
-A has P it <i>follows</i> that nothing which has not got P is identical
-with A. This is an assertion which is quite certainly true; since, if
-anything which had not got P were identical with A, it would follow
-that <span class="over">AP</span>; and from the proposition AP, it certainly <i>follows</i> that
-<span class="over">AP</span> is false, and therefore also that "Something<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_299" id="Page_299">[Pg 299]</a></span> which has not got P
-is identical with A" is false, or that "Nothing which has not got P is
-identical with A" is true. And this assertion, in accordance with the
-conventions we have adopted, will be expressed</p>
-
-<p>by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-AP entails {<span class="over"><i>x</i>P</span> * (<span class="over"><i>x</i> = A</span>)}<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>We want, next, in order to express (1), a means of expressing with
-regard to a particular relational property P, the assertion that, from
-the proposition, with regard to <i>anything</i> whatever, that that thing
-has got P, it <i>follows</i> that nothing which has not got P is identical
-with the thing in question. This also is an assertion which is quite
-certainly true; since it merely asserts (what is obviously true) that
-what</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-AP entails {<span class="over"><i>x</i>P</span> * (<span class="over"><i>x</i> = A</span>)}<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>asserts of A, can be truly asserted of anything whatever. And this
-assertion, in accordance with the conventions we have adopted, will be
-expressed by</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>P entails {<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span> * (<span class="over"><i>y</i> = x</span>)}.<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>The proposition, which I meant to call (1), but which I expressed
-before rather clumsily, can now be expressed by</p>
-
-<p>(1) = "What we assert of P, when we say,</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;"><i>x</i>P entails {<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span> * (<span class="over">y = <i>x</i></span>)}</p>
-
-<p>can be truly asserted of every relational property." This is a
-proposition which is again quite certainly true; and, in order to
-compare it with (2), there is, I think, no need to adopt any further
-convention for expressing it, since the questions whether it is or is
-not different from (2), and whether (2) does or does not follow from
-it, will obviously depend on the same questions with regard to the two
-propositions, with regard to the particular relational property, P,</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>P entails {<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span> * (<span class="over"><i>y = x</i></span>)}<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>and</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>P * {<i>y</i>P entails (<i>y = x</i>)}<br />
-</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_300" id="Page_300">[Pg 300]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>Now what I maintain with regard to (1) and (2) is that, whereas (1) is
-true, (2) is false. I maintain, that is to say, that the proposition
-"What we assert of P, when we say</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>P * {<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span> entails (<span class="over"><i>y = x</i>)</span>}.<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>is true of <i>every</i> relational property" is false, though I admit that
-what we here assert of P is true of <i>some</i> relational properties.
-Those of which it is true, I propose to call <i>internal</i> relational
-properties, those of which it is false <i>external</i> relational
-properties. The dogma of internal relations, on the other hand, implies
-that (2) is true; that is to say, that <i>every</i> relational property is
-<i>internal</i> and that there are no <i>external</i> relational properties. And
-what I suggest is that the dogma of internal relations has been held
-only because (2) has been falsely thought to follow from (1).</p>
-
-<p>And that (2) does not follow from (1), can, I think, be easily seen as
-follows. It can follow from (1) only if from any proposition of the form</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>p</i> entails (<i>q</i> * <i>r</i>)<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>there follows the corresponding proposition of the form</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;"><i>p</i> * (<i>q</i> entails <i>r</i>),</p>
-
-<p>And that this is not the case can, I think, be easily seen by
-considering the following three propositions. Let <i>p</i> = "All the books
-on this shelf are blue," let <i>q</i> = "My copy of the <i>Principles of
-Mathematics</i> is a book on this shelf," and let <i>r</i> = "My copy of the
-<i>Principles of Mathematics</i> is blue." Now <i>p</i> here does absolutely
-<i>entail</i> (<i>q * r</i>). That is to say, it absolutely follows from <i>p</i>
-that "My copy of the <i>Principles</i> is on this shelf," and "My copy of
-the <i>Principles</i> is <i>not</i> blue," are not, as a matter of fact, both
-true. But it by no means follows from this that <i>p</i> * (<i>q</i> entails
-<i>r</i>). For what this latter proposition means is "It is not the case
-both that <i>p</i> is true and that (<i>q</i> entails <i>r</i>) is false." And, as a<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_301" id="Page_301">[Pg 301]</a></span>
-matter of fact, (<i>q</i> entails <i>r</i>) is quite certainly false; for from
-the proposition "My copy of the <i>Principles</i> is on this shelf" the
-proposition "My copy of the <i>Principles</i> is blue" does <i>not</i> follow. It
-is simply not the case that the second of these two propositions can be
-deduced from the first <i>by itself:</i> it is simply not the case that it
-stands to it in the relation in which it does stand to the conjunctive
-proposition "All the books on this shelf are blue <i>and,</i> my copy of the
-<i>Principles</i> is on this shelf." This conjunctive proposition really
-does <i>entail</i> "My copy of the <i>Principles</i> is blue." But "My copy of
-the <i>Principles</i> is on this shelf," <i>by itself</i> quite certainly does
-not entail "My copy of the Principles is blue." It is simply not the
-case that my copy of the Principles <i>couldn't</i> have been on this shelf
-without being blue, (<i>q</i> entails <i>r</i>) is, therefore, false. And hence
-"<i>p</i> * (<i>q</i> entails <i>r</i>)," can only follow from "<i>p</i> entails (<i>q</i> *
-<i>r</i>)," if from this latter proposition <span class="over"><i>p</i></span> follows. But <i>p</i> quite
-certainly does not follow from this proposition: from the fact that (<i>q
-* r</i>) is deducible from <i>p</i>, it does not in the least follow that <span class="over"><i>p</i></span>
-is true. It is, therefore, clearly not the case that every proposition
-of the form</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>p</i> entails (<i>q * r</i>)<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>entails the corresponding proposition of the form</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>p</i> * {<i>q</i> entails <i>r</i>},<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>since we have found one particular proposition of the first form which
-does <i>not</i> entail the corresponding proposition of the second.</p>
-
-<p>To maintain, therefore, that (2) follows from (1) is mere confusion.
-And one source of the confusion is, I think, pretty plain. (1) does
-allow you to assert that, if AP is true, then the proposition "<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span>
-* {(<span class="over"><i>y</i> = A</span>)}" <i>must</i> be true. What the "must" here expresses is
-merely that this proposition follows from AP, not that it is in itself
-a necessary proposition. But it is supposed, through<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_302" id="Page_302">[Pg 302]</a></span> confusion, that
-what is asserted is that it is not the case both that AP is true
-and that "<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span> * (<span class="over"><i>y</i> = A</span>)" is not, <i>in itself,</i> a necessary
-proposition; that is to say, it is supposed that what is asserted is
-"AP + {<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span> entails (<span class="over"><i>y</i> = A</span>)}"; since to say that
-"<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span> * (<span class="over"><i>y</i> = A</span>)" is, <i>in itself</i>, a necessary proposition is the same thing as to
-say that "<span class="over"><i>y</i>P</span> entails (<span class="over"><i>y</i> = A</span>)" is also true. In fact it seems
-to me pretty plain that what is meant by saying of propositions of
-the form "<i>x</i>P * <i>x</i>Q" that they are <i>necessary</i> (or "apodeictic")
-propositions, is merely that the corresponding proposition of the
-form "<i>x</i>P entails <i>x</i>Q" is also true, "<i>x</i>P <i>entails</i> <i>x</i>Q" is not
-<i>itself</i> a necessary proposition; but, if "<i>x</i>P entails <i>x</i>Q" is
-<i>true,</i> then "<i>x</i>P * <i>x</i>Q" is a necessary proposition&mdash;and a necessary
-truth, since no false propositions are necessary in themselves. Thus
-what is meant by saying that "Whatever is a right angle, is also an
-angle" is a necessary truth, is, so far as I can see, simply that the
-proposition "(<i>x</i> is a right angle) entails (<i>x</i> is an angle)" is
-also true. This seems to me to give what has, in fact, been generally
-meant in philosophy by "necessary truths," <i>e.g.</i> by Leibniz; and
-to point out the distinction between them and those true universal
-propositions which are "mere matters of fact." And if we want to extend
-the meaning of the name "necessary truth" in such a way that some
-singular propositions may also be said to be "necessary truths," we
-can, I think, easily do it as follows. We can say that AP is itself
-a necessary truth, if and only if the universal proposition "(<i>x</i> =
-A) * <i>x</i>P" (which, as we have seen, follows from AP) is a necessary
-truth: that is to say, if and only if (<i>x</i> = A) entails <i>x</i>P. With
-this definition, what the dogma of internal relations asserts is that
-in every case in which a given thing actually has a given relational
-property, the fact<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_303" id="Page_303">[Pg 303]</a></span> that it has that property is a necessary truth;
-whereas what I am asserting is that, if the property in question is
-an "internal" property, then the fact in question will be a necessary
-truth, whereas if the property in question is "external," then the fact
-in question will be a mere "matter of fact."</p>
-
-<p>So much for the distinction between (1) which is true, and (2), or
-the dogma of internal relations, which I hold to be false. But I said
-above, in passing, that my contention that (2) does not follow from
-(1), involves the rejection of certain views that have sometimes been
-held as to the meaning of "follows"; and I think it is worth while to
-say something about this.</p>
-
-<p>It is obvious that the possibility of maintaining that (2) does not
-follow from (1), depends upon its being true that from "<i>x</i>P * <i>x</i>Q"
-the proposition "<i>x</i>P entails <i>x</i>Q" does not follow. And this has
-sometimes been disputed, and is, I think, often not clearly seen.</p>
-
-<p>To begin with, Mr. Russell, in the <i>Principles of Mathematics</i> (p. 34),
-treats the phrase "<i>q</i> can be deduced from <i>p</i>" as if it meant exactly
-the same thing as "<i>p * q</i>" or "<i>p</i> materially implies <i>q</i>"; and has
-repeated the same error elsewhere, <i>e.g.</i> in <i>Philosophical Essays</i>
-(p. 166), where he is discussing what <i>he</i> calls the axiom of internal
-relations. And I am afraid a good many people have been led to suppose
-that, since Mr. Russell has said this, it must be true. If it were
-true, then, of course, it would be impossible to distinguish between
-(1) and (2), and it would follow that, since (1) certainly is true,
-what I am calling the dogma of internal relations is true too. But I
-imagine that Mr. Russell himself would now be willing to admit that, so
-far from being true, the statement that "<i>q</i> can be deduced from <i>p</i>"
-means the same as "<i>p</i> * <i>q</i>" is simply an enormous<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_304" id="Page_304">[Pg 304]</a></span> "howler"; and I do
-not think I need spend any time in trying to show that it is so.</p>
-
-<p>But it may be held that, though "<i>p</i> entails <i>q</i>" does not mean the
-same as "<i>p * q</i>," yet nevertheless from "<i>x</i>P * <i>x</i>Q" the proposition
-"<i>x</i>P entails <i>x</i>Q" does follow, for a somewhat more subtle reason;
-and, if this were so, it would again follow that what I am calling the
-dogma of internal relations must be true. It may be held, namely, that
-though "AP entails AQ" does not mean simply "AP * AQ" yet what it does
-mean is simply the conjunction "AP * AQ <i>and</i> this proposition is an
-instance of a true formal implication" (the phrase "formal implication"
-being understood in Mr. Russell's sense, in which "<i>x</i>P * <i>x</i>Q" asserts
-a formal implication). This view as to what "AP entails AQ" means,
-has, for instance, if I understand him rightly, been asserted by Mr.
-O. Strachey in <i>Mind,</i> N.S., 93. And the same view has been frequently
-suggested (though I do not know that he has actually asserted it) by
-Mr. Russell himself (<i>e.g., Principia Mathematica,</i> p. 21). If this
-view were true, then, though "<i>x</i>P entails <i>x</i>Q" would not be identical
-in meaning with "<i>x</i>P * <i>x</i>Q," yet it would follow from it; since, if</p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 30%;">
-<i>x</i>P * <i>x</i>Q<br />
-</p>
-
-<p>were true, then every particular assertion of the form AP * AQ, would
-not only be true, but would be an instance of a true formal implication
-(namely "<i>x</i>P * <i>x</i>Q") and this, according to the proposed definition,
-is all that "<i>x</i>P entails <i>x</i>Q" asserts. If, therefore, it were true,
-it would again follow that all relational properties must be internal.
-But that this view also is untrue appears to me perfectly obvious. The
-proposition that I am in this room does "materially imply" that I am
-more than five years old, since both are true;<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_305" id="Page_305">[Pg 305]</a></span> and the assertion that
-it does is also an instance of a true formal implication, since it is
-in fact true that all the persons in this room are more than five years
-old; but nothing appears to me more obvious than that the second of
-these two propositions can <i>not</i> be deduced from the first&mdash;that the
-kind of relation which holds between the premisses and conclusion of
-a syllogism in <i>Barbara</i> does <i>not</i> hold between them. To put it in
-another way: it seems to me quite obvious that the properties "being
-a person in this room" and "being more than five years old" are not
-related in the kind of way in which "being a right angle" <i>is</i> related
-to "being an angle," and which we express by saying that, in the case
-of every term, the proposition that that term is an angle can be
-deduced from the proposition that it is a right angle.</p>
-
-<p>These are the only two suggestions as to the meaning of "<i>p</i> entails
-<i>q</i>" known to me, which, if true, would yield the result that (2)
-does follow from (1), and that therefore all relational properties
-are internal; and both of these, it seems to me, are obviously
-false. All other suggested meanings, so far as I know, would leave
-it true that (2) does not follow from (1), and therefore that I may
-possibly be right in maintaining that some relational properties are
-external. It might, for instance, be suggested that the last proposed
-definition should be amended as follows&mdash;that we should say: "<i>p</i>
-entails <i>q</i>" means "<i>p * q and</i> this proposition is an instance of a
-formal implication, which is not merely true but <i>self-evident,</i> like
-the laws of Formal Logic." This proposed definition would avoid the
-paradoxes involved in Mr. Strachey's definition, since such true formal
-implications as "all the persons in this room are more than five years
-old" are certainly not<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_306" id="Page_306">[Pg 306]</a></span> self-evident; and, so far as I. can see, it may
-state something which is in fact true of <i>p</i> and <i>q,</i> whenever and only
-when <i>p</i> entails <i>q.</i> I do not myself think that it gives the <i>meaning</i>
-of "<i>p</i> entails <i>q,</i>" since the kind of relation which I see to hold
-between the premisses and conclusion of a syllogism seems to me to be
-one which is purely "objective" in the sense that no psychological
-term, such as is involved in the meaning of "self-evident," is involved
-in its definition (if it has one). I am not, however, concerned to
-dispute that some such definition of "<i>p</i> entails <i>q</i>" as this may be
-true. Since it is evident that, even if it were, my proposition that
-"<i>x</i>P entails <i>x</i>Q" does <i>not</i> follow from "<i>x</i>P * <i>x</i>Q," would still
-be true; and hence also my contention that (2) does not follow from (1).</p>
-
-<p>So much by way of arguing that we are not bound to hold that all
-relational properties are internal in the particular sense, with which
-we are now concerned, in which to say that they are means that in every
-case in which a thing A has a relational property, it follows from the
-proposition that a term has <i>not</i> got that property that the term in
-question is <i>other</i> than A. But I have gone further and asserted that
-some relational properties certainly are <i>not</i> internal. And in defence
-of this proposition I do not know that I have anything to say but that
-it seems to me evident in many cases that a term which <i>has</i> a certain
-relational property <i>might</i> quite well not have had it: that, for
-instance, from the mere proposition that this is this, it by no means
-follows that this has to other things all the relations which it in
-fact has. Everybody, of course, must admit that if all the propositions
-which assert of it that it has these properties, do in fact follow from
-the proposition that this is this, we cannot see that they do. And so
-far as I can see, there is no<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_307" id="Page_307">[Pg 307]</a></span> reason of any kind for asserting that
-they do, except the confusion which I have exposed. But it seems to me
-further that we can see in many cases that the proposition that this
-has that relation does <i>not</i> follow from the fact that it is this:
-that, for instance, the proposition that Edward VII was father of
-George V <i>is</i> a <i>mere</i> matter of fact.</p>
-
-<p>I want now to return for a moment to that other meaning of "internal,"
-(<a href="#Page_286">p. 286</a>) in which to say that P is internal to A means not merely that
-anything which had not P would necessarily be <i>other</i> than A, but that
-it would necessarily be <i>qualitatively</i> different. I said that this
-was the meaning of "internal" in which the dogma of internal relations
-holds that all relational properties are "internal"; and that one of
-the most important consequences which followed from it, was that all
-relational properties are "internal" in the less extreme sense that
-we have just been considering. But, if I am not mistaken, there is
-another important consequence which also follows from it, namely, the
-Identity of Indiscernibles. For if it be true, in the case of every
-relational property, that any term which had net that property would
-necessarily be qualitatively different from any which had, it follows
-of course that, in the case of two terms one of which has a relational
-property, which the other has not the two are qualitatively different.
-But, from the proposition that <i>x</i> is other than <i>y,</i> it <i>does</i> follow
-that <i>x</i> has some relational property which <i>y</i> has not; and hence,
-if the dogma of internal relations be true, it will follow that if
-<i>x</i> is other than <i>y, x</i> is always also qualitatively different from
-<i>y,</i> which is the principle of Identity of Indiscernibles. This is, of
-course, a further objection to the dogma of internal relations, since I
-think it is obvious that the principle of Identity of Indiscernibles is
-not true. Indeed, so far as I can see, the dogma of internal relations
-essentially consists in the joint assertion of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_308" id="Page_308">[Pg 308]</a></span> two indefensible
-propositions: (1) the proposition that in the case of no relational
-property is it true of any term which has got that property, that it
-<i>might</i> not have had it and (2) the Identity of Indiscernibles.</p>
-
-<p>I want, finally, to say something about the phrase which Mr. Russell
-uses in the <i>Philosophical Essays</i> to express the dogma of internal
-relations. He says it may be expressed in the form "Every relation is
-grounded in the natures of the related terms" (p. 160). And it can be
-easily seen, if the account which I have given be true, in what precise
-sense it does hold this. Mr. Russell is uncertain as to whether by "the
-nature" of a term is to be understood the term itself or something
-else. For my part it seems to me that by a term's nature is meant, not
-the term itself, but what may roughly be called all its qualities as
-distinguished from its relational properties. But whichever meaning
-we take, it will follow from what I have said, that the dogma of
-internal relations does imply that every relational property which a
-term has is, in a perfectly precise sense, <i>grounded</i> in its nature.
-It will follow that every such property is <i>grounded</i> in <i>the term,</i>
-in the sense that, in the case of every such property, it <i>follows</i>
-from the mere proposition that that term is that term that it has the
-property in question. And it will also follow that any such property
-is grounded in the qualities which the term has, in the sense, that if
-you take <i>all</i> the qualities which the term has, it will again follow
-in the case of each relational property, from the proposition that the
-term has <i>all</i> those qualities that it has the relational property in
-question; since this is implied by the proposition that in the case of
-any such property, any term which had not had it would necessarily have
-been different in quality from the term in question. In both of these
-two senses, then, the dogma of<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_309" id="Page_309">[Pg 309]</a></span> internal relations does, I think, imply
-that every relational property is grounded in the nature of every term
-which possesses it; and in this sense that proposition is false. Yet
-it is worth noting, I think, that there is another sense of "grounded"
-in which it may quite well be true that every relational property <i>is</i>
-grounded in the nature of any term which possesses it. Namely that, in
-the case of every such property, the term in question has some quality
-<i>without</i> which it could not have had the property. In other words that
-the relational property <i>entails</i> some quality in the term, though no
-quality in the term <i>entails</i> the relational property.</p>
-
-<hr class="chap" />
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_310" id="Page_310">[Pg 310]</a></span></p>
-
-
-
-
-<h4><a name="THE_NATURE_OF_MORAL_PHILOSOPHY" id="THE_NATURE_OF_MORAL_PHILOSOPHY">THE NATURE OF MORAL PHILOSOPHY</a></h4>
-<hr class="r5" />
-
-<p>I should like, if I can, to interest you to-night in one particular
-question about Moral Philosophy. It is a question which resembles most
-philosophical questions, in respect of the fact that philosophers are
-by no means agreed as to what is the right answer to it: some seem to
-be very strongly convinced that one answer is correct, while others are
-equally strongly convinced of the opposite. For my own part I do feel
-some doubt as to which answer is the right one, although, as you will
-see, I incline rather strongly to one of the two alternatives. I should
-like very much, if I could, to find some considerations which seemed to
-me absolutely convincing on the one side or the other; for the question
-seems to me in itself to be an exceedingly interesting one.</p>
-
-<p>I have said that the question is a question <i>about</i> Moral Philosophy;
-and it seems to me in fact to be a very large and general question
-which affects the whole of Moral Philosophy. In asking it, we are doing
-no less than asking what it is that people are doing when they study
-Moral Philosophy at all: we are asking what sort of questions it is
-which it is the business of Moral Philosophy to discuss and try to
-find the right answer to. But I intend, for the sake of simplicity,
-to confine myself to asking it in two particular instances. Moral
-Philosophy has, in fact,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_311" id="Page_311">[Pg 311]</a></span> to discuss a good many different ideas;
-and though I think this same question may be raised with regard to
-them all, I intend to pick out two, which seem to me particularly
-fundamental, and to ask it with regard to them only.</p>
-
-<p>My first business must be to explain what these two ideas are.</p>
-
-<p>The name Moral Philosophy naturally suggests that what is meant is a
-department of philosophy which has something to do with morality. And
-we all understand roughly what is meant by morality. We are accustomed
-to the distinction between moral good and evil, on the one hand, and
-what is sometimes called physical good and evil on the other. We all
-make the distinction between a man's moral character, on the one hand,
-and his agreeableness or intellectual endowments, on the other. We feel
-that to accuse a man of immoral conduct is quite a different thing from
-accusing him merely of bad taste or bad manners, or from accusing him
-merely of stupidity or ignorance. And no less clearly we distinguish
-between the idea of being under a moral obligation to do a thing, and
-the idea of being merely under a legal obligation to do it. It is a
-commonplace that the sphere of morality is much wider than the sphere
-of law: that we are morally bound to do and avoid many things, which
-are not enjoined or forbidden by the laws of our country; and it is
-also sometimes held that, if a particular law is unjust or immoral, it
-may even be a moral duty to disobey it&mdash;that is to say that there may
-be a positive conflict between moral and legal obligation; and the mere
-fact that this is held, whether truly or falsely, shows, at all events,
-that the one idea is quite distinct from the other.</p>
-
-<p>The name Moral Philosophy, then, naturally suggests that it is a
-department of philosophy concerned with morality in this common sense.<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_312" id="Page_312">[Pg 312]</a></span>
-And it is, in fact, true that one large department of Moral Philosophy
-is so concerned. But it would be a mistake to think that the whole
-subject is <i>only</i> concerned with morality. Another important department
-of it is, as I shall try to show, concerned with ideas which are <i>not</i>
-moral ideas, in this ordinary sense, though, no doubt, they may have
-something to do with them. And of the two ideas which I propose to
-pick out for discussion, while one of them is a moral idea, the other
-belongs to that department of Moral Philosophy, which is not concerned
-solely with morality, and is not, I think, properly speaking, a moral
-idea at all.</p>
-
-<p>Let us begin with the one of the two, which is a moral idea.</p>
-
-<p>The particular moral idea which I propose to pick out for discussion
-is the one which I have called above the idea of moral obligation&mdash;the
-idea of being morally bound to act in a particular way on a particular
-occasion. But what is, so far as I can see, precisely the same idea
-is also called by several other names. To say that I am under a moral
-obligation to do a certain thing is, I think, clearly to say the same
-thing as what we commonly express by saying that I ought to do it,
-or that it is my duty to do it. That is to say, the idea of moral
-obligation is identical with the idea of the moral "ought" and with the
-idea of duty. And it also seems at first sight as if we might make yet
-another identification.</p>
-
-<p>The assertion that I ought to do a certain thing seems as if it meant
-much the same as the assertion that it would be wrong of me <i>not</i> to do
-the thing in question: at all events it is quite clear that, whenever
-it is my duty to do anything, it would be wrong of me not to do it,
-and that whenever it would be wrong of me to do anything, then it is
-my duty to refrain from doing it. In the case of these two ideas, the
-idea of what is wrong, and the idea of what is my duty or what I ought
-to do, different<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_313" id="Page_313">[Pg 313]</a></span> views may be taken as to whether the one is more
-fundamental than the other, or whether both are equally so; and on
-the question: <i>If</i> one of the two is more fundamental than the other,
-which of the two is so? Thus some people would say, that the idea of
-"wrong" is the more fundamental, and that the idea of "duty" is to be
-defined in terms of it: that, in fact, the statement "It is my duty to
-keep that promise" merely means "It would be wrong of me not to keep
-it"; and the statement "It is my duty not to tell a lie" merely means
-"It would be wrong of me to tell one." Others again would apparently
-say just the opposite: that duty is the more fundamental notion, and
-"wrong" is to be defined in terms of it. While others perhaps would
-hold that neither is more fundamental than the other; that both are
-equally fundamental, and that the statement "it would be wrong to do so
-and so" is only equivalent to, not identical in meaning with, "I ought
-not to do it." But whichever of these three views be the true one,
-there is, I think, no doubt whatever about the equivalence notion of
-the two ideas; and no doubt, therefore, that whatever answer be given
-to the question I am going to raise about the one, the same answer must
-be given to the corresponding question about the other.</p>
-
-<p>The moral idea, then, which I propose to discuss, is the idea of duty
-or moral obligation, or, what comes to the same thing, the idea of what
-is wrong&mdash;morally wrong. Everybody would agree that this idea&mdash;or, to
-speak more accurately, one or both of these two ideas&mdash;is among the
-most fundamental of our moral ideas, whether or not they would admit
-that all others, for example the ideas of moral goodness, involve a
-reference to this one in their definition, or would hold that we have
-some others which are independent of it, and equally fundamental with
-it.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_314" id="Page_314">[Pg 314]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>But there is a good deal of difficulty in getting clear as to what this
-idea of moral obligation itself is. Is there in fact only one idea
-which we call by this name? Or is it possible that on some occasions
-when we say that so and so is a duty, we mean something different by
-this expression from what we do on others? And that similarly when
-we say that so and so is morally wrong, we sometimes use this name
-"morally wrong" for one idea and sometimes for another; so that one
-and the same thing may be "morally wrong" in one sense of the word,
-and yet <i>not</i> morally wrong in another? I think, in fact, there are
-two different senses in which we use these terms; and to point out the
-difference between them, will help to bring out clearly more the nature
-of each. And I think perhaps the difference can be brought out most
-clearly by considering the sort of moral rules with which we are all of
-us familiar.</p>
-
-<p>Everybody knows that moral teachers are largely concerned in laying
-down moral rules, and in disputing the truth of rules which have been
-previously accepted. And moral rules seem to consist, to a very large
-extent, in assertions to the effect that it is always wrong to do
-certain actions or to refrain from doing certain others; or (what comes
-to the same thing) that it is always your duty to refrain from certain
-actions, and positively to do certain others. The Ten Commandments for
-example, are instances of moral rules; and most of them are examples
-of what are called negative rules&mdash;that is to say rules which assert
-merely that it is wrong to do certain positive actions, and therefore
-our duty to refrain from these actions; instead of rules which assert
-of certain positive actions, that it is our duty to do them and
-therefore wrong to refrain from doing them. The fifth commandment,
-which tells us to honour<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_315" id="Page_315">[Pg 315]</a></span> our father and mother, is apparently an
-exception; it seems to be a positive rule. It is not, like the others,
-expressed in the negative form "Thou shalt <i>not</i> do so and so," and
-it is apparently really meant to assert that we ought to do certain
-positive actions, not merely that there are some positive action from
-which we ought to refrain. The difference between this one and the
-rest will thus serve as an example of the difference between positive
-and negative moral rules, a difference which is sometimes treated as
-if it were of great importance. And I do not wish to deny that there
-may be some important difference between seeing only that certain
-positive actions are wrong, and seeing also that, in certain cases, to
-refrain from doing certain actions is just as wrong as positively to
-do certain others. But this distinction between positive and negative
-rules is certainly of much less importance than another which is, I
-think, liable to be confused with it. So far as this distinction goes
-it is only a distinction between an assertion that it is wrong to do a
-positive action and an assertion that it is wrong to refrain from doing
-one: and each of these assertions is equivalent to one which asserts
-a duty&mdash;the first with an assertion that it is a duty to refrain, the
-second with an assertion that a positive action is a duty. But there is
-another distinction between some moral rules and others, which is of
-much greater importance than this one, and which does, I think, give a
-reason for thinking that the term "moral obligation" is actually used
-in different senses on different occasions.</p>
-
-<p>I have said that moral rules seem to consist, <i>to a large extent</i>,
-in assertions to the effect that it is always wrong to do certain
-<i>actions</i> or to refrain from doing certain others, or the equivalent
-assertions in terms of duty. But there is a large<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_316" id="Page_316">[Pg 316]</a></span> class of moral
-rules, with which we are all of us very familiar, which do not come
-under this definition. They are rules which are concerned not with our
-<i>actions</i>, in the natural sense of the word, but with our feelings,
-thoughts and desires. An illustration of this kind of rule can again
-be given from the Ten Commandments. Most of the ten, as we all know,
-are concerned merely with actions; but the tenth at least is clearly
-an exception. The tenth says "Thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's
-house, nor his wife, nor his servant, nor his ox, nor his ass, nor
-anything that is his," and, unless "covet" is merely a mistranslation
-of a word which stands for some kind of action, we plainly have here a
-rule which is concerned with our <i>feelings</i> and not with our actions.
-And one reason which makes the distinction between rules of this kind
-and rules concerned with actions important, is that our feelings are
-not, as a rule, directly within the control of our will in the sense in
-which many of our actions are. I cannot, for instance, by any single
-act of will directly prevent from arising in my mind a desire for
-something that belongs to some one else, even if, when once the desire
-has arrived, I can by my will prevent its continuance; and even this
-last I can hardly do <i>directly</i> but only by forcing myself to attend
-to other considerations which may extinguish the desire. But though
-I thus cannot prevent myself altogether from coveting my neighbour's
-possessions, I can altogether prevent myself from stealing them. The
-action of stealing, and the feeling of covetousness, are clearly on a
-very different level in this respect. The action is <i>directly</i> within
-the control of my will, whereas the feeling is not. <i>If</i> I will not
-to take the thing (though of course some people may find a great
-difficulty in willing this) it does in general follow directly that I
-do not take it;<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_317" id="Page_317">[Pg 317]</a></span> whereas, it I will not to desire it, it emphatically
-does not, even in general, follow directly that no desire for it will
-be there. This distinction between the way in which our feelings and
-our actions are under the control of our wills is, I think, a very
-real one indeed; we cannot help constantly recognising that it exists.
-And it has an important bearing on the distinction between those moral
-rules which deal with actions and those which deal with feelings, for
-the following reason. The philosopher Kant laid down a well-known
-proposition to the effect that "ought" implies "can": that is to say,
-that it cannot be true that you "ought" to do a thing, unless it is
-true that you <i>could</i> do it, <i>if</i> you chose. And as regards one of
-the senses in which we commonly use the words "ought" and "duty," I
-think this rule is plainly true. When we say absolutely of ourselves
-or others, "I ought to do so and so" or "you ought to," we imply,
-I think, very often that the thing in question is a thing which we
-<i>could</i> do, <i>if</i> we chose; though of course it may often be a thing
-which it is very difficult to choose to do. Thus it is clear that I
-cannot truly say of anyone that he ought to do a certain thing, if it
-is a thing which it is physically impossible for him to do, however
-desirable it may be that the thing should be done. And in this sense it
-is clear that it cannot be truly said of me that I ought not to have a
-certain feeling, or that I ought not to have had it, if it is a feeling
-which I could not, by any effort of my will, prevent myself from
-having. The having or the prevention of a certain feeling is not, of
-course, strictly ever a <i>physical</i> impossibility, but it is very often
-impossible, in exactly the same sense, in which actions are physically
-impossible&mdash;that is to say that I could not possibly get it or prevent
-it, even if I would. But this being so, it is plain that such a
-moral rule as that I ought not<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_318" id="Page_318">[Pg 318]</a></span> to covet my neighbour's possessions
-is, if it means to assert that I ought not, in that sense in which
-"ought" implies "can," a rule which cannot possibly be true. What it
-appears to assert is, absolutely universally, of <i>every</i> feeling of
-covetousness, that the feeling in question is one which the person who
-felt it <i>ought</i> not to have felt. But in fact a very large proportion
-of such feelings (I am inclined to say the vast majority) are feelings
-which the person who felt them could not have prevented feeling, if he
-would: they were beyond the control of his will. And hence it is quite
-emphatically <i>not</i> true that none of these feelings <i>ought</i> to have
-been felt, if we are using "ought" in the sense which implies that the
-person who felt them <i>could</i> have avoided them. So far from its being
-true that absolutely <i>none</i> of them ought to have been felt, this is
-only true of those among them, probably a small minority, which the
-person who felt them <i>could</i> have avoided feeling. If, therefore, moral
-rules with regard to feelings are to have a chance of being <i>nearly</i>
-true, we must understand the "ought" which occurs in them in some
-other sense. But with moral rules that refer to actions the case is
-very different. Take stealing for example. Here again what the Eighth
-Commandment appears to imply is that absolutely every theft which has
-ever occurred was an act which the agent ought not to have done; and,
-if the "ought" is the one which implies "can," it implies, therefore,
-that every theft was an act which the agent, if he had chosen, could
-have avoided. And this statement that every theft which has been
-committed was an act which the thief, <i>if</i> he had so willed, could
-have avoided, though it may be doubted if it is absolutely universally
-true, is not a statement which is clearly absurd, like the statement
-that every covetous desire could have been avoided by the will of the<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_319" id="Page_319">[Pg 319]</a></span>
-person who felt it. It is probable that the vast majority of acts of
-theft have been acts which it was in the power of the thief to avoid,
-if he had willed to do so; whereas this is clearly not true of the vast
-majority of covetous desires. It is, therefore, quite possible that
-those who believe we ought never to steal are using "ought" in a sense
-which implies that stealing always <i>could</i> have been avoided; whereas
-it is I think quite certain that many of those who believe that we
-ought to avoid all covetous desires, do not believe for a moment that
-every covetous desire that has ever been felt was a desire which the
-person who felt it could have avoided feeling, if he had chosen. And
-yet they certainly do believe, in some sense or other, that no covetous
-desire <i>ought</i> ever to have been felt. The conclusion is, therefore,
-it seems to me, unavoidable that we do use "ought," the moral "ought,"
-in two different senses; the one a sense in which to say that I ought
-to have done so and so does really imply that I could have done it,
-if I had chosen, and the other a sense in which it carries with it no
-such implication. I think perhaps the difference between the two can be
-expressed in this way. If we express the meaning of the first "ought,"
-the one which does imply "can," by saying that "I ought to have done
-so and so" means "It actually <i>was</i> my duty to do it"; we can express
-the meaning of the second by saying that <i>e.g.</i> "I ought not to have
-felt so and so" means <i>not</i> "it <i>was</i> my duty to avoid that feeling,"
-but "it <i>would</i> have been my duty to avoid it, <i>if</i> I had been able."
-And corresponding to these two meanings of "ought" we should, I think,
-probably distinguish two different sorts of moral rules, which though
-expressed in the same language, do in fact mean very different things.
-The one is a set of rules which assert (whether truly or falsely)
-that it always actually <i>is</i> a duty to do or<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_320" id="Page_320">[Pg 320]</a></span> to refrain from certain
-actions, and assert therefore that it always is in the power of the
-agent's will to do or to refrain from them; whereas the other sort only
-assert that so and so <i>would</i> be a duty, if it <i>were</i> within our power,
-without at all asserting that it always is within our power.</p>
-
-<p>We may, perhaps, give a name to the distinction I mean, by calling the
-first kind of rules&mdash;those which do assert that something actually is
-a duty&mdash;"rules of duty," and by calling the second kind&mdash;those which
-recommend or condemn something not in the control of our wills&mdash;"ideal
-rules": choosing this latter name because they can be said to inculcate
-a moral "ideal"&mdash;something the attainment of which is not directly
-within the power of our wills. As a further example of the difference
-between ideal rules and rules of duty we may take the famous passage
-from the New Testament (Luke 6, 27) "Love your enemies, do good to
-them that hate you, bless them that curse you, pray for them that
-despitefully use you." Of these four rules, the three last may be
-rules of duty, because they refer to things which are plainly, as a
-rule, at least, in the power of your will; but the first, if "love"
-be understood in its natural sense as referring to your feelings, is
-plainly only an "ideal" rule, since such feelings are obviously not
-directly under our own control, in the same way in which such actions
-as doing good to, blessing or praying for a person are so. To love
-certain people, or to feel no anger against them, is a thing which
-it is quite impossible to attain directly by will, or perhaps ever
-to attain completely at all. Whereas your behaviour towards them is
-a matter within your own control: even if you hate a person, or feel
-angry with him, you can so control yourself as not to do him harm, and
-even to confer benefits upon him. To do good to your enemies may, then,
-really be your duty; but it<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_321" id="Page_321">[Pg 321]</a></span> cannot, in the strict sense, be your duty
-not to have evil feelings towards them: all that can possibly be true
-is that it would be your duty if you were able. Yet I think there can
-be no doubt that what Christ meant to condemn was the occurrence of
-such feelings altogether; and since, if what he meant to assert about
-them in condemning them, would have been certainly false, if he had
-meant to say that you <i>could</i> avoid ever feeling them, I think it is
-clear that what he meant to assert was <i>not</i> this, or not this only,
-but something else, which may quite possibly be true. That is to say,
-he was asserting an ideal rule, not merely a rule of duty.</p>
-
-<p>It will be seen that this distinction which I am making coincides,
-roughly at all events, with the distinction which is often expressed
-as the distinction between rules which tell you what you ought to
-<i>be</i> and rules which tell you merely what you ought to <i>do</i>; or as
-the distinction between rules which are concerned with your inner
-life&mdash;with your thoughts and feelings&mdash;and those which are concerned
-only with your external actions. The rules which are concerned with
-what you ought to <i>be</i> or with your inner life are, for the most part
-at all events, "ideal" rules; while those which are concerned with what
-you ought to do or your external actions are very often, at least,
-rules of duty. And it is often said that one great difference between
-the New Testament and the Old is its comparatively greater insistence
-on "ideal" rules&mdash;upon a change of heart&mdash;as opposed to mere rules of
-duty. And that there is a comparatively greater insistence on ideal
-rules I do not wish to deny. But that there are plenty of ideal rules
-in the Old Testament too must not be forgotten. I have already given an
-example from the Ten Commandments: namely the rule which says you ought
-not to covet anything which belongs to your neighbour. And another
-is<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_322" id="Page_322">[Pg 322]</a></span> supplied by the Old Testament commandment, "Love thy neighbour as
-thyself," if by "love" is here meant a feeling which is not within our
-own control, and not merely that the Jew is to <i>help</i> other Jews by his
-external actions. Indeed, however great may be the difference between
-the Old Testament and the New in respect of comparative insistence on
-ideal rules rather than rules of duty, I am inclined to think that
-there is at least as great a difference, illustrated by this very rule,
-in another, quite different, respect&mdash;namely in the kind of rules,
-<i>both ideal and of duty,</i> which are insisted on. For whereas by "thy
-neighbour" in the Old Testament there is plainly meant only other Jews,
-and it is not conceived either that it is the duty of a Jew to help
-foreigners in general, or an ideal for him to love them; in the New
-Testament, where the same words are used, "my neighbour" plainly is
-meant to include all mankind. And this distinction between the view
-that beneficent action and benevolent feelings should be confined to
-those of our own nation, and the view that both should be extended
-equally to all mankind,&mdash;a distinction which has nothing to do with
-the distinction between being and doing, between inner and outer, but
-affects both equally&mdash;is, I am inclined to think, at least as important
-a difference between New Testament and Old, as the comparatively
-greater insistence on "ideal" rules. However, the point upon which I
-want at present to insist is the distinction between ideal rules and
-rules of duty. Both kinds are commonly included among moral rules,
-and, as my examples have shown, are often mentioned together as if no
-great difference were seen between them. What I want to insist on is
-that there is a great difference between them: that whereas rules of
-duty do directly assert of the idea of duty, in the sense in which to
-say that something is your duty implies<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_323" id="Page_323">[Pg 323]</a></span> that you <i>can</i> do it, that
-certain things are duties, the "ideal" rules do <i>not</i> assert this, but
-something different. Yet the "ideal" rules certainly do, in a sense,
-assert a "moral obligation." And hence we have to recognise that the
-phrase "moral obligation" is not merely a name for one idea only, but
-for two very different ideas; and the same will, of course, be true of
-the corresponding phrase "morally wrong."</p>
-
-<p>When, therefore, I say that the idea of "moral obligation" is one of
-the fundamental ideas with which Moral Philosophy is concerned, I think
-we must admit that this one name really stands for two different ideas.
-But it does not matter for my purpose which of the two you take. Each
-of them is undoubtedly a moral idea, and whatever answer be given to
-the question we are going to raise about the one, will also certainly
-apply to the other.</p>
-
-<p>But it is now time to turn to the other idea, with which I said that
-Moral Philosophy has been largely concerned, though it is not, strictly
-speaking, a moral idea, at all.</p>
-
-<p>And I think, perhaps, a good way of bringing out what this idea is,
-is to refer to the Ethics of Aristotle. Everybody would admit that
-the fundamental idea, with which Aristotle's Ethics is concerned, is
-an idea which it is the business of Moral Philosophy to discuss; and
-yet I think it is quite plain that this idea is not a moral idea at
-all. Aristotle does not set out from' the idea of moral obligation
-or duty (indeed throughout his treatise he only mentions this idea
-quite incidentally); nor even from the idea of moral goodness or moral
-excellence, though he has a good deal more to say about that; but
-from the idea of what he calls "the human good," or "good for man."
-He starts by raising the question what the good for man <i>is,</i> and his
-whole book is arranged in the form of giving a detailed answer to<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_324" id="Page_324">[Pg 324]</a></span> that
-question. And I think we can gather pretty well what the idea is, which
-he calls by this name, by considering what he says about it. There
-are two points, in particular, which he insists upon from the outset:
-first, that nothing can be good, in the sense he means, unless it is
-something which is worth having for its own sake, and not merely for
-the sake of something else; it must be good <i>in itself</i>; it must not,
-like wealth (to use one example which he gives) be worth having merely
-for the sake of what you can do with it; it must be a thing which is
-worth having even if nothing further comes of it. And secondly (what
-partly covers the former, but also, I think, says something more) it
-must, he says, be something that is "self-sufficient": something which,
-even if you had nothing else would make your life worth having. And
-further light is thrown upon his meaning when he comes to tell you
-what he thinks the good for man is: the good, he says, is "mental,
-activity&mdash;where such activity is of an excellent kind, or, if there
-are several different kinds of excellent mental activity, that which
-has the best and most perfect kind of excellence; and also" (he
-significantly adds) "mental activity which lasts through a sufficiently
-long life." The word which I have here translated "excellence" is what
-is commonly translated "virtue"; but it does not mean quite the same
-as we mean by "virtue," and that in a very important respect. "Virtue"
-has come to mean exclusively <i>moral</i> excellence; and if that were all
-Aristotle meant, you might think that what he means by "good" came
-very near being a moral idea. But it turns out that he includes among
-"excellences," intellectual excellence, and even that he thinks that
-the best and most perfect excellence of which he speaks is a particular
-kind of intellectual excellence, which no one would think of calling a
-moral quality, namely, the sort of excellence which<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_325" id="Page_325">[Pg 325]</a></span> makes a man a good
-philosopher. And as for the word which I have translated "activity,"
-the meaning of this can be best brought out by mentioning the reason
-which Aristotle himself gives for saying that mere excellence itself is
-not (as some of the Greeks had said) the good for man. He says, truly
-enough, that a man may possess the greatest excellence&mdash;he may be a
-very excellent man&mdash;even when he is asleep, or is doing nothing; and
-he points out that the possession of excellence when you are asleep
-is not a thing that is desirable <i>for its own sake</i>&mdash;obviously only
-for the sake of the effects it may produce when you wake up. It is not
-therefore, he thinks, mere mental excellence, but the <i>active exercise</i>
-of mental excellence&mdash;the state of a man's mind, when he not only
-possesses excellent faculties, moral or intellectual, but is actively
-engaged in using them, which really constitutes the human good.</p>
-
-<p>Now, when Aristotle talks of "the good for man," there is, I think, as
-my quotation is sufficient to show, a certain confusion in his mind
-between what is <i>good</i> for man and what is <i>best</i> for man. What he
-really holds is that <i>any</i> mental activity which exhibits excellence
-and is pleasurable is <i>a</i> good; and when he adds that, if there are
-many excellences, <i>the</i> good must be mental activity which exhibits
-the <i>best</i> of them, and that it must last through a sufficiently long
-life, he only means that this is necessary if a man is to get the
-<i>best</i> he can get, not that this is the <i>only</i> good he can get. And
-the idea which I wish to insist on is not, therefore, the idea of
-"<i>the</i> human good," but the more fundamental idea of "good "; the idea,
-with regard to which he holds that the working of our minds in some
-excellent fashion is the only good thing that any of us can possess;
-and the idea of which "better" is the comparative, when he says that
-mental activity<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_326" id="Page_326">[Pg 326]</a></span> which exhibits some sorts of excellence is <i>better</i>
-than mental activity which exhibits others, though both are good, and
-that excellent mental activity continued over a longer time is <i>better</i>
-than the same continued for a shorter. This idea of what is "good," in
-the sense in which Aristotle uses it in these cases, is an idea which
-we all of us constantly use, and which is certainly an idea which it
-is the business of Moral Philosophy to discuss, though it is not a
-moral idea. The main difficulty with regard to it is to distinguish it
-clearly from other senses in which we use the same word. For, when we
-say that a thing is "good," or one thing "better" than another, we by
-no means always mean that it is better in this sense. Often, when we
-call a thing good we are not attributing to it any characteristic which
-it would possess <i>if it existed quite alone,</i> and if nothing further
-were to come of it; but are merely saying of it that it is a sort of
-thing from which other good things do in fact come, or which is such
-that, when accompanied by other things, the whole thus formed is "good"
-in Aristotle's sense, although, by itself, it is not. Thus a man may
-be "good," and his character may be "good," and yet neither are "good"
-in this fundamental sense, in which goodness is a characteristic which
-a thing would possess, if it existed quite alone. For, as Aristotle
-says, a good man may exist, and may have a good character, even when
-he is fast asleep; and yet if there were nothing in the Universe but
-good men, with good characters, all fast asleep, there would be nothing
-in it which was "good" in the fundamental sense with which we are
-concerned. Thus "moral goodness," in the sense of good character, as
-distinguished from the actual working of a good character in various
-forms of mental activity, is certainly not "good" in the sense in which
-good means "good for its own<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_327" id="Page_327">[Pg 327]</a></span> sake." And even with regard to the actual
-exercise of certain forms of moral excellence, it seems to me that in
-estimating the value of such exercise relatively to other things, we
-are apt to take into account, not merely its intrinsic value&mdash;the sort
-of value which it would possess, if it existed quite alone&mdash;but also
-its effects: we rate it higher than we should do if we were considering
-only its intrinsic value, because we take into account the other good
-things which we know are apt to flow from it. Certain things which
-have intrinsic value are distinguished from others, by the fact that
-more good consequences are apt to flow from them; and where this is
-the case, we are apt, I think, quite unjustly, to think that their
-intrinsic value must be higher too. One thing, I think, is clear about
-intrinsic value&mdash;goodness in Aristotle's sense&mdash;namely that it is only
-actual occurrences, actual states of things over a certain period of
-time&mdash;not such things as men, or characters, or material things, that
-can have any intrinsic value at all. But even this is not sufficient to
-distinguish intrinsic value clearly from other sorts of goodness: since
-even in the case of actual occurrences, we often call them good or bad
-for the sake of their effects or their promise of effects. Thus we
-all hope that the state of things in England, as a whole, will really
-be better some day than it has been in the past&mdash;that there will be
-progress and improvement: we hope, for instance, that, if we consider
-the whole of the lives lived in England during some year in the next
-century, it may turn out that the state of things, as a whole, during
-that year will be really better than it ever has been in any past year.
-And when we use "better" in this way&mdash;in the sense in which progress
-or improvement means a change to a <i>better</i> state of things&mdash;we are
-certainly thinking partly of a state of things which has a greater<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_328" id="Page_328">[Pg 328]</a></span>
-intrinsic value. And we certainly do not mean by improvement merely
-<i>moral</i> improvement. An improvement in moral conditions, other things
-being equal, may no doubt be a gain in intrinsic value; but we should
-certainly hold that, moral conditions being equal, there is yet room
-for improvement in other ways&mdash;in the diminution of misery and purely
-physical evils, for example. But in considering the degree of a real
-change for the better in intrinsic value, there is certainly danger of
-confusion between the degree in which the actual lives lived are really
-intrinsically better, and the degree in which there is improvement
-merely in the <i>means</i> for living a good life. If we want to estimate
-rightly what would constitute an intrinsic improvement in the state
-of things in our imagined year next century, and whether it would on
-the whole be really "good" at all, we have to consider what value it
-would have if it were to be the last year of life upon this planet;
-if the world were going to come to an end, as soon as it was over;
-and therefore to discount entirely all the promises it might contain
-of future goods. This criterion for distinguishing whether the kind
-of goodness which we are attributing to anything is really intrinsic
-value or not, the criterion which consists in considering whether it
-is a characteristic which the thing would possess, if it were to have
-absolutely no further consequences or accompaniments, seems to me to
-be one which it is very necessary to apply if we wish to distinguish
-clearly between different meanings of the word "good." And it is only
-the idea of what is good, where by "good" is meant a characteristic
-which has this mark, that I want now to consider.</p>
-
-<p>The two ideas, then, with regard to which I want to raise a question,
-are first the moral idea of "moral obligation" or "duty," and secondly
-the non-moral idea of "good" in this special sense.</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_329" id="Page_329">[Pg 329]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>And the question with regard to them, which I want to raise, is this.
-With regard to both ideas many philosophers have thought and still
-think&mdash;not only <i>think</i>, but seem to be absolutely convinced, that when
-we apply them to anything&mdash;when we assert of any action that it ought
-not to have been done, or of any state of things that it was or would
-be good or better than another, then it <i>must</i> be the case that <i>all</i>
-that we are asserting of the thing or things in question is simply
-and solely that some person or set of persons actually does have, or
-has a tendency to have a certain sort of feeling towards the thing or
-things in question: that there is absolutely no more in it than this.
-While others seem to be convinced, no less strongly, that there <i>is</i>
-more in it than this: that when we judge that an action is a duty or
-is really wrong, we are <i>not</i> merely making a judgment to the effect
-that some person or set of persons, have, or tend to have a certain
-sort of feeling, when they witness or think of such actions, and that
-similarly when we judge that a certain state of things was or would be
-better than another, we are <i>not</i> merely making a judgment about the
-feelings which some person or set of persons would have, in witnessing
-or thinking of the two states of things, or in comparing them together.
-The question at issue between these two views is often expressed in
-other less clear forms. It is often expressed as the question whether
-the ideas of duty and of good or value, are or are not, "objective"
-ideas: as the problem as to the "objectivity" of duty and intrinsic
-value. The first set of philosophers would maintain that the notion of
-the "objectivity" of duty and of value is a mere chimera; while the
-second would maintain that these ideas really are "objective." And
-others express it as the question whether the ideas of duty and of good
-are "absolute" or purely "relative<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_330" id="Page_330">[Pg 330]</a></span>": whether there is any such thing
-as an absolute duty or an absolute good, or whether good and duty are
-purely relative to human feelings and desires. But both these ways
-of expressing it are, I think, apt to lead to confusion. And another
-even less clear way in which it is put is by asking the question: Is
-the assertion that such and such a thing is a duty, or has intrinsic
-value, ever <i>a dictate of reason?</i> But so far as I can gather, the
-question really at issue, and expressed in these obscure ways, is the
-one which I have tried to state. It is the question whether when we
-judge (whether truly or falsely) that an action is a duty or a state
-of things good, <i>all</i> that we are thinking about the action or the
-state of things in question, is simply and solely that we ourselves
-or others have or tend to have a certain feeling towards it when we
-contemplate or think of it. And the question seems to me to be of great
-interest, because, if this is all, then it is evident that all the
-ideas with which Moral Philosophy is concerned are merely psychological
-ideas; and all moral rules, and statements as to what is intrinsically
-valuable, merely true or false psychological statements; so that
-the whole of Moral Philosophy and Ethics will be merely departments
-of Psychology. Whereas, if the contrary is the case, then these two
-ideas of moral obligation and intrinsic value, will be no more purely
-psychological ideas than are the ideas of shape or size or number; and
-Moral Philosophy will be concerned with characteristics of actions
-and feelings and states of affairs, which these actions and feelings
-and states of affairs would or might have possessed, even if human
-psychology had been quite different from what it is.</p>
-
-<p>Which, then, of these two views is the true one? Are these two ideas
-merely psychological ideas in the sense which I have tried to explain,
-or are they not?</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_331" id="Page_331">[Pg 331]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>As I have said, I feel some doubts myself whether they are or not: it
-does not seem to me to be a matter to dogmatize upon. But I am strongly
-inclined to think that they are not merely psychological; that Moral
-Philosophy and Ethics are not mere departments of Psychology. In favour
-of the view that the two ideas in question are merely psychological,
-there is, so far as I am aware, nothing whatever to be said, except
-that so many philosophers have been absolutely convinced that they are.
-None of them seem to me to have succeeded in bringing forward a single
-argument in favour of their view. And against the view that they are,
-there seem to me to be some quite definite arguments, though I am not
-satisfied that any of these arguments are absolutely conclusive. I will
-try to state briefly and clearly what seem to me the main arguments
-against the view that these are merely psychological ideas; although,
-in doing so, I am faced with a certain difficulty. For though, as I
-have said, many philosophers are absolutely convinced, that "duty"
-and "good" do merely stand for psychological ideas, they are by no
-means agreed <i>what</i> the psychological ideas are for which they stand.
-Different philosophers have hit on very different ideas as being the
-ideas for which they stand; and this very fact that, if they <i>are</i>
-psychological ideas at all, it is so difficult to agree as to <i>what</i>
-ideas they are, seems to me in itself to be an argument against the
-view that they are so.</p>
-
-<p>Let me take each of the two ideas separately, and try to exhibit the
-sort of objection there seems to be to the view that it is merely a
-psychological idea.</p>
-
-<p>Take first the idea of moral obligation. What purely psychological
-assertion can I be making about an action, when I assert that it was
-"wrong," that it ought not to have been done?</p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_332" id="Page_332">[Pg 332]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>In this case, one view, which is in some ways the most plausible that
-can be taken, is that in every case I am merely making an assertion
-about my own psychology. But what assertion about my own psychology can
-I be making? Let us take as an example, the view of Prof. Westermarck,
-which is as plausible a view of this type as any that I know of. He
-holds that what I am judging when I judge an action to be wrong, is
-merely that it is of a sort which <i>tends</i> to excite in me a peculiar
-kind of feeling&mdash;the feeling of moral indignation or disapproval. He
-does not say that what I am judging is that the action in question <i>is
-actually</i> exciting this feeling in me. For it is obviously not true
-that, when I judge an action to be much more wrong than another, I am
-always actually feeling much indignation at the thought of either, or
-much more indignation at the thought of the one than at that of the
-other; and it is inconceivable that I should constantly be making so
-great a mistake as to my own psychology, as to think that I am actually
-feeling great indignation when I am not. But he thinks it is plausible
-to say that I am making a judgment as to the <i>tendency</i> of such actions
-to excite indignation in me; that, for instance, when I judge that one
-is much more wrong than the other, I am merely asserting the fact,
-taught me by my past experience, that, if I were to witness the two
-actions, under similar circumstances, I should feel a much more intense
-indignation at the one than at the other.<a name="FNanchor_1_6" id="FNanchor_1_6"></a><a href="#Footnote_1_6" class="fnanchor">[1]</a></p>
-
-<p><span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_333" id="Page_333">[Pg 333]</a></span></p>
-
-<p>But there is one very serious objection to such a view, which I think
-that those who take it are apt not fully to realise. If this view be
-true, then when I judge an action to be wrong, I am merely making a
-judgment about my own feelings towards it; and when you judge it to
-be wrong, you are merely making a judgment about yours. And hence the
-word "wrong" in my mouth, means something entirely different from
-what it does in yours; just as the word "I" in my mouth stands for an
-entirely different person from what it does in yours&mdash;in mine it stands
-for me, in yours it stands for you. That is to say when I judge of a
-given action that it was wrong, and you perhaps of the very same action
-that it was not, we are not in fact differing in opinion about it at
-all; any more than we are differing in opinion if I make the judgment
-"I came from Cambridge to-day" and you make the judgment "<i>I</i> did not
-come from Cambridge to-day." When <i>I</i> say "That was wrong" I am merely
-saying "That sort of action excites indignation in me, when I see it";
-and when you say "No; it was not wrong" you are merely saying "It
-does not excite indignation in <i>me,</i> when <i>I</i> see it." And obviously
-both judgments may perfectly well be true together; just as my judgment
-that I did come from Cambridge to-day and yours that you did not, may
-perfectly well be true together. In other words, and this is what I
-want to insist on, if this view be true, then there is absolutely
-no such thing as a difference of opinion upon moral questions. If
-two persons think they differ in opinion on a moral question (and it
-certainly seems as if they sometimes <i>think</i> so), they are always,
-on this view, making a mistake, and a mistake so gross that it seems
-hardly possible that they should make it: a mistake as gross as that
-which would be involved in thinking that when you say "I did not come
-from Cambridge to-day" you<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_334" id="Page_334">[Pg 334]</a></span> are denying what I say when I say "I did."
-And this seems to me to be a very serious objection to the view.
-Don't people, in fact, sometimes really differ in opinion on a moral
-question? Certainly all appearances are in favour of the view that they
-do: and yet, if they do, that can only be if when I think a thing to
-be wrong, and you think it not to be wrong, I mean by "wrong" the very
-<i>same</i> characteristic which you mean, and am thinking that the action
-possesses this characteristic while you are thinking it does not. It
-must be the very <i>same</i> characteristic which we both mean; it cannot
-be, as this view says it is, merely that I am thinking that it has to
-my feelings the very same relation, which you are thinking that it
-has not got to yours; since, if this were all, then there would be no
-difference of opinion between us.</p>
-
-<p>And this view that when we talk of wrong or duty, we are not
-merely, each of us, making a statement about the relation of the
-thing in question to our own feelings, may be reinforced by another
-consideration. It is commonly believed that some moral rules exhibit a
-<i>higher</i> morality than others: that, for instance a person who believes
-that it is our duty to do good to our enemies, has a higher moral
-belief, than one who believes that he has no such duty, but only a duty
-to do good to his friends or fellow-countrymen. And Westermarck himself
-believes that, some moral beliefs, "mark a stage of higher refinement
-in the evolution of the moral consciousness."<a name="FNanchor_2_7" id="FNanchor_2_7"></a><a href="#Footnote_2_7" class="fnanchor">[2]</a> But what, on his view
-can be meant by saying that one moral belief is higher than another? If
-A believes that it is his duty to do good to his enemies and B believes
-that it is not, in what sense can A's belief be higher than B's? Not,
-on this view, in the sense that what A believes is true, and what B
-believes is not; for what A is believing is merely that the idea of not
-doing good<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_335" id="Page_335">[Pg 335]</a></span> to your enemies tends to excite in him a feeling of moral
-indignation, and what B believes is merely that it does not tend to
-excite this feeling in <i>him</i>: and both beliefs may perfectly well be
-true; it may really be true that the same actions do excite the feeling
-in A, and that they don't in B. What then, could Westermarck mean by
-saying that A's morality is higher than B's? So far as I can see, what,
-on his own views, he would have to mean is merely that he himself,
-Westermarck, shares A's morality and does not share B's: that it is
-true of him, as of A, that neglecting to do good to enemies excites
-his feelings of moral indignation and not true of him as it is of B,
-that it does <i>not</i> excite such feelings in him. In short he would have
-to say that what he means by calling A's morality the higher is merely
-"A's morality is <i>my</i> morality, and B's is not." But it seems to me
-quite clear that when we say one morality is higher than another, we do
-not merely mean that it is our own. We are not merely asserting that it
-has a certain relation to our own feelings, but are asserting, if I may
-say so, that the person who has it has a better moral taste than the
-person who has not. And whether or not this means merely, as I think,
-that what the one believes is true, and what the other believes is
-false, it is at all events inconsistent with the view that in all cases
-we are merely making a statement about our own feelings.</p>
-
-<p>For these reasons it seems to me extremely difficult to believe that
-when we judge things to be wrong, each of us is merely making a
-judgment about <i>his own</i> psychology. But if not about our own, then
-about whose? I have already said that the view that, if the judgment
-is merely a psychological one at all, it is a judgment about our
-own psychology, is in some ways more plausible than any other view.
-And I think we can now see that any other view is <i>not</i> plausible.
-The alternatives<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_336" id="Page_336">[Pg 336]</a></span> are that I should be making a judgment about the
-psychology of all mankind, or about that of some particular section
-of it. And that the first alternative is not true, is, I think,
-evident from the fact that, when I judge an action to be wrong, I
-may emphatically <i>not</i> believe that it is true of all mankind that
-they would regard it with feelings of moral disapproval. I may know
-perfectly well that some would not. Most philosophers, therefore, have
-not ventured to say that this is the judgment I am making; they say,
-for instance, that I am making a judgment about the feelings of the
-particular society to which I belong&mdash;about, for instance, the feelings
-of an impartial spectator in that society. But, if this view be taken,
-it is open to the same objections as the view that I am merely making a
-judgment about my own feelings. If we could say that every man, when he
-judges a thing to be wrong, was making a statement about the feelings
-of all mankind, then when A says "This is wrong" and B says "No, it
-isn't," they would really be differing in opinion, since A would be
-saying that all mankind feel in a certain way towards the action, and
-B would be saying that they don't. But if A is referring merely to his
-society and B to his, and their societies are different, then obviously
-they are not differing in opinion at all: it may perfectly well be true
-both that an impartial spectator in A's society does have a certain
-sort of feeling towards actions of the sort in question, and that an
-impartial spectator in B's does not. This view, therefore, implies that
-it is impossible for two men belonging to different societies ever to
-differ in opinion on a moral question. And this is a view which I find
-it almost as hard to accept as the view that <i>no</i> two men ever differ
-in opinion on one.</p>
-
-<p>For these reasons I think there are serious<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_337" id="Page_337">[Pg 337]</a></span> objections to the view
-that the idea of moral obligation is merely a psychological idea.</p>
-
-<p>But now let us briefly consider the idea of "good," in Aristotle's
-sense, or intrinsic value.</p>
-
-<p>As regards this idea, there is again a difference of opinion among
-those who hold that it is a psychological idea, as to <i>what</i> idea it
-is. The majority seem to hold that it is to be defined, somehow, in
-terms of desire; while others have held that what we are judging when
-we judge that one state of things is or would be intrinsically better
-than another, is rather that the belief that the one was going to be
-realized would, under certain circumstances, give more pleasure to some
-man or set of men, than the belief that the other was. But the same
-objections seem to me to apply whichever of these two views be taken.</p>
-
-<p>Let us take desire. About whose desires am I making a judgment, when I
-judge that one state of things would be better than another?</p>
-
-<p>Here again, it may be said, first of all, that I am merely making a
-judgment about my own. But in this case the view that my judgment is
-merely about my own psychology is, I think, exposed to an obvious
-objection to which Westermarck's view that my judgments of moral
-obligation are about my own psychology was not exposed. The obvious
-objection is that it is evidently not true that I do in fact always
-desire more, what I judge to be better: I may judge one state of things
-to be better than another, even when I know perfectly well not only
-that I don't desire it more, but that I have no tendency to do so. It
-is a notorious fact that men's strongest desires are, as a rule, for
-things in which they themselves have some personal concern; and yet
-the fact that this is so, and that they know it to be so, does not
-prevent them from judging that changes, which would not affect them
-personally,<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_338" id="Page_338">[Pg 338]</a></span> would constitute a very much greater improvement in the
-world's condition, than changes which would. For this reason alone the
-view that when I judge one state of things to be better than another I
-am merely making a judgment about my own psychology, must, I think, be
-given up: it is incredible that we should all be making such mistakes
-about our feelings, as, on this view, we should constantly be doing.
-And there is, of course, besides, the same objection, as applied in
-the case of moral obligation: namely that, if this view were true, no
-two men could ever differ in opinion as to which of two states was the
-better, whereas it appears that they certainly sometimes do differ in
-opinion on such an issue.</p>
-
-<p>My judgment, then, is not merely a judgment about my own psychology:
-but, if so, about whose psychology is it a judgment? It cannot be a
-judgment that all men desire the one state more than the other; because
-that would include the judgment that I myself do so, which, as we have
-seen, I often know to be false, even while I judge that the one state
-really is better. And it cannot, I think, be a judgment merely about
-the feelings or desires of an impartial spectator in my own society;
-since that would involve the paradox that men belonging to different
-societies could never differ in opinion as to what was better. But we
-have here to consider an alternative, which did not arise in the case
-of moral obligation. It is a notorious fact that the satisfaction of
-some of our desires is incompatible with the satisfaction of others,
-and the satisfaction of those of some men with the satisfaction of
-those of others. And this fact has suggested to some philosophers that
-what we mean by saying that one state of things would be better than
-another, is merely that it is a state in which more of the desires, of
-those who were in it, would be<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_339" id="Page_339">[Pg 339]</a></span> satisfied at once, than would be the
-case with the other. But to this view the fundamental objection seems
-to me to be that whether the one state was better than the other would
-depend not merely upon the number of desires that were simultaneously
-satisfied in it, but upon what the desires were desires for. I can
-imagine a state of things in which all desires were satisfied, and yet
-can judge of it that it would not be so good as another in which some
-were left unsatisfied. And for this reason I cannot assent to the view
-that my judgment, that one state of things is better than another is
-merely a judgment about the psychology of the people concerned in it.</p>
-
-<p>This is why I find it hard to believe that either the idea of moral
-obligation or the idea of intrinsic value is merely a psychological
-idea. It seems to me that Moral Philosophy cannot be merely a
-department of Psychology. But no doubt there may be arguments on the
-other side to which I have not done justice.</p>
-
-
-<div class="footnote">
-
-<p><a name="Footnote_1_6" id="Footnote_1_6"></a><a href="#FNanchor_1_6"><span class="label">[1]</span></a> E Westermarck, <i>The Origin and Development of Moral
-Ideas</i>, Vol. I, pp. 4, 13, 17-18, 100-101. On p. 105, however,
-Westermarck suggests a view inconsistent with this one; namely that,
-when I judge an action to be wrong, I am not <i>merely</i> asserting that it
-has a tendency to excite moral indignation in me, but am also asserting
-that other people <i>would be</i> convinced that it has a tendency to excite
-moral indignation in them, if they "knew the act and all its attendant
-circumstances as well as [I do], and if, at the same time their
-emotions were as refined as [mine]."</p></div>
-<hr class="r5" />
-<div class="footnote">
-
-<p><a name="Footnote_2_7" id="Footnote_2_7"></a><a href="#FNanchor_2_7"><span class="label">[2]</span></a> Ibid. p. 89.</p></div>
-
-
-<h4>THE END</h4>
-
-
-<hr class="full" />
-<p class="pagenum"><a name="Page_341" id="Page_341">[Pg 341]</a></p>
-
-<p style="margin-left: 15%;">
-<span class="caption">INDEX</span><br />
-<br />
-<br />
-Abstractions, "illegitimate" <a href='#Page_15'>15</a><br />
-Agnosticism, <a href='#Page_5'>5</a>, <a href='#Page_30'>30</a>, <a href='#Page_151'>151</a><br />
-"Analytic" truths, <a href='#Page_30'>30</a>-<a href='#Page_31'>31</a><br />
-Apprehension, direct, <a href='#Page_173'>173</a>-<a href='#Page_174'>174</a>, <a href='#Page_176'>176</a><br />
-Aristotle's Ethics, <a href='#Page_323'>323</a>-<a href='#Page_326'>326</a><br />
-Attention, <a href='#Page_176'>176</a><br />
-Awareness, <a href='#Page_25'>25</a>-<a href='#Page_26'>26</a>, <a href='#Page_29'>29</a><br />
-<br />
-"Being" and "Reality" <a href='#Page_199'>199</a>-<a href='#Page_201'>201</a>, <a href='#Page_214'>214</a>-<a href='#Page_218'>218</a><br />
-Berkeley, <a href='#Page_19'>19</a>, <a href='#Page_30'>30</a>, <a href='#Page_58'>58</a>, <a href='#Page_73'>73</a><br />
-Bradley, F, H., <a href='#Page_197'>197</a>-<a href='#Page_218'>218</a>, <a href='#Page_276'>276</a>, <a href='#Page_278'>278</a><br />
-Causal connection, <a href='#Page_154'>154</a>-<a href='#Page_156'>156</a>, <a href='#Page_161'>161</a>-<a href='#Page_163'>163</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">necessity, <a href='#Page_267'>267</a>-<a href='#Page_268'>268</a></span><br />
-Consciousness, <a href='#Page_17'>17</a>-<a href='#Page_18'>18</a>, <a href='#Page_20'>20</a>-<a href='#Page_21'>21</a>, <a href='#Page_23'>23</a>-<a href='#Page_25'>25</a><br />
-"Content" <a href='#Page_21'>21</a>-<a href='#Page_24'>24</a>, <a href='#Page_26'>26</a><br />
-<br />
-Deduction, <a href='#Page_40'>40</a>, <a href='#Page_291'>291</a>, <a href='#Page_303'>303</a><br />
-Difference,<br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">numerical and qualitative, <a href='#Page_262'>262</a>-<a href='#Page_263'>263</a>, <a href='#Page_285'>285</a>-<a href='#Page_287'>287</a>, <a href='#Page_307'>307</a>-<a href='#Page_308'>308</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">intrinsic, <a href='#Page_261'>261</a>-<a href='#Page_265'>265</a></span><br />
-Direct apprehension <a href='#Page_173'>173</a>-<a href='#Page_174'>174</a>, <a href='#Page_176'>176</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">observation, <a href='#Page_148'>148</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">perception, <a href='#Page_67'>67</a>-<a href='#Page_71'>71</a></span><br />
-Duty and Wrong, <a href='#Page_312'>312</a>-<a href='#Page_313'>313</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">"objectivity" of, <a href='#Page_237'>237</a>-<a href='#Page_238'>238</a>, <a href='#Page_332'>332</a>-<a href='#Page_337'>337</a></span><br />
-<br />
-Entails, <a href='#Page_291'>291</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">and "implies" <a href='#Page_300'>300</a>-<a href='#Page_301'>301</a>, <a href='#Page_303'>303</a>-<a href='#Page_306'>306</a></span><br />
-<i>Esse</i> and <i>percipi,</i> <a href='#Page_7'>7</a>-<a href='#Page_12'>12</a>, <a href='#Page_72'>72</a>-<a href='#Page_77'>77</a>, <a href='#Page_180'>180</a>-<a href='#Page_181'>181</a><br />
-Existence, <a href='#Page_72'>72</a>-<a href='#Page_78'>78</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">and "reality," <a href='#Page_199'>199</a>-<a href='#Page_201'>201</a>, <a href='#Page_214'>214</a>-<a href='#Page_218'>218</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">of physical objects, <a href='#Page_190'>190</a>-<a href='#Page_191'>191</a></span><br />
-"Experience," ambiguity of, <a href='#Page_177'>177</a>, <a href='#Page_179'>179</a>-<a href='#Page_180'>180</a>.<br />
-External objects and facts, <a href='#Page_152'>152</a>-<a href='#Page_154'>154</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">relations, <a href='#Page_270'>270</a>-<a href='#Page_272'>272</a>, <a href='#Page_276'>276</a>-<a href='#Page_309'>309</a></span><br />
-<br />
-Fact, matters of, <a href='#Page_148'>148</a>, <a href='#Page_302'>302</a>-<a href='#Page_303'>303</a><br />
-"Follows," <a href='#Page_40'>40</a>, <a href='#Page_284'>284</a>-<a href='#Page_285'>285</a>, <a href='#Page_291'>291</a>, <a href='#Page_300'>300</a>-<a href='#Page_301'>301</a>, <a href='#Page_303'>303</a>-<a href='#Page_306'>306</a><br />
-<br />
-"Given," ambiguity of, <a href='#Page_174'>174</a><br />
-"Good," ambiguity of, <a href='#Page_253'>253</a>, <a href='#Page_326'>326</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">objectivity of <a href='#Page_255'>255</a>-<a href='#Page_257'>257</a>, <a href='#Page_337'>337</a>-<a href='#Page_339'>339</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">"for man," <a href='#Page_323'>323</a>-<a href='#Page_325'>325</a></span><br />
-<br />
-Hegel, <a href='#Page_16'>16</a><br />
-Hume, <a href='#Page_53'>53</a>, <a href='#Page_58'>58</a>, <a href='#Page_147'>147</a>-<a href='#Page_167'>167</a><br />
-<br />
-"I." <a href='#Page_174'>174</a>-<a href='#Page_175'>175</a>. <a href='#Page_333'>333</a><br />
-Idealism, <a href='#Page_1'>1</a>-<a href='#Page_3'>3</a><br />
-Ideas, <a href='#Page_20'>20</a>-<a href='#Page_26'>26</a><br />
-Identity of Indiscernibles, <a href='#Page_307'>307</a>-<a href='#Page_308'>308</a><br />
-"Implication," <a href='#Page_295'>295</a>-<a href='#Page_297'>297</a><br />
-Indiscernibles, Identity of, <a href='#Page_307'>307</a>-<a href='#Page_308'>308</a><br />
-Induction,<br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">conditions necessary for, <a href='#Page_61'>61</a>-<a href='#Page_67'>67</a></span><br />
-Internal relations,<br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">dogma of, <a href='#Page_270'>270</a>-<a href='#Page_272'>272</a>, <a href='#Page_284'>284</a>-<a href='#Page_286'>286</a>, <a href='#Page_286'>286</a>-<a href='#Page_289'>289</a>, <a href='#Page_288'>288</a>, <a href='#Page_290'>290</a>, <a href='#Page_303'>303</a>, <a href='#Page_307'>307</a>-<a href='#Page_309'>309</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">two senses of, <a href='#Page_286'>286</a></span><br />
-Intrinsic difference, <a href='#Page_261'>261</a>-<a href='#Page_265'>265</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">nature, <a href='#Page_260'>260</a>-<a href='#Page_265'>265</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">predicates, <a href='#Page_272'>272</a>-<a href='#Page_275'>275</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">value, <a href='#Page_259'>259</a>-<a href='#Page_260'>260</a>, <a href='#Page_327'>327</a>-<a href='#Page_328'>328</a>, <a href='#Page_337'>337</a>-<a href='#Page_339'>339</a></span><br />
-<br />
-James, William, <a href='#Page_97'>97</a>-<a href='#Page_146'>146</a><br />
-Joachim, H. H., <a href='#Page_276'>276</a><br />
-<br />
-Kant, <a href='#Page_12'>12</a>, <a href='#Page_30'>30</a>, <a href='#Page_317'>317</a><br />
-Knowledge, <a href='#Page_24'>24</a>-<a href='#Page_30'>30</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">and belief <a href='#Page_33'>33</a>-<a href='#Page_34'>34</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">by description, <a href='#Page_234'>234</a>, <a href='#Page_247'>247</a></span><br />
-<br />
-Leibniz, <a href='#Page_302'>302</a><br />
-<br />
-"Manifestation of," <a href='#Page_249'>249</a>-<a href='#Page_250'>250</a><br />
-Material objects or things, <a href='#Page_30'>30</a>, <a href='#Page_89'>89</a>-<a href='#Page_90'>90</a>, <a href='#Page_153'>153</a>, <a href='#Page_221'>221</a>-<a href='#Page_225'>225</a>, <a href='#Page_228'>228</a>, <a href='#Page_250'>250</a>-<a href='#Page_252'>252</a><br />
-Mill. J. S., <a href='#Page_19'>19</a>, <a href='#Page_224'>224</a>, <a href='#Page_250'>250</a>-<a href='#Page_252'>252</a><br />
-Minds, "in our," <a href='#Page_176'>176</a>-<a href='#Page_177'>177</a><br />
-"Modify," <a href='#Page_278'>278</a>-<a href='#Page_280'>280</a>, <a href='#Page_282'>282</a>-<a href='#Page_284'>284</a><br />
-Moral rules, two kinds of, <a href='#Page_320'>320</a>-<a href='#Page_322'>322</a><br />
-<span class="pagenum"><a name="Page_342" id="Page_342">[Pg 342]</a></span><br />
-Necessary truths, <a href='#Page_12'>12</a>, <a href='#Page_302'>302</a>-<a href='#Page_303'>303</a><br />
-Necessity, three senses of, <a href='#Page_265'>265</a>-<a href='#Page_270'>270</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">logical, <a href='#Page_271'>271</a>-<a href='#Page_272'>272</a>, <a href='#Page_275'>275</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">unconditional, <a href='#Page_271'>271</a>-<a href='#Page_272'>272</a>, <a href='#Page_274'>274</a>-<a href='#Page_275'>275</a></span><br />
-<br />
-"Objectivity," ambiguity of, <a href='#Page_255'>255</a>-<a href='#Page_259'>259</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">of kinds of value, <a href='#Page_329'>329</a>-<a href='#Page_339'>339</a></span><br />
-<br />
-Objects,<br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">external, <a href='#Page_152'>152</a>-<a href='#Page_153'>153</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">material, <a href='#Page_30'>30</a>, <a href='#Page_89'>89</a>-<a href='#Page_90'>90</a>, <a href='#Page_221'>221</a>-<a href='#Page_223'>223</a>, <a href='#Page_250'>250</a>-<a href='#Page_252'>252</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">physical, and sensibles, <a href='#Page_185'>185</a>-<a href='#Page_196'>196</a>, <a href='#Page_221'>221</a>-<a href='#Page_223'>223</a></span><br />
-<br />
-Observation, <a href='#Page_53'>53</a>-<a href='#Page_54'>54</a>, <a href='#Page_67'>67</a>-<a href='#Page_71'>71</a>, <a href='#Page_148'>148</a><br />
-Organic unities, <a href='#Page_15'>15</a><br />
-"Ought," two meanings of, <a href='#Page_319'>319</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">objectivity of, <a href='#Page_332'>332</a>-<a href='#Page_337'>337</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">and "wrong" <a href='#Page_312'>312</a>-<a href='#Page_313'>313</a></span><br />
-<br />
-Part, physical, <a href='#Page_237'>237</a>-<a href='#Page_239'>239</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">and whole, <a href='#Page_288'>288</a>-<a href='#Page_289'>289</a></span><br />
-<br />
-"Perception," ambiguity of, <a href='#Page_174'>174</a>, <a href='#Page_225'>225</a>-<a href='#Page_228'>228</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">direct, <a href='#Page_67'>67</a>-<a href='#Page_71'>71</a></span><br />
-<i>Percipi</i> and <i>esse</i>, <a href='#Page_7'>7</a>-<a href='#Page_12'>12</a>, <a href='#Page_72'>72</a>-<a href='#Page_77'>77</a>, <a href='#Page_180'>180</a><a href='#Page_18'>18</a>1<br />
-Physical objects and sensibles, <a href='#Page_185'>185</a>-<a href='#Page_196'>196</a>, <a href='#Page_221'>221</a>-<a href='#Page_223'>223</a><br />
-Pickwickian senses, <a href='#Page_190'>190</a>, <a href='#Page_193'>193</a>, <a href='#Page_194'>194</a><br />
-"Possible," three senses of, <a href='#Page_265'>265</a>-<a href='#Page_270'>270</a><br />
-Pragmatist theory of truth, <a href='#Page_143'>143</a>-<a href='#Page_146'>146</a><br />
-"Presented," ambiguity of, <a href='#Page_174'>174</a><br />
-<br />
-Reality, <a href='#Page_72'>72</a>-<a href='#Page_78'>78</a>, <a href='#Page_199'>199</a>-<a href='#Page_201'>201</a>, <a href='#Page_211'>211</a>-<a href='#Page_218'>218</a><br />
-Reason, "dictates of," <a href='#Page_330'>330</a><br />
-Reasons, <a href='#Page_35'>35</a>-<a href='#Page_41'>41</a><br />
-Reid, T., <a href='#Page_57'>57</a>, <a href='#Page_59'>59</a>, <a href='#Page_86'>86</a>, <a href='#Page_89'>89</a><br />
-Relational properties, <a href='#Page_281'>281</a>-<a href='#Page_282'>282</a><br />
-Relations,<br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">dogma of internal, <a href='#Page_270'>270</a>-<a href='#Page_272'>272</a>, <a href='#Page_284'>284</a>-<a href='#Page_286'>286</a>, <a href='#Page_288'>288</a>, <a href='#Page_290'>290</a>, <a href='#Page_303'>303</a>, <a href='#Page_307'>307</a>-<a href='#Page_309'>309</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">external, <a href='#Page_270'>270</a>-<a href='#Page_272'>272</a>, <a href='#Page_276'>276</a>-<a href='#Page_309'>309</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">internal, <a href='#Page_286'>286</a>-<a href='#Page_289'>289</a></span><br />
-Right, objectivity of, <a href='#Page_257'>257</a>, <a href='#Page_332'>332</a>-<a href='#Page_337'>337</a><br />
-Russell, B., <a href='#Page_224'>224</a>, <a href='#Page_234'>234</a>, <a href='#Page_250'>250</a>-<a href='#Page_252'>252</a>, <a href='#Page_278'>278</a>, <a href='#Page_303'>303</a>, <a href='#Page_304'>304</a>, <a href='#Page_308'>308</a><br />
-<br />
-"See," ambiguity of, <a href='#Page_187'>187</a>-<a href='#Page_188'>188</a><br />
-"Seems," <a href='#Page_245'>245</a>-<a href='#Page_246'>246</a><br />
-Sensations, <a href='#Page_17'>17</a>-<a href='#Page_26'>26</a>, <a href='#Page_231'>231</a>-<a href='#Page_232'>232</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">proper, <a href='#Page_168'>168</a></span><br />
-Sense-data, <a href='#Page_168'>168</a>-<a href='#Page_171'>171</a>, <a href='#Page_231'>231</a>-<a href='#Page_232'>232</a><br />
-Sensibles, <a href='#Page_168'>168</a>-<a href='#Page_171'>171</a><br />
-Solipsism, <a href='#Page_29'>29</a><br />
-Spiritual, <a href='#Page_1'>1</a>-<a href='#Page_2'>2</a><br />
-Strachey, O., <a href='#Page_304'>304</a><br />
-"Subjective," <a href='#Page_253'>253</a>-<a href='#Page_254'>254</a><br />
-"Synthetic" truths, <a href='#Page_12'>12</a>-<a href='#Page_13'>13</a><br />
-<br />
-Taylor, A. E., <a href='#Page_8'>8</a><br />
-"Time," <a href='#Page_209'>209</a>-<a href='#Page_211'>211</a><br />
-Truth,<br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">and mutability <a href='#Page_129'>129</a>-<a href='#Page_138'>138</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">pragmatist theory of, <a href='#Page_143'>143</a>-<a href='#Page_146'>146</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">and utility, <a href='#Page_108'>108</a>-<a href='#Page_129'>129</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">and verification, <a href='#Page_100'>100</a>-<a href='#Page_107'>107</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">of words, <a href='#Page_134'>134</a>-<a href='#Page_136'>136</a></span><br />
-Truths, "analytic" and "synthetic" <a href='#Page_12'>12</a>-<a href='#Page_13'>13</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">"man-made" <a href='#Page_138'>138</a>-<a href='#Page_143'>143</a></span><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">necessary <a href='#Page_12'>12</a>, <a href='#Page_302'>302</a>-<a href='#Page_303'>303</a></span><br />
-<br />
-Value, intrinsic, <a href='#Page_259'>259</a>-<a href='#Page_260'>260</a>, <a href='#Page_327'>327</a>-<a href='#Page_328'>328</a>, <a href='#Page_337'>337</a>-<a href='#Page_339'>339</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">objectivity of, <a href='#Page_255'>255</a>-<a href='#Page_259'>259</a>, <a href='#Page_329'>329</a>-<a href='#Page_339'>339</a></span><br />
-<br />
-Westermarck, E., <a href='#Page_332'>332</a>, <a href='#Page_334'>334</a>-<a href='#Page_335'>335</a><br />
-"Wrong," objectivity of, <a href='#Page_332'>332</a>-<a href='#Page_337'>337</a><br />
-<span style="margin-left: 2em;">and "ought," <a href='#Page_312'>312</a>-<a href='#Page_313'>313</a></span><br />
-</p>
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-<pre>
-
-
-
-
-
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